1.2 + 1.3 highlights pt 1A Flashcards

1
Q

The most common cause of anemia is?

A

Iron deficiency

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2
Q

1) What is a pathophysiologic way to classify anemias?
2) What is a way to classify by RBC size?

A

1) Reticulocytes
2) MCV

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3
Q

Give 5 potential causes of decreased RBC production (relative or absolute reticulocytopenia) anemia

A

1) Hemoglobin synthesis lesion
2) DNA synthesis lesion
3) Hematopoietic stem cell lesion
4) Bone marrow infiltration
5) Immune­-mediated inhibition

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4
Q

Give 4 potential causes of increased RBC destruction or accelerated RBC loss (reticulocytosis) anemia

A

1) Acute blood loss
2) Hemolysis (intrinsic or extrinsic)
3) Infection
4) Hypersplenism

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5
Q

What are 4 things you should have on your differential for microcytic (MCV <80) anemia?

A

TICS:
Thalassemia
Iron deficiency
[anemia of] Chronic disease / inflammation
Sideroblastic anemia (usually due to Lead toxicity)

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6
Q

What are 2 potential causes of Normocytic: MCV 80-100 anemia?

A

1) Anemia of Chronic disease / inflammation
2) Hemolytic anemia without marked reticulocytosis
3) Acute blood loss

(also: Kidney disease, non­thyroid endocrine gland failure, + Copper deficiency)

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7
Q

What are 2 of the most common causes of Macrocytic: (MCV >100) anemia?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency

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8
Q

Impaired DNA synthesis can cause what?

A

Megaloblasts

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9
Q

Megaloblastic anemia is a type of ____________ anemia

A

macrocytic

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10
Q

1) Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) and Folate (Vitamin B9): Are _______-soluble B vitamins required for formation of __________ cells and __________ function.
2) Lack of these can cause what kind of anemia?

A

1) Water; hematopoietic; neurologic
2) Megaloblastic anemia (a subtype of macrocytic anemia)

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11
Q

What metabolites are used in lab testing for Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) and Folate (Vitamin B9)?

A

slide 13

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12
Q

B12:
1) Vitamin B12 belongs to the family of _____________.
2) In humans, serves as a cofactor for two important enzymatic reactions critical for ________ synthesis, especially in ______ progenitor cells
3) Name the 2 specific enzymatic rxns it serves as a cofactor for

A

1) cobalamins
2) DNA; RBC
3) Homocysteine conversion (to methionine) Methylmalonyl CoA (MMA) (to succinyl-CoA)

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13
Q

Vitamin ________ is obtained from diet and is present in all foods of animal origin

A

B12

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14
Q

1) Vitamin B12 ingested becomes bound to what?
2) Where is this thing it binds to produced?

A

1) Intrinsic factor (IF)
2) Produced gastric parietal cells in an acid environment

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15
Q

What are the 4 main causes of vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

1) Dietary deficiency
2) Gastric abnormalities
3) Small Bowel Disease
4) Other (meds + pancreatic insufficiency)

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16
Q

B12
1) What compete with IF for vitamin B12?
2) Vitamin B12–intrinsic factor _______ travels through the intestine –> absorbed in _______________ by cells with specific receptors for the complex.
3) B12 is then transported through plasma (via transcobalamins) and stored where?
4) It usually takes __________ for vitamin B12 deficiency to occur

A

1) “R factors” (other cobalamin-binding proteins)
2) complex; terminal ileum (small intestine)
3) Liver
4) >3 yrs

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17
Q

Dietary deficiency of B12:
1) How common is it?
2) What are 2 groups it’s seen in?

A

1) Extremely rare (B12 is in all foods of animal origin)
2) Vegans and geriatrics

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18
Q

Gastric Abnormalities of B12: Give an example

A

Pernicious anemia (autoantibodies destroy cells that produce intrinsic factor)

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19
Q

Small Bowel Disease induced-B12 deficiency: Give 3 examples

A

1) Abdominal surgery:
a) Blind loop syndrome: causes competition for B12 by bacterial overgrowth in the lumen of the intestine
b) Surgical resection of the ileum: eliminates the site of B12 absorption
2) Severe Crohn disease
3) Fish tapeworm

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20
Q

Other causes of B12 deficiency:
1) What are 4 examples of medications?
2) What type of insufficiency can cause it?

A

1) Metformin, H2 blockers, PPIs, and NO
2) Pancreatic insufficiency

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21
Q

Folate (Vitamin B9):
1) Where is it found?
2) How long do total body stores last?
3) Where does absorption occur?

A

1) Plant-based foods (most fruits and veg)
2) 2-3 months
3) Entire GI tract

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22
Q

Folate
1) What is the most common cause of folate deficiency? Give examples
2) What is a less common cause? What medications can cause this to happen?

A

1) Dietary deficiency: alcohol abuse, anorexia, lack of fresh fruits/ veg
2) Decreased absorption: phenytoin, sulfasalazine, trimethoprim­-sulfamethoxazole

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23
Q

What are 3 other causes of folate deficiency besides deficiency and absorption issues? Give examples of each

A

1) Increased requirement: Chronic hemolytic anemia;
Pregnancy
2) Excess loss: Hemodialysis
3) Inhibition of reduction to active form: Methotrexate

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24
Q

Vitamin B12 and/or Folate Deficiency: S/Sx
1) What 2 things will the CBC show?
2) What is the reticulocyte count?
3) What else may show up?

A

1) Megaloblastic macrocytic anemia, hypersegmented neutrophils
2) Low
3) Hemolysis findings

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25
Q

Vitamin B12 and/or Folate Deficiency S/Sx:
What are some classic findings of more advanced disease (less common due to frequent CBC testing)?

A

1) Worsening macrocytic anemia
2) Yellowed skin (anemia + jaundice)
3) Variable neurologic abnormalities (more prominent and common in B12 deficiency) (e.g., cognitive slowing, neuropathy)

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26
Q

B12 and folate deficiency classic findings:
Variable neurologic abnormalities are more prominent and common in ________ deficiency

A

B12

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27
Q

What 2 things precede development of anemia when a pt has Vitamin B12 and/or Folate Deficiency?

A

1) Macrocytosis
2) Hypersegmentation of neutrophils

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28
Q

1) With B12 deficiency, neuropsychiatric changes can occur even without what?
2) What are the 2 most common neuropsych changes?

A

1) Anemia/macrocytosis
2) Symmetric paresthesias/numbness and gait disturbances

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29
Q

B12 deficiency:
1) Peripheral nerves usually affected first; this often presents as what?
2) What happens when it progresses to involve spinal cord?

A

1) Symmetric paresthesias/numbness (legs > arms)
2) Balance (e.g., gait)

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30
Q

Which is more likely to be seen in the following groups, B12 or folate deficiency?
1) Vegans/ vegetarians
2) Alcohol use

A

1) B12
2) Folate

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31
Q

B12 vs folate deficiency
1) Which has the classic finding of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord?
2) Which develops more rapidly?

A

1) B12 deficiency
2) Folate deficiency

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32
Q

Vitamin B12 and/or Folate Deficiency:

1) In an individual with characteristic CBC findings (e.g., megaloblastic macrocytic anemia) + low reticulocyte count, what is the next step in testing?
2) What should always be measured? Why?

A

1) Serum Vitamin B12 and folate* levels
2) B12 level, even if suspecting folate deficiency
-Large doses of folic acid supplementation may produce hematologic responses in B12 deficiency while still allowing neurologic damage to progress

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33
Q

Interpretation of lab values of B12 or folate:
1) When is deficiency unlikely?
2) When should you consider adding MMA testing?
3) What confirms Dx?

A

1) Normal values
2) Borderline low
3) Low

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34
Q

Vitamin B12 and/or Folate Deficiency Dx:
What 2 tests for metabolites should you order?

A

Methylmalonic acid (MMA) and homocysteine

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35
Q

Vitamin B12 and/or Folate Deficiency Dx:
1) MMA: Elevated in vitamin _______deficiency but not in ________ deficiency.
2) What test being normal makes B12 def. unlikely?
3) When is homocysteine elevated?

A

1) B12; folate; B12
2) MMA
3) Both B12 or folate deficiency

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36
Q

1) Give an example of an autoimmune cause of B12 deficiency
2) When should this be tested for? How?

A

1) Pernicious anemia (PA)
2) If no other obvious cause; anti-IF antibody testing (high specificity, low sens.)

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37
Q

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) Supplementation:
1) What is the route?
2) What is the dosing?

A

1) Parenteral or oral routes may be used, but initial treatment is usually parenteral
2) -Cobalamin injections = 1mg/ day and tapering
-PO/SL = 1-2mg/ day

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38
Q

Which patients CAN’T d/c B12 supplementation?

A

PA and chronic causes

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39
Q

Folic Acid Supplementation:
1) Route?
2) Dosing?
3) Duration? Explain

A

1) Parenteral or oral routes may be used, but initial treatment is usually parenteral
2) Cobalamin injections = 1mg
Oral or sublingual replacement =1-2 mg/d
3) Can discontinue supplementation after cause is corrected (if reversible, like diet)
-PA and chronic causes = treat indefinitely

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40
Q

Expected Treatment Course for both B12 and folate deficiency correction:
1) How long?
2) What may occur in first several days of correction? Why?

A

1) Rapid improvement in sense of well-being, reticulocytosis within 5-7 days, improvement of anemia within 2 weeks, and normalization of hematologic labs in 2 months
2) Hypokalemia; due to K+ uptake with RBC production

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41
Q

1) B12 deficiency correction: When may CNS manifestations be reversible?
2) What is generally not req. for B12 or folate deficiency?

A

1) If present for <6 months
2) Specialist referral

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42
Q

Folate supplementation aids in ___________ neural tube defects (NTDs) and “congenital anomalies of the kidney and urinary tract” (CAKUT)

A

preventing

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43
Q

Females without other neural-tube defect (NTD) risks (i.e., average risk) should take a daily prenatal multivitamin containing _______________ starting at least ____ month(s) prior to conception and continuing through pregnancy

A

folate 0.4 mg; 1 month

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44
Q

True or false: A sexually active woman should be taking folate

A

True

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45
Q

Aplastic anemia:
1) Bone marrow failure can cause what?
2) What are 3 causes of this?
3) Is this serious?

A

1) Pancytopenia
2) Autoimmune suppression, direct injury, or viruses
3) Can be life threatening; if untreated, very high mortality

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46
Q

List and describe the 3 S/Sx of aplastic anemia

A

1) Anemia: Pallor, weakness/fatigue
2) Neutropenia: Vulnerability to bacterial/fungal infections, recurrent infections
3) Thrombocytopenia: Mucosal and skin bleeding (e.g., petechiae, purpura), hemorrhage/menorrhagia

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47
Q

1) Infections are a sign of what?
2) What is bleeding a sign of?

A

1) Neutropenia
2) Thrombocytopenia

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48
Q

Aplastic Anemia: Diagnosis
1) List 2 things you could see on CBC
2) What is the gold standard test?

A

1) Pancytopenia and low retic count
2) Bone marrow aspiration & biopsy: appears hypocellular

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49
Q

The group of disorders in which RBC survival is reduced (episodically or continuously) is called what?

A

Hemolytic Anemias

50
Q

1) Reticulocytosis is often seen in what type of anemias?
2) In this type, ________ may not be initially apparent unless bone marrow compensation is overcome/impaired

A

1) Hemolytic Anemias
2) Anemia

51
Q

Hemolytic anemias: Hypoxia due to Anemia stimulates what?

A

Kidneys to secrete erythropoietin (EPO

52
Q

List 4 lab findings in hemolytic anemias

A

1) Compensatory reticulocytosis
2) Elevated indirect bilirubin and LDH
3) Low haptoglobin
4) Free hemoglobin (hemoglobinuria)

53
Q

Hemolytic anemias:
1) What may point to a sepcific cause?
2) What is the gold standard for IDing immune causes (ex: warm/ cold autoantibodies)

A

1) Peripheral smear
2) Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test (DAT)

54
Q

Anemia
Jaundice
Dark urine (hemoglobinuria)
Cholelithiasis (chronic hemolysis)
Extramedullary hematopoiesis
Lymphadenopathy (LAD)
Hepatosplenomegaly

These are all potential S/Sx of what?

A

Hemolytic Anemia

55
Q

Hemolytic anemia is generally classified according to whether the defect is _________ to the RBC or due to some _____________ factor

A

intrinsic; extrinsic

56
Q

List 4 intrinsic (mostly hereditary) causes of hemolytic anemia

A

1) Hemoglobinopathies
2) Membrane defects
3) Glycolytic defects
4) Oxidation vulnerability

57
Q

List 5 extrinsic causes of hemolytic anemia

A

1) Immune
2) Microangiopathic
3) Infection
4) Hypersplenism
5) Burns

58
Q

Hemolytic anemia:
1) This type of anemia can be inherited, acquired, or both?
2) What are the 2 types of hemolysis and where do they occur?

A

1) Both inherited or acquired
2) intravascular (inside the blood vessels) and/or extravascular (within spleen, liver, bone marrow)

59
Q

Define Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) and its 2 causes

A

Acquired hemolytic anemias caused by autoantibodies that bind to an RBC membrane antigen:
1) “warm” agglutinins = IgG autoanti.
2) “cold” agglutinins = IgM autoanti.

60
Q

“Hemolytic anemia with reticulocytosis; may have spherocytes on peripheral smear”

This describes what type of anemia?

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)

61
Q

1) What is used for Dx of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)?
2) What is also positive in “cold” agglutinin disease?

A

1) Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test (DAT) is used for diagnosis (usually positive)
2) Serum cold agglutinin titer

62
Q

What are the 2 types of Drug-Induced Hemolytic Anemia?

A

1) Drug-Induced Hemolytic Anemia: oxidation, methemoglobinemia, and thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA)^3 due to drugs.
2) Drug-induced auto-immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA) [a type of AIHA]: formation of autoantibody

63
Q

1) What type of anemia can be caused by penicillins and involves the formation of an autoantibody?
2) What is the main Tx of this type of anemia?

A

1) Drug-induced auto-immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA) [a type of AIHA]
2) Stop the offending drug

64
Q

Hemolytic Anemia: Intrinsic RBC Defects
List 4 types of membrane defects

A

1) Hereditary spherocytosis
2) Hereditary elliptocytosis
3) Hereditary stomatocytosis
4) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

65
Q

Name a type of intrinsic RBC defect that causes hemolytic anemia that is usually hereditary

A

Membrane defects

(except for Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH))

66
Q

1) Episodic hemoglobinuria with reddish-brown urine often noticed in first morning urine
2) Thrombosis is common

Those 2 things describe what cause of hemolytic anemia?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
(type of membrane defect)

67
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is an acquired clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder where RBC membrane is abnormally sensitive to lysis by ____________

A

complement

68
Q

What is the one type of oxidation vulnerability cause of hemolytic anemia that we talked abt in class?

A

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency (Class I-IV)

69
Q

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency (Class I-IV):
What is it and what does it lead to?

A

Hereditary (enzyme) defect that leads to oxidized glutathione, forming Heinz bodies that cause membrane damage, causing premature removal by spleen (extravascular hemolysis)

70
Q

What cause of anemia is usually episodic hemolytic anemia (chronic if severe) because of decreased ability of RBCs to manage oxidative stress?

A

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency (Class I-IV)
(causes oxidation vulnerability, causing hemolytic anemia)

71
Q

G6PD Deficiency:
1) How is it inherited?
2) Who is it most common in?

A

1) X-linked recessive
2) Males; 10-15% of American black men

72
Q

Hemolysis triggers (oxidant injury) with G6DP deficiency include what 3 things?

A

1) Medications (many)
2) Acute illnesses, especially infections
3) Foods (esp. fava beans)

73
Q

What food do those with G6PD need to avoid?

(starred)

A

Fava beans

74
Q

Describe the S/Sx of G6DP deficiency

A

1) Hemolysis is episodic due to oxidative stress (e.g., infection/medications/food)
2) Usually asymptomatic (no anemia or hemolysis) in between hemolytic episodes

75
Q

G6DP deficiency labs/ Dx:
1) Between hemolytic episodes, blood is normal but______________ activity is low.
2) During hemolytic episodes, what will blood testing show?
3) What will a peripheral blood smear show?

A

1) G6PD enzyme
2) Hemolytic anemia; reticulocytosis
3) Heinz bodies + “Bite” cells or “blister” cells

76
Q

G6DP deficiency labs/ Dx:
Measurement of G6PD enzyme activity may be falsely negative when?

A

In acute hemolysis

77
Q

What is the key part of Tx for G6PD Deficiency?

A

Avoid offending agents

78
Q

Give 3 reasons to test/ screen for G6PD Deficiency

A

1) Unexplained neonatal jaundice (hyperbilirubinemia) or non-autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
2) Oxidant medication + high risk pt.
3) First-degree relatives.

79
Q

List the main groups of intrinsic RBC defects

A

1) Membrane Defects
2) Oxidation Vulnerability (G6PD def.)
3) Hemoglobinopathies

80
Q

Fluoroquinolones
Nitrofurantoin
Phenazopyridine
Antimalarials (primaquine, tafenoquine)
Sulfonylureas (glipizide, glyburide)

All of these can trigger hemolysis in who?

A

G6DP deficiency

81
Q

List 3 types of Hemoglobinopathies (hemolytic anemia)

A

1) Sickle cell
2) Thalassemias
3) Unstable Hgb variants*

82
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia:
1) How is it inherited?
2) What is it?
3) What gene is affected?
4) When can it first be diagnosed? What should be made available?
5) When do Sx appear?

A

1) Autosomal recessive
2) An abnormal hemoglobin leads to chronic hemolytic anemia
3) Beta gene
4) Prenatal diagnosis; genetic counseling
5) 5-6 months old

83
Q

List + describe 3 types of Sickle Cell anemia

A

1) Sickle hemoglobin (Hb S): abnormal beta (beta S); hemoglobin SS
2) Sickle Cell Disease (SCD): phenotype characterized by vaso-occlusive pain; autosomal recessive due to homozygosity for HbS
3) Sickle cell trait: heterozygosity

84
Q

With sickle cell, ______________is unstable and polymerizes* in the setting of various stressors (including __________ and ___________) leading to the formation of sickled RBCs.

A

Hemoglobin S; hypoxemia and acidosis

85
Q

1) Sickled cells result in _________ and the release of ATP, which is converted to adenosine.
2) What type of inflammation can result?
3) The free hemoglobin from hemolysis scavenges ______________________, causing ____________ dysfunction, vascular injury, and pulmonary hypertension (also contributes to risk of priapism)

A

1) hemolysis
2) Pulmonary
3) nitric oxide (NO); endothelial

86
Q

The major acute manifestations of sickle cell disease (SCD) are related to what 3 things?

A

1) Infection (due to functional asplenia)
2) Anemia
3) Vaso-occlusion

87
Q

The major chronic manifestations of sickle cell are related to what 2 things?

A

Chronic organ ischemia and infarction

88
Q

Sickle Cell’s Increased risk of infection (impaired immunity):
1) What is one of the mechanisms involve?
2) What does repeated sickling cause?

A

1) Functional hyposplenism
2) Splenic infarction, causing incr. risk. of infection with encapsulated organisms and viruses

89
Q

Sickle Cell anemia: List 3 main S/ Sx

A

1) Increased risk of infection (impaired immunity)
2) Anemia
3) Acute painful episodes due to acute vaso-occlusion

90
Q

Sickle cell anemia
1) What type of anemia can occur and what are 3 reasons for it?
2) Aplastic crisis usually associated with what?

A

1) Acute severe anemia (life-threatening “crisis”) due to splenic sequestration of sickled cells, aplastic crisis, or hyperhemolysis (hemolytic crisis)
2) Viral or other infection or folic acid deficiency (reduced erythropoiesis)

91
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia:
1) Acute painful episodes due to acute vaso-occlusion can occur when?
2) What are 2 other things vaso-occlusion can cause?
3) Name a life threatening complication of vaso-occlusion

A

1) Infection, dehydration, hypoxia (high altitudes), excessive exercise, extreme temperatures (or spontaneously)
2) Strokes, priapism
3) Acute chest syndrome

92
Q

True or false: Vaso-occlusive episodes in sickle cell are associated with increased hemolysis

A

False; they are NOT

93
Q

List other complications of sickle cell anemia

slide 76

A

1) Bone ischemic necrosis
2) Renal infarction: gross hematuria
3)

94
Q

Sickle cell: Bone ischemic necrosis may occur, making bone susceptible to osteomyelitis from ___________ and (less commonly) ____________

A

salmonellae; staphylococci

95
Q

Hemolysis in sickle cell leads to the release of what type of bilirubin?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin (and Fe)

96
Q

Sickle cell anemia:
1) Increased erythropoiesis (new reticulocytes) can lead to ___________________ hematopoiesis
2) Splenic sequestration also causes hemolysis/anemia, leading to eventual what? How does this show up on a peripheral smear?

A

1) extramedullary (new bone formation, such as in head)
2) Hyposplenism; Howell-Jolly bodies

97
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies on a peripheral smear are a sign of what?

A

Hyposplenism due to sickle cell anemia splenic sequestration

98
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia Lab Findings:
1) What type of anemia is present?
2) What will a peripheral blood smear show?
3) What are 2 signs of hyposplenism?

A

1) Chronic hemolytic anemia
2) Sickled cells (5-10%)
3) Howell-Jolly bodies + target cells

99
Q

1) Diagnosis of sickle cell anemia is confirmed by what?
2) In this test, Hemoglobin S will usually comprise __________ (majority) of hemoglobin.
3) In Hemoglobin SS disease (homozygous), is Hgb A present?

A

1) hemoglobin electrophoresis
2) 86–98%
3) Not present (no normal beta chains)

100
Q

Sickle cell anemia:
1) What may be utilized in select patients (esp. children and adolescents) and can be curative?
2) List 2 types of this

A

1) Hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) transplant
2) Allogeneic HSC transplant
-Autologous HSC transplant (stem cells harvested from patient) with gene therapy

101
Q

Sickle cell anemia Tx:
1) What should you do during pain/crisis?
2) What is a mainstay of sickle cell Tx?
3) Options for managing continued pain episodes despite hydroxyurea (or unable to tolerate hydroxyurea) include what 2 things?
4) What may reduce vaso-occlusive episodes and reduce transfusion needs in patients with sickle cell anemia?

A

1) Supportive care
2) Hydroxyurea
3) L-glutamine, crizanlizumab
4) Omega-3 fatty acid supplementation

102
Q

Sickle cell anemia Tx:
1) When are transfusions appropriate?
2) When are exchange transfusions appropriate?
3) What has been shown to be effective in reducing the risk of recurrent stroke in children?

A

1) Aplastic or hemolytic crises
2) Severe/intractable acute vaso-occlusive crises, acute chest syndrome, priapism, stroke
3) Long-term transfusion therapy

103
Q

Sickle cell anemia Tx:
1) Children with SS who are aged 2–16 years have annual __________________
2) Iron chelation is needed for those on chronic transfusion therapy to prevent what?

A

1) transcranial ultrasounds
2) Iron overload/hemochromatosis

104
Q

Sickle cell anemia Tx:
1) What should you do to prevent infections?
2) What abt in kids?

A

1) Pneumococcal vaccination
2) Penicillin rx prophylaxis

105
Q

Patients with sickle cell anemia should have their care coordinated with a ______________ and should be referred to a Comprehensive Sickle Cell Center, if one is available.

A

hematologist

106
Q

Sickle cell anemia becomes a chronic ____________ disease, leading to ________ failure that may result in death

A

multisystem; organ

107
Q

Sickle Cell Trait:
1) Is it hematologically abnormal or normal? Explain
2) Hemoglobin electrophoresis will show what?
3) These pts are at higher risk of _______________ with vigorous exercise
4) They also have a small increased risk of what?

A

1) Hematologically normal (no anemia, etc)
2) ~40% of Hgb is Hgb S
3) Rhabdomyolysis
3) Venous thromboembolism (VTE)

108
Q

Sickle Cell Trait:
1) May develop injury to _______ medulla (acidotic) from chronic sickling
2) No treatment is necessary but ___________ is recommended

A

1) renal
2) genetic counseling

109
Q

1) The Thalassemias are hereditary disorders characterized by reduction in what?
2) What are 2 types and who are they common in?

A

1) The synthesis of globin chains (alpha or beta)
2) Alpha thalassemia = southeast Asia and China
Beta = Mediterranean origin

110
Q

Thalassemia:
1) Reduced globin chain synthesis causes reduced ___________ synthesis and a_____________________ anemia because of defective hemoglobinization of RBCs
2) What are the hallmark lab features?

A

1) hemoglobin; hypochromic microcytic
2) Anemia with low MCH (pale) and low MCV (small) but a normal to elevated RBC count (ie, a large # of small, pale RBCs are being produced)

111
Q

List and define the 3 types of thalassemias (hint: classified by severity)

A

1) Thalassemia trait: Lab features without significant clinical impact
2) Thalassemia intermedia: Occasional RBC transfusion requirement or other moderate clinical impact
3) Thalassemia major: Disorder is life-threatening and transfusion-dependent; most eventually die from iron overload due to RBC transfusions

112
Q

Alpha-Thalassemia:
1) What is it?
2) It may produce___________ in the proportions of hemoglobins A, A2, and F on hemoglobin ____________/
3) Diagnosis may be confirmed by what?

A

1) Gene deletions causing reduced alpha-globin chain synthesis
2) no change; electrophoresis
3) DNA analysis [identifying alpha-globin gene deletions]

113
Q

List the # of Alpha-Globin Genes transcribed for each level of alpha thalassemia severity (5 levels including normal)

A

1) Normal: 4
2) Silent carrier (Minima): 3
3) Thalassemia Trait (minor): 2
4) Hemoglobin H disease (Intermedia): 1
5) Thalassemia Major (Hydrops fetalis): 0

114
Q

Alpha Thalassemia Trait (Minor): What are the 2 types?

A

1) Heterozygous: mostly asian descent
2) Homozygous: mostly african descent
(both have mild microcytic anemia on labs (see next slide) without significant clinical impact; no sx; normal life expectancy)

115
Q

Alpha Thalassemia Trait (Minor): What does CBC show?

A

1) Anemia: Mild or none
2) MCV: strikingly low
3) RBC count: normal or increased
4) Acanthocytes/spur cells on periph. smear
5) Reticulocyte count and iron parameters: normal
6) Hemoglobin electrophoresis: normal

(Usually Dx of exclusion; genetic testing (DNA analysis) to demonstrate alpha-globin gene deletion is available)

116
Q

Excess beta chains may form a beta-4 tetramer called hemoglobin H, leading to hemolysis, in what kind of alpha thalassemia?

A

Alpha Thalassemia Intermedia (Hgb H Disease)

117
Q

Alpha Thalassemia Intermedia is also called what?

A

Hgb H disease

118
Q

Hgb H Disease (Intermedia):
1) Do these pts have anemia? Describe
2) What are some lab abnormalities?
3) What will confirm Dx?

A

1) Yes, more marked anemia
2) MCV: remarkably low
-Peripheral blood smear: markedly abnormal; stained shows hemoglobin H.
-Reticulocyte count: elevated
-RBC count: normal or elevated
-Hemoglobin electrophoresis: also shows Hemoglobin H
3) Genetic testing (DNA analysis) (alpha-globin gene deletion)

119
Q

Alpha Thalassemia Intermedia (Hgb H Disease)
1) Physical examination might reveal what 2 things?
2) Affected individuals usually do not need regular ______________
3) These may be needed during ____________ exacerbation caused by infection/ other stressors, or during periods of ____________ shutdown caused by certain viruses (“aplastic crisis”)

A

1) Pallor and splenomegaly
2) transfusions
3) hemolytic; erythropoietic

120
Q

Most cases of B12 deficiency are due to _______________ rather than dietary lack

A

decreased absorption

121
Q

Abdominal surgery induced B12 deficiency:
1) What is blind loop syndrome?
2) What type of surgical resection eliminates the site of B12 absorption?

A

1) Causes competition for B12 by bacterial overgrowth in the lumen of the intestine
2) Resection of ileum

122
Q

For conditions with ongoing hemolysis, consider supplementing ________mg/g oral folic acid daily