12: Biosignaling Flashcards

1
Q

4 features of signal transduction systems

A

SADI
Specificity: signal molecule fits binding site on complementary receptor, other signals don’t fit
Amplification: the number of affected molecules increases geometrically in a cascade
Desensitization/Adaptation: recepter activation triggers a feedback circuit that shuts off the receptor or removes it from cell surface
Integration: when two signals have opposite effects on a metabolic characteristic the regulatory outcome results from the integrated input from both receptors

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2
Q

affinity vs specificity

A

specificity: how well it fits
affinity: how tight it binds

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3
Q

how can receptor-ligand binding be quantified?

A

similar to enzyme substrate concepts. binding of L to R depends on concentration of L and R. Kd is the dissociation constant and is equivalent to 50% occupancy of R with L. Kd=[R][L]/[RL]

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4
Q

describe Scatchard analysis

A

Scatchard can be used if investigating how many binding sites there are or determining purity. Uses the equation:
[bound]/[free] = [RL]/[L] = 1/Kd(Bmax - [RL])
what we can measure is [bound] and [free]
Bmax is the total number of sites. Bmax = [R] + [RL]
12 pt1 slide 6

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5
Q

6 basic signaling mechanisms

A

gated ion channel: opens/closes in response to signal
serpentine receptor: ligand binding receptor activates an intracellular GTP binding protein which sets of cascade
steroid receptor: steroid binding to a nuclear receptor protein allows regulation of gene expression (only receptor NOT in PM)
receptor enzyme: ligand binding extracellularly stimulates enzyme activity intracellularly
-receptor with no intrinsic enzyme activity: activates gene regulating cascade
-adhesion receptor: alters interaction with cytoskeleton

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6
Q

describe ligand gated ion channel receptors. specific example is nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

A

the receptor channel is closed when no acetylcholine (Ach) is present. cooperative binding (2nd molecule is easier to bind than 1st) occurs when 2 molecules of Ach bind and the gate opens allowing Na+ and Ca2+ to flow into cell, causing depolarization. desensitization occurs after continued excitation and the gate closes with Ach still bound. Ach dissociates and the receptor is resting again ready to be excited.

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7
Q

describe voltage gated channels. specific example is Na+, K+, and Ca2+ channels in action potential

A

when the membrane is at rest, all voltage gated channels are closed. the Na+ and K+ channels open when membrane is depolarized (caused by Ach gated receptors that allow Na+ to flow in). As depolarization reaches the tips (synaptic cleft) the Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ flows in which causes release of Ach and signal is passed on to next cell.

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8
Q

review membrane potential and the passive flow of ions, Na+, K+, Ca2+, and Cl-

A

the membrane potential is -60 to -70 mV as established by the Na+K+ ATPase which actively transports 2 K+ inside and 3 NA+ outside cell, giving cell negative charge inside. this pump action and voltage dictate passive ion flow direction
Na+ flows high to low (out to in)
K+ flows high to low (in to out)
Ca2+ flows high to low (out to in)
Cl- flows LOW to HIGH (in to out)
Cl- passive flow is explained by the negative charge and membrane voltage. according to equation, passive transport is a function of concentration in/out, ∆Vm, and the ion charge

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9
Q

how do neurons show integration?

A

they have both excitatory and inhibitory signals that are summed to determine the overall response. action potential occurs depending on whether summation of EPSPs and IPSPs results in reaching threshold or not.

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10
Q

describe receptor enzymes

A

they have an extracellular domain which binds ligand and intracellular domain which contains enzyme domain, often a kinase. ligand binding causes a conformational change which leads to change of activity of enzyme domain. cascades occur

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11
Q

describe insulin receptor try-specific protein kinase pathway

A

insulin bindes the insulin receptor which undergoes autophosphorylation on Tyr residues. the insulin receptor phosphorylates IRS-1 on its Tyr residues. SH2 domain of Grb2 binds to the IRS-1 phosphoTyr, Sos binds Grb2 SH3 domain, Sos binds to Ras and causes release of GDP and binding of GTP. Activated Ras binds and activates Raf-1. Raf-1 phosphorylates MEK, activating. MEK activates ERK. ERK activates transcription factors such as Elk1 which stimulate transcription of genes needed.
12 pt2 slide3

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12
Q

explain how insulin receptor is activated

A

autophosphorylation occurs as the activation loop, which blocks substrate binding site, is moved 30 angstroms after insulin binds. when inactive, the loop position is stabilized by Try and Asp residues, but phosphorylation of the Tyr residues causes the loop to move. this opens up the binding site for a target protein.

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13
Q

explain the domains on Grb2

A

SH2 has affinity for phosphotyrosine and SH3 has affinity for proline residues. This means that SH2 likes to bind to the activated IRS-1 when it has phosphotyrosine residues. SH2 likes to bind to Sos.
These domains are protein linkers/adapters which are discussed more later (?)

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14
Q

describe MAPK cascades in insulin signaling

A

MAPK = mitogen activated protein kinases. includes ERK, MEK, Raf-1 in insulin signaling
MAP kinases work in a variety of signal cascades

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15
Q

describe the other pathway activated by IRS-1 that controls glycogen synthesis

A

IRS-1 is phosphorylated by insulin receptor then it activates PI-3K by binding to its SH2 domain. PI-3K converts PIP2 to PIP3. PIP3 binds to PKB and it is phosphorylated by PDK1, activating, so it can then phosphorylate GSK3 and inactivate it. Inactivated GSK3 cannot convert glycogen synthase to its inactive form, so glycogen synthase is active and creates glycogen from glucose. PKB also stimulates movement of GLUT4 to the PM to increase glucose uptake
overall: blood glucose increases, insulin increases, more glycogen is synthesized

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16
Q

what are phosphoinositides and their structure?

A

important second messengers in signaling. there are many types depending on where they are phosphorylated. the general structure is the same: a glycerol backbone with two FA groups and a phosphate group linking to a hexose sugar. the sugar can be phosphorylated in many different ways

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17
Q

how is the insulin signal integrated?

A

The insulin signal causes two results: altered gene expression via Grb2-Sos-Ras and MAPK, and altered glycogen metabolism via PI3-K and PKB. the net result of the signal is determined by integration of these two processes

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18
Q

describe guanylyl cyclase (2 forms)

A

a receptor enzyme that is transmembrane, the structure is generally similar to other receptor enzymes but instead of kinase domain it has guaylate cyclase domain.
a receptor enzyme that is entirely cytosolic, the structure has a bound Heme group and is activated by nitric oxide NO binding to heme
it catalyzes conversion of GTP to cGMP, a second messenger that carries different messages throughout the cell.

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19
Q

where does NO come from and how does it effect vasodilation?

A

NO is a product of NO synthase converting arginine to citrulline. soluble guanylyl cyclase is activated by NO and it increases cGMP and out flow of Ca2+, which causes vasodilation

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20
Q

how is cGMP concentration regulated?

A

phosphodiesterase will convert cGMP to 5’GMP, which will decrease cGMP signaling such as decreasing vasodilation. (basis of viagra, which inhibits phosphodiesterase to prolong cGMP signaling and vasodilation)

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21
Q

components of serpentine receptors (G protein coupled receptors)

A

Plasma membrane receptor with 7 transmembrane segments
An enzyme to generate a second messenger (like AC or PLC)
G protein (Gs or Gi) that has three subunits

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22
Q

describe B-adrenergic receptor signal pathway

A

epinephrine signal binds to the extracellular domain of the serpentine receptor which causes the Gs protein to release GDP and bind GTP, activating. Gs alpha subunit moves to adenylyl cyclase and activates. AC catalyzes formation of cAMP which then activates PKA which phosphorylates proteins and causes cellular response of glucose mobilization. cAMP is degraded by phosphodiesterase to dampen PKA activation

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23
Q

what does adenylyl cyclase do? what activates it?

A

catalyzes formation of cAMP, a secondary messenger, from ATP. it is a counterpart to guanylyl cyclase. AC is activated by Gs-GTP (only GTP bound, GDP does not activate)

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24
Q

what does Gs do and how?

A

Gs is a self-limiting molecular switch that activates downstream proteins like AC. When GDP bound, Gs is off and cannot activate AC. contact with the hormone-receptor complex causes displacement of GDP and GTP binds. When GTP bound, Gs dissociates into a and By subunits. Gs alpha can activate AC. The protein has intrinsic GTPase activity that will eventually hydrolyze GTP to GDP and turn itself off (self-limiting) and subunits reassociate

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25
Q

how is PKA activated?

A

PKA is a tetramer with two regulatory and two catalytic domains. when no cAMP is present, the regulatory domains bind and block the catalytic active site. cAMP binding (4x) causes dissociation and opens the catalytic domain active site for substrate binding.

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26
Q

what is the importance of PKA? How does it work?

A

PKA regulates a TON of enzymes and proteins. it recognizes specific consensus sequences and can regulate pathways including glycogen synthesis, glycogen breakdown, TAG mobilization, DNA condensation, protein dephospho rylation, hormone synthesis, glycolysis, and more.
by knowing the consensus sequences PKA recognizes, we can predict activity

27
Q

how is adenylyl cyclase turned off? what drugs mess with this system?

A

cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase. This enzyme catalyzes the cAMP conversion to 5’-AMP which is not active as a second messenger.
caffeine and theophylline inhibit the phosphodiesterase causing cAMP to persist and the biological response to persist

28
Q

how is B-adrenergic receptor desensitized?

A

After the receptor is activated and the Gs dissociates, the By subunit recruits BARK (B-adrenergic receptor kinase) to the membrane where it phosphorylates Serine residues on the receptor. Then BARR (B-arrestin) binds to the phosphorylated receptor. This triggers endocytosis. In the vesicle, arrestin dissociates and receptor is dephosphorylated and returned to PM.

29
Q

What is PLC?

A

phospholipase C. cleaves phosphoinositol 4,5 bisphosphate into inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol.

30
Q

describe the pathway resulting from hormone activated serpentine receptors linked to PLC

A

hormone binds to the receptor and activates G protein which activates PLC. PLC forms IP3 and diacylglycerol. IP3 binds and opens a gated Ca2+ ion channel and allows Ca2+ flow into the cell. Diacylglycerol and Ca2+ activate protein kinase C (PKC) which phosphorylates proteins and produces a cellular response.

31
Q

what are phorbol esters?

A

molecules that mimic diacylglycerol and activate PKC, side stepping receptor activation. tumor promoters

32
Q

what makes Ca2+ different from Na+ and K+ in signaling terms?

A

normally levels of Ca2+ inside the cell are kept very minimum, unlike Na+ and K+, so even a small change in Ca2+ amount makes a significant difference

33
Q

what is calmodulin?

A

CaM detects Ca2+. Binding of Ca2+ alters its conformation and subsequently functions as an enzyme activator. One example is nitric oxide synthase which is activated by CaM to make NO.

34
Q

how do serpentine receptors show integration?

A

Both Gstimulatory and Ginhibitory proteins can be activated by a receptor. The cellular result is determined by the input of both these signals

35
Q

three ways a signal is turned off in serpentine receptors (B-adrenergic receptor)

A

cAMP destroyed by phosphodiesterase
GTP is hydrolyzed by inherent GTPase activity
desensitization by inducing translocation of receptor out of the membrane into vesicles

36
Q

what pathway uses PKA and what pathway uses PKC?

A

PKA is B-adrenergic and AC

PKC is calcium and PLC

37
Q

what is FRET?

A

fluorescence resonance energy transfer. similar thing as exciton transfer, a photon excites a molecule which then donates its energy to an adjacent molecule and then that molecule emits a fluorescent signal. this is only possible if the two molecules are within 1-50 Angstroms of each other. The longer wavelength is the second molecule, we set our detectors to that wavelength in order to detect how much the two molecules (proteins) interact

38
Q

What are fluorescent signals and how are fluorescent signals attached to proteins of interest?

A

we use Green Fluorescent protein (GFP) from jelly fish and its relatives as fluorescent molecules. They have a chromophore sequence of Ser-Tyr-Gly.
To attach, we design an expression vector with the GFP sequence attached to the protein of interest. The fusion protein is expressed and purified the same way we do other protein expressions. This is safer and easier than attempting to add a fluorescent molecule to protein, but you need to be aware of any possible functional changes due to the fusion protein construct.

39
Q

how do proteins find each other in a signaling pathway?

A

modular domains: unique 3D structures that independently recognize specific ligands. eg the SH2 domain on Grb2 recognizes phosphotyrosine as its ligand.

40
Q

mechanisms and consequences of fixing protein conformation in space (several proteins and single protein)

A

Fixing of several proteins in one space: a protein with a domain that binds phosphotyrosine and another protein which has a tyrosine that can be phosphorylated find each other and fix. consequence: can alter the activity of either protein or can bring an enzyme close to its substrate of another protein
Fixing of a single protein: a single protein has a domain that binds phosphotyrosine and a tyrosine that can become phosphorylated. consequence: can alter the activity of the single protein

41
Q

example of altering enzyme activity by fixing a single protein conformation

A

Src kinase is autoinhibited by the interaction of its SH2 domain and its phosphotyrosine. A signal can activate dephosphorylatoin of the Src kinase and therefore stop the interaction of SH2 and tyrosine, making the enzyme active

42
Q

what cellular feature is indicative of close signaling components

A

membrane rafts. having all components of a signaling system in one raft makes it more efficient (especially the G protein which is only active for a certain amount of time and must be close in order to activate downstream effectors)

43
Q

how does sensory transduction show SADI?

A

light is the initial signal detected. it induces a conformational change of rhodopsin chromophore. signal is amplified by mechanisms including gated ion channels and 2nd messengers. the system is adaptive and can adjust to high/low light. signal is integrated before it goes to brain

44
Q

components of vertebrate vision (eye)

A

the eye has ganglion neurons and interconnecting neurons that have two cellular compartments:
outer segment: many disks loaded with rhodopsin
inner segment: contains nucleus and many mitochondria

also has

rods: good with low light
cones: discriminate colors

45
Q

describe light induced hyperpolarization

A

in the dark, the cGMP-gated ion channel is open and Na+ and Ca2+ flows into the cell. This, along with Na+K+ATPase develops a membrane potential of -45 mV
in the light, the cGMP-gated ion channel is closed and Na+ does not flow into the cell. The resulting membrane potential is -75 mV, which is hyperpolarized

46
Q

describe the effect light has on rhodopsin and the excitation pathway

A

light induces a conformational change from cis to trans rhodopsin. Transducin (a G protein) can now interact with rhodopsin. The GDP in transducin is replaced with GTP, activating. transducin activates cGMP phosphodiesterase by removing its inhibitory subunit. phosphodiesterase reduces cGMP concentration and closes cGMP-gated ion channels. The closed channels stop Na+ and Ca2+ from entering and hyper polarization is achieved, passing signal to the brain.

47
Q

describe the recovery/adaptation of light transduction pathway

A

to recover the system, decreasing [Ca2+] activates guanylyl cyclase and inhibits phosphodiesterase. [cGMP] rises and ion channels open to return Vm to normal. rhodopsin kinase (stimulated by recoverin) phosphorylates the bleached rhodopsin. Arrestin binds the phosphorylated rhodopsin and inactivates. Arrestin slowly dissociates, rhodopsin is dephosphorylated, and the trans retinal is replaced with cis retinal. everything is ready to activate again

48
Q

describe amplification of the visual signal

A

each excited rhodopsin can activate over 500 transducins. each transducin can activate a molecule of phosphodiesterase, which results in over 4200 molecules of cGMP per second. 3 cooperative molecules of cGMP needed to open channels, little changes in Ca2+ make huge difference.
a single photon corresponds to the closing of over 1000 ion channels and changes the Vm by 1 mV

49
Q

how do cone cells work?

A

very similar to rods, but contain opsin proteins instead of rhodopsin protein. there are three types of opsin proteins in the cones (one for blue, red, and green light) that differ in electronic environments (conjugation?) to allow for different wavelength absorption. thus cones are good for distinguishing color.

50
Q

how is smell signaled?

A

similar to the visual system. GTP binding protein linked to serpentine receptor. AC is source of second messenger. cAMP gated Ca2+ channels are used. System is turned off by phosphodiesterase, endocytosing receptors, etc.
odor discrimination is perfect example of how signals are integrated “hybrid” patterns

51
Q

how is G protein signaling disrupted by bacterial toxins?

A

cholera and pertussis toxin can convert normal G protein to ADP-ribosylated G protein (attaches an ADP-ribose to the alpha subunit) which inhibits the normal GTPase activity. The G protein is constantly active.

52
Q

how is the cell cycle regulated?

A

timing of cell cycle is controlled by a family of cyclin dependent kinases that change activity in response to cellular signals (in the form of cyclin regulatory subunit). In order to pass through restriction points in the cycle, there must be the appropriate concentration of cyclins and CDKs

53
Q

four mechanisms for regulating CDK activity

A
  1. phosphorylation and dephosphorylation
  2. controlled degradation of the cyclin subunit
  3. periodic synthesis of CDKs and cyclins
  4. specific CDK inhibiting proteins
54
Q

explain how CDKs are activated by cyclin (1 regulation mechanisms)

A

two important steps:
an amino terminal helix with an important Glu residue must swing down and position the Glu in the active site. caused by cyclin association!
T loop must swing away to open the active site. caused by phosphorylated Thr160 residue!
There is also an emergency stop type action when Try15 is phosphorylated. it creates steric strain and blocks active site, inhibiting activity.

55
Q

explain how CDKs are regulated by proteolysis (2 regulation mechanisms)

A

highly specific and precise timed proteolytic breakdown of mitotic cyclins (eg to progress through mitosis requires first activation of cyclins A and B, but then destruction). cyclins degraded by proteasome if they are tagged with a ubiquitin recognized sequence. Destruction box is then made with ubiquitin additions by ubiquitin ligase system, recognized by proteasome and destroyed.

56
Q

explain the feedback loop in CDK regulation

A

once the CDK is activated by Thr160 phosphorylation and dephosphorylation of Tyr15, it will activate phosphatase which increases more CDK activity and so on in a positive feedback loop. However, CDK also activates DBRP which triggers ubiquitin additions to cyclin and cyclin destruction, decreasing CDK activity.

57
Q

how are CDKs regulated by protein synthesis and inhibitors?

A

protein synthesis: growth factors trigger activation of certain genes which are required for transcription of cyclins and CDKs
inhibitors: proteins that bind to and inactivate specific CDKs, like p21

58
Q

what is pRb? what is its role?

A

retinoblastoma protein is one of the substrates of CDKs and is required for passage from G1 to S phase. active CDK2 with cyclin E promotes phosphorylation of pRb and prevents it from binding E2F. E2F is then active and promotes transcription of enzymes for DNA synthesis. When the CDK-cyclin is inhibited (like with p51/p53), then pRb binds E2F and cell division is blocked
12 pt4 slide 20

59
Q

what are oncogenes?

A

genes derived from proton-oncogenes which encode growth regulating proteins, originally discovered in tumor-causing viruses.
defects in growth regulating factors can lead to cancer
oncogenes are genetically dominant, only need mutation on one pair of chromosomes to get cancerous result

60
Q

what are tumor suppressor genes?

A

encode proteins that normally restrain cell division.
p53 is the most famous. it is defective in about 50% of all human cancers and 90% of skin cancers.
genetically recessive: need mutation on both chromosomes to get cancerous result

61
Q

why does cancer risk increase over time?

A

cancer is often not the result of a single hit, its a building of many mutations that eventually become cancerous. the number of mutations you have increases with time

62
Q

what is apoptosis? when does it occur in normal life?

A

programmed cell death

  1. normal development of embryos
  2. B cell producing antibodies to an antigen that is part of the organism, eliminated to prevent autoimmune response
  3. response to biological signal like sever stress (heat, UV light, radiation) which causes genome damage
63
Q

how does apoptosis occur?

A

it is often initiated by an extracellular signal and involves same proteins as in the cell cycle. It involves the activation of many proteases, especially caspases (cysteine-aspartic proteases made from procaspases) which will cleave proteins and activate nuclease to cleave DNA.