1.18.19 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA to decide not to accept a new audit engagement?

A

Management’s disregard of its responsibility to maintain an adequate internal control environment.

The control environment is the foundation for all other control components. It provides discipline and structure, sets the tone of the organization, and influences the control consciousness of employees. A precondition of an audit is management’s acknowledgment of its responsibilities for internal control relevant to financial reporting. Internal control should enable the preparation and fair presentation of financial statements that are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error. However, management’s disregard of this responsibility may raise doubts about the auditability of the financial statements and the integrity of management.

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2
Q

A company’s labor distribution report requires extensive corrections each month because of labor hours charged to inactive jobs. Which of the following data processing input controls appears to be missing?

A

Validity test.

Validity tests are used to ensure that transactions contain valid transaction codes. Before hours are assigned to a job, a programmed control should determine that the job code is active.

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3
Q

Fraudulent use of corporate credit cards will be minimized by which of the following controls?

A

Subjecting credit card charges to the same expense controls as those used on regular company expense forms.

Credit card charges should be controlled in much the same manner as expense accounts and other expense reports, including use of limitations on specific kinds of expenditures. These charges should be compared with supporting documentation, such as receiving reports and invoices.

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4
Q

During the course of an audit, an auditor required additional research and consultation with others. This additional research and consultation is considered to be

A

An appropriate part of the professional conduct of the engagement.

The Code of Professional Conduct states that in many cases additional research and consultation with others may be necessary during an engagement. The auditor should not undertake the engagement unless (s)he has or expects to gain the knowledge to complete the audit with professional competence.

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5
Q

Which of the following statements best describes why an auditor would use only substantive procedures to evaluate specific relevant assertions and risks?

A

Testing the operating effectiveness of the relevant controls would not be efficient.

The assessment of risks is a basis for choosing the audit approach. The risk assessment procedures may not identify effective controls for the relevant assertion, or testing controls may be inefficient. In these cases, the auditor may wish to use a substantive audit approach.

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6
Q

Which of the following statements reflects an auditor’s responsibility for detecting fraud and errors?

A

An auditor should design the audit to provide reasonable assurance of detecting fraud and errors that are material to the financial statements.

The auditor has a responsibility to plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatements, whether caused by fraud or error. Thus, the auditor should (1) identify and assess the risks of material misstatement due to fraud at the financial statement and assertion levels, (2) obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding those risks through implementing responses, and (3) respond to identified fraud or suspected fraud. Moreover, the consideration of fraud should be logically integrated into the overall audit process in a manner consistent with other pronouncements, e.g., those on (1) planning and supervision, (2) audit risk and materiality, and (3) internal control.

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7
Q

For which of the following computer-assisted auditing techniques does the auditor use a controlled program?

A

Parallel simulation.

Parallel simulation is a test of the controls in a client’s application program. An auditor-developed program is used to process actual client data, and the output and exceptions report is compared with those of the client’s application program. If the client’s programmed controls are operating effectively, the two sets of results should be reconcilable.

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8
Q
Fact Pattern:  A sales transaction record designed to contain the information presented below.
1-10 Customer account number
11-30 Customer name
31-38 Amount of sale
39-44 Sales date
45-46 Store code number
47-49 Sales clerk number
50-59 Invoice number

If the last letter of a customer’s name is erroneously entered in column 31, which of the following is most likely to detect the error during an input edit run?

A

A field check.

The erroneous entry of a customer’s name into the field that should contain the amount of the sale is detected by a field check. This control identifies an alphabetic character in a field that should contain only numeric characters.

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9
Q

CPAs are required to complete engagements competently. Competence includes all of the following except

A

An unbiased mental attitude.

The Code requires the CPA to maintain an unbiased mental attitude. A member in public practice must be independent in the performance of professional services as required by standards issued by bodies designated by Council.

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10
Q

Which of the following factors would most likely be considered an inherent limitation to an entity’s internal control?

A

Human judgment in the decision making process.

Human judgment is faulty, and controls may fail because of simple error or mistake. For example, design changes for an automated order entry system may be faulty because the designers did not understand the system or because programmers did not correctly code the design changes. Errors also may arise when automated reports are misinterpreted by users. Furthermore, manual or automated controls can be circumvented by collusion, and management may inappropriately override internal control.

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11
Q

Quality control policies and procedures should be relevant, adequate, effective, and complied with. This statement is most closely associated with the quality control element of

A

Monitoring.

Monitoring provides reasonable assurance that policies and procedures related to the system of quality control are relevant, adequate, operating effectively, and complied with. The objectives of monitoring these policies and procedures are to evaluate (1) compliance with professional standards and legal requirements, (2) the design and effectiveness of the quality control system, and (3) whether appropriate reports are issued (QC 10).

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12
Q

Which of the following most likely would not be considered an inherent limitation of the potential effectiveness of an entity’s internal control?

A

Incompatible duties.

Internal control has inherent limitations. The performance of incompatible duties, however, is a failure to assign different people the functions of authorization, recording, and asset custody, not an inevitable limitation of internal control. Segregation of duties is a category of control activities.

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13
Q

What information would the auditor expect to find in the data dictionary that would assist in a payroll application audit?

A

Programs that access the data.

The data dictionary is a file (possibly manual but usually computerized) in which the records relate to specified data items. It contains definitions of data records and files and the list of programs used to process them. Only certain persons or entities are permitted to retrieve data or to modify data items. Accordingly, these access limitations are also found in the data dictionary.

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14
Q

Which of the following actions should the auditor take in response to discovering a deviation from the prescribed control?

A

Make inquiries to understand the potential consequence of the deviation.

Once a deviation is discovered by an auditor, (s)he should investigate it further by making inquiries to understand the potential consequences of the deviation.

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15
Q

Which of the following information that comes to an auditor’s attention most likely would raise a question about noncompliance with laws and regulations?

A

The discovery of unexplained payments made to government employees.

According to AU-C 250, the discovery of unexplained payments made to government officials or employees is specific information that may raise a question about possible noncompliance with laws and regulations.

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16
Q

Sound internal control principles dictate that, immediately upon receiving checks from customers by mail, a responsible employee should

A

Prepare a duplicate listing of checks received.

The mail room receives all customer receipts, opens the mail, separates the checks from the remittance advices, and prepares a daily listing of checks received. This daily remittance list ordinarily is prepared in duplicate.

17
Q

A member of the AICPA must not commit an act discreditable to the profession. Which of the following most likely is not considered such an act?

A

Withholding as a result of nonpayment of fees for a completed engagement adjusting and closing journal entries not reflected in the client’s books.

The member’s duty to return client-provided records is absolute. However, the duty to return other information not reflected in the client’s books and records is not absolute. For example, the duty to return supporting records for an issued work product is conditional upon payment of fees with respect to information such as adjusting, closing, combining, or consolidating entries. Supporting records contain information not in the client’s books and records without which its financial information is incomplete. They are produced by the member and are not otherwise available to the client.

18
Q

Which of the following is least likely to indicate the need to increase the assurance provided by substantive testing?

A

A decrease in the assessed inherent risk.

Substantive procedures are performed to detect material misstatements in management’s assertions. The nature, timing, and extent of substantive procedures are determined by the acceptable level of audit risk. For a given audit risk, the acceptable detection risk is inversely related to the assessed risks of material misstatement. The assessed RMMs are combined assessments of control risk and inherent risk. Thus, a decrease in the assessed inherent risk (1) decreases the assessed RMMs for a given assessed control risk, (2) increases the acceptable detection risk, and (3) does not indicate a need for more persuasive audit evidence (AU-C-200).

19
Q

After obtaining an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control, the auditor assesses

A

Control risk and inherent risk to determine the acceptable level of detection risk.

The acceptable level of detection risk for a relevant assertion is a function of the assessed RMMs (the combined assessment of inherent risk and control risk) and the given level of audit risk. Thus, as the RMMs increase, the acceptable level of detection risk decreases.