11 Written Flashcards
1) Hemipelvectomy:
a) Is not feasible if the pubis, sacrum or lumbar vertebrae are invaded beyond the midline.
b) Patients return to ambulatory function at about the same time as patients undergoing pelvic limb amputation.
c) Frequently results in pelvic canal defects which should be reconstructed prior to subcutaneous tissue closure.
d) Is classified into one of four major categories, all of which involve acetabular resection with adjacent bone and soft tissues.
a) Is not feasible if the pubis, sacrum or lumbar vertebrae are invaded beyond the midline.
2) Which of the following statements is true regarding transanal pull-through rectal amputation?
a) Permanent fecal incontinence is a common complication in dogs which have extensive resections using this technique.
b) The combined abdominal-transanal approach should be reserved for tumors extending from the mid-cranial region of the rectum to the descending colon.
c) A minimum of 2.5 cm of distal rectum is recommended to be preserved after rectal resection to maintain fecal continence.
d) Postoperative metastasis was common in dogs with rectal adenocarcinoma and most frequently occurred at distant sites rather than locally at surgical sites.
b) The combined abdominal-transanal approach should be reserved for tumors extending from the mid-cranial region of the rectum to the descending colon.
3) Contributors to the maintenance of urinary continence include all except:
a) The somatic pudendal nerve which innervates the striated muscle in the distal urethra.
b) The sympathetic hypogastric nerve which innervates the smooth muscle within the urethra.
c) The functional length of the urethra and the elastic tension within the urethral wall.
d) The vesicular portion of the pelvic plexus which innervates the bladder neck and urethra.
d) The vesicular portion of the pelvic plexus which innervates the bladder neck and urethra.
Contributors to the maintenance of urinary continence include:
a) The somatic pudendal nerve which innervates the striated muscle in the distal urethra.
b) The sympathetic hypogastric nerve which innervates the smooth muscle within the urethra.
c) The functional length of the urethra and the elastic tension within the urethral wall.
4) Jimenez Pelaez et al reported the use of laparoscopic adrenalectomy for treatment of unilateral adrenocortical carcinoma in the dog. In their study, which one of the following was found?
a) The retroperitoneal laparoscopic approach was preferred because it allowed more direct access to the adrenal glands and provided a large working space.
b) Dissection without penetration of the adrenal capsule and rupture of the neoplastic gland was accomplished using laparoscopic instrumentation.
c) Severe respiratory distress, presumed to be due to the development of pulmonary thromboembolism, was the most common serious postoperative complication.
d) Intraoperative tumor spillage led to the recurrence of clinical signs of hyperadrenocortism in 29% of the cases in the study.
c) Severe respiratory distress, presumed to be due to the development of pulmonary thromboembolism, was the most common serious postoperative complication.
5) Spindle cell sarcomas of the distal extremities of dogs:
a) Are rarely high grade when the tumor is located distal to the knee or elbow, and rarely metastasize to distant locations when the primary tumor is in one of these locations.
b) That are low grade, recur locally more frequently when dirty margins are present histologically than when clean but close margins are present on the excised tissues.
c) That are low grade, result in a mean disease free interval and mean survival time of approximately 18 months and 19 months respectively following marginal excision.
d) Have a higher local recurrence rate if they are adherent to the underlying tissues than if they are freely movable, and if they are > 1.5 cm in diameter at the time of diagnosis.
a) Are rarely high grade when the tumor is located distal to the knee or elbow, and rarely metastasize to distant locations when the primary tumor is in one of these locations.
6) Which one of the following is not a prognostic indicator for survival, disease free interval or recurrence free interval in feline osteosarcoma?
a) Histologic grade
b) Mitotic index
c) Tumor invasion into blood vessels
d) Complete surgical resection
c) Tumor invasion into blood vessels
prognostic indicator for survival, disease free interval or recurrence free interval in feline osteosarcoma:
a) Histologic grade
b) Mitotic index
d) Complete surgical resection
7) Which one of the following statements regarding hiatal hernias and their treatment is false?
a) Type I hiatal hernias are sliding hiatal hernias which are seen most commonly in Chinese shar peis and English bulldogs, and domestic shorthair cats are also an overrepresented breed.
b) Creating an abdominal esophagus by completely dissecting the phrenoesophageal ligament during Nissen fundoplication restores the normal anatomy of the intraabdominal portion of the esophagus.
c) Barrier pressure at the gastroesophageal junction is increased significantly in the immediate postoperative period when a left sided gastropexy is performed alone, without other surgical procedures.
d) Gastroesophageal reflux is present in most patients with hiatal hernias and likely contributes to the clinical signs that are seen, but it is not a primary cause of hiatal hernia development.
b) Creating an abdominal esophagus by completely dissecting the phrenoesophageal ligament during Nissen fundoplication restores the normal anatomy of the intraabdominal portion of the esophagus.
Hiatal hernias and their treatment:
a) Type I hiatal hernias are sliding hiatal hernias which are seen most commonly in Chinese shar peis and English bulldogs, and domestic shorthair cats are also an overrepresented breed.
c) Barrier pressure at the gastroesophageal junction is increased significantly in the immediate postoperative period when a left sided gastropexy is performed alone, without other surgical procedures.
d) Gastroesophageal reflux is present in most patients with hiatal hernias and likely contributes to the clinical signs that are seen, but it is not a primary cause of hiatal hernia development.
8) Which one of the following statements is true regarding chest wall reconstruction following rib tumor resection in dogs?
a) Autogenous techniques can be used alone for reconstruction of anterolateral chest wall defects < 7 cm in diameter or < 4 ribs and for posterior chest wall defects < 12 cm in diameter.
b) Paradoxical chest wall motion negatively affects the ventilatory function in dogs with large chest wall defects necessitating the use of rigid chest wall reconstruction.
c) Seroma formation is a common early postoperative complication with the highest incidence occurring after prosthetic reconstruction techniques followed by composite reconstruction techniques.
d) Marlex mesh is an ideal material for chest wall reconstruction because of its inherent resistance to infection and favorable pore size that permits rapid ingrowth of vascularized tissue.
d) Marlex mesh is an ideal material for chest wall reconstruction because of its inherent resistance to infection and favorable pore size that permits rapid ingrowth of vascularized tissue.
9) Which one of the following statements regarding a clinical prospective study of the treatment of stenotic nares in immature Shih Tzus by Huck JL, Stanley BJ, and Hauptman JG is correct?
a) The resection method originally described by Trader was shown to be very effective at opening the nares, resulted in temporary brisk hemorrhage that was attenuated after several minutes of direct pressure and provided a cosmetic outcome.
b) The resection method originally described by Trader was shown to be very effective at opening the nares but did not provide as cosmetic an outcome when compared to the wedge resection technique.
c) The resection method originally described by Trader was shown to be very effective at opening the nares but resulted in prolonged brisk hemorrhage that required placement of topic hemostatic agents to control hemorrhage.
d) The resection method originally described by Trader was shown to be very effective at opening the nares but the utilization of a CO2 laser was recommended in this procedure to prevent significant postoperative hemorrhage.
a) The resection method originally described by Trader was shown to be very effective at opening the nares, resulted in temporary brisk hemorrhage that was attenuated after several minutes of direct pressure and provided a cosmetic outcome.
10) Which one of the following statements regarding an article by Wright ZM, Rodgers KS, Mansell J entitled: Survival data for canine oral extramedullary plasmacytomas: A retrospective analysis (1996-2006) is correct?
a) There is a direct correlation between canine oral extramedullary plasmacytomas and canine multiple myeloma.
b) Complete surgical excision of oral extramedullary plasmacytomas may be curative.
c) Oral extramedullary plasmacytomas have a much more aggressive behavior than extramedullary plasmacytomas arising from other tissues.
d) Oral extramedullary plasmacytomas display local infiltration and are likely to metastasize.
b) Complete surgical excision of oral extramedullary plasmacytomas may be curative.
11) Which one of the following statements regarding a retrospective case-control study by Appel SL, et al that evaluated risk factors associated with suture-nidus cystoliths in dogs and cats is correct?
a) Suture remnants in the bladder have a relatively minor role in recurrent cystolithiasis in dogs and cats however identification of risk factors is important for avoiding recurrence of iatrogenic cystoliths.
b) Dogs with non-suture-associated cystoliths were at significantly greater odds of forming compound cystoliths than dogs with suture-associated cystoliths.
c) Results of this study indicated that suture-associated cystolithiasis is an important issue in dogs and cats and suture remnants in the bladder play an important role in recurrence.
d) After adjustment for other factors, the only breed to retain a significant association with suture-associated cystoliths was the Yorkshire terrier.
c) Results of this study indicated that suture-associated cystolithiasis is an important issue in dogs and cats and suture remnants in the bladder play an important role in recurrence.
12) In a study by MacDonald NJ, et al, the efficacy of en bloc ligation of the thoracic duct in 14 canine cadavers was evaluated. En bloc ligation of the caudal mediastinal tissue dorsal to the aorta was successful in preventing opacification with contrast material of all braches of the thoracic duct in what percentages of these cadavers.
a) 100%
b) 93%
c) 79%
d) 50%
b) 93%
13) Which one of the following statements regarding the results of a retrospective study by Zitz JC, Birchard SJ, Couto GC, et al, entitled: Results of excision of thymoma in cats and dogs: 20 cases (1984-2005) is correct?
a) Percentage lymphocyte composition of the mass was the only factor that was significantly correlated with survival time; animals with a high percentage of lymphocytes lived longer.
b) Cats and dogs with invasive masses that survived the surgery had a poor long-term outcome.
c) Cats and dogs with recurrent thymomas or paraneoplastic syndromes had a poor long-term outcome.
d) Invasiveness of the tumor and mitotic index of the mass were both factors that significantly correlated with survival time; animals with invasive tumors with high mitotic indices had significantly shorter survival times.
a) Percentage lymphocyte composition of the mass was the only factor that was significantly correlated with survival time; animals with a high percentage of lymphocytes lived longer.
14) What one of the following statements regarding the results and the clinical relevance of a study by Song EK, Mann FA, Wagner-Mann CC in a prospective experimental study entitled: Comparison of different tube materials and use of Chinese finger trap or four friction suture technique for securing gastrostomy, jejunostomy, and thoracostomy tubes in dogs is correct?
a) Chinese finger trap suture technique failed most commonly by tube slippage whereas four friction suture technique failed mainly by suture breakage.
b) For gastrostomy tubes, failure occurred more commonly by tube slippage whereas tube breakage was more common for jejunostomy and thoracostomy tubes.
c) Chinese finger trap suture technique should be preferred over the four friction suture technique based on force and displacement to failure, but tube type and tissue reaction could influence anchoring strength.
d) Based on study results, latex gastrostomy tubes and silicone jejunostomy tubes, and silicone thoracostomy tubes were more secure than silicone gastrostomy tubes , red rubber jejunostomy tubes, and polyvinylchloride thoracostomy tubes, respectively.
c) Chinese finger trap suture technique should be preferred over the four friction suture technique based on force and displacement to failure, but tube type and tissue reaction could influence anchoring strength.
15) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the results of a retrospective study by Papzoglou LG, et al, entitled: Long-term survival of dogs after cholecystoenterostomy: A retrospective study of 15 cases (1981-2005)?
a) In this study, the long-term complications after cholecystoenterostomy included hepatic abscesses, acquired portosystemic shunts, pancreatitis, and vomiting.
b) In this study, the type of underlying hepatobiliary disease (i.e., benign or malignant had a significant affect on the short-term outcome of the patient.
c) In this study, the type of underlying hepatobiliary disease (i.e., benign or malignant) had a significant affect on the long-term survival of the patient.
d) In this study, the younger dogs had a better prognosis than the older dogs.
a) In this study, the long-term complications after cholecystoenterostomy included hepatic abscesses, acquired portosystemic shunts, pancreatitis, and vomiting.
16) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding a retrospective case series by Swiderski JK, Seim HB, MacPhail CM, Campbell TW, Johnston MS, Monnet E, entitled: Long-term outcome of domestic ferrets treated surgically for hyperadrenocorticism: 130 cases (1995-2004)?
a) Survival time of ferrets with hyperadrenocorticism undergoing surgery was not affected by the histologic characteristic of the tumor, the adrenal glands affected (right, left, or bilateral), or complete versus partial adrenal gland resection.
b) Debulking of adrenal gland masses was found to be an inappropriate surgical technique for allowing a favorable long-term outcome when complete excision was not possible.
c) Combined partial adrenal gland resection with cryosurgery had a significantly positive effect on survival time.
d) Survival time of ferrets with hyperadrenocorticism undergoing surgery was affected by the histologic characteristic of the tumor, the adrenal glands affected (right, left, or bilateral), or complete versus partial adrenal gland resection.
a) Survival time of ferrets with hyperadrenocorticism undergoing surgery was not affected by the histologic characteristic of the tumor, the adrenal glands affected (right, left, or bilateral), or complete versus partial adrenal gland resection.
17) Von Willebrand’s disease in dogs can be classified into three types.
a) Type I is reported in German wirehair and short haired pointers with abnormal von Willebrand factor.
b) Type I is repotted in Scottish terriers and Doberman pinschers with an absence of von Willebrand factor.
c) Type I is characterized by low concentration of functional von Willebrand factor.
d) Type II is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait with variable penetrance
e) 50% or less of Doberman pinschers have abnormal vWF:Ag concentration with < 73% vWF:Ag commonly expressed.
c) Type I is characterized by low concentration of functional von Willebrand factor.
18) The term operative hemodilution refers to
a) excess administration of crystalloid fluids in the presence of significant operative blood loss.
b) withdrawal of one or more units of blood immediately preoperatively while replacing the loss with a crystalloid or colloid solution.
c) the over administration of colloid solution duringa single stage operative procedure.
d) induced hypotension that is recommended in the presence of organ dysfunction.
b) withdrawal of one or more units of blood immediately preoperatively while replacing the loss with a crystalloid or colloid solution.
19) Which collagen type is seen initially in the extracellular matrix during the transition to granulation tissue in wound healing?
a) Type III
b) Type I
c) Type I and Type II composite
d) Type VI
a) Type III
20) Recently, corrosion of the early 3.5 mm Slocum TPLO pate was of concern. Which statement below is accurate regarding the process of corrosion?
a) Titanium and titanium alloys corrode by a process called stress corrosion because it is “cold worked”.
b) Corrosive particles are inert, moving about the body through the process of pinocytosis.
c) The oxide layer of titanium or titanium alloys is restored by repassivation when disrupted by handling.
d) The Jonas pin was made infamous because of its aggressive ability to demonstrate crevice corrosion.
e) Hydroxylation, a process of corrosion is influenced by a local electrical differential and a low pH environment.
c) The oxide layer of titanium or titanium alloys is restored by repassivation when disrupted by handling.
21) Polypropylene is widely used in vascular surgery. Which of the following properties listed below is true regarding this material?
a) Polypropylene is available as a braided multifilament material, but is coated and should not be buried.
b) Polypropylene is hydrolyzed by proteolytic enzymes that release adipic acid and 1,6-hexanedianmine, which may have antibacterial properties.
c) Polypropylene mesh graphs require preclotting when used as vascular conduits.
d) Polypropylene is a polymer resistant to all acids, alkalis and inorganic chemical remaining insoluable at room temperature.
e) Polypropylene is the least thrombogenic suture of all currently available materials, but has a tendency to be stiff and have material memory.
22) All surgical wounds are contaminated by bacteria even under the most strict of aseptic techniques. Clean surgeries
a) have an infection rate of 2.5%-9.5%.
b) have an infection rate of 5.5%- 28%.
c) have an infection rate of 2.5-6.0%.
d) involving soft tissue have a higher contamination rate than orthopedic surgeries.
e) include traumatic wounds < 1 hour old.
