11 - Smooth Muscle Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What facilitates smooth muscle contraction? What causing contraction in vascular smooth muscle?

A

Electrochemical coupling operates through changes inc cell membrane potential.

Resting membrane potential = -40 to -70 mV.

K channels cause hyperpolarization while calcium channels cause depolarization.

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2
Q

What is pharmacological coupling of smooth muscle? What else can cause smooth muscle contraction?

A

Operates independent of cell membrane potential.

Involves receptors, intracellular signaling.

Nts, hormones, and paracrine factors.

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3
Q

What is the main mechanism of smooth muscle contraction? What causes relaxation?

A

Ca2+ channels allow calcium into cells and sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+.

Ca binds to calmodulin activating MLC kinase, which phosphorylated actin+MLC and causes contraction.

When RoA is bound to GDP it’s inactive and Rho kinase is inactive. As a result, myosin phosphatase is UN-phosphorylated and can remove a phosphate from MLC to cause muscle relaxation.

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4
Q

What are three mechanisms of smooth muscle relaxation?

A

Blocking calcium channels, blocking Galpha receptors, and blocking Rho kinase.

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5
Q

What are the different parts of the body that can be targeted by smooth muscle relaxation?

A

CV - vasodilators
Obstetrics - uterine relaxation
GI motility - contraction
Pulmonary - bronchodilators

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6
Q

What is preload? When is it increased?

A

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole (end diastolic pressure).

Increased in hypervolemia and regurgitation of cardiac valves.

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7
Q

What is afterload? When is it increased?

A

Resistance that the left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood.

Increased in HTN and vasoconstriction.

Increased afterload = increased cardiac workload

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8
Q

What are five pharmacological actions of vasodilators?

A
  1. Nitric oxide
  2. Increase or decrease cell membrane channel activity (K+ or Ca2+ channels)
  3. Increase smooth muscle cell cAMP or cGMP levels
  4. Activate vasodilator receptors
  5. Inhibit vasoconstrictor pathways and receptors
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9
Q

What are the types of nitric oxide donors? How does their mechanism of action differ?

A

Organic Nitrates - indirectly increase through S-nitrosothiol

Sodium Nitroprusside - direct NO donor

Both work to increase cGMP and protein kinase G.

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10
Q

What drug is an organic nitrate that that acts on venous circulation? What is it used for and how is it given? What is the toxicity?

A

Nitroglycerin

Sublingual - works within 15-30 min. Treats angina/coronary artery disease.

Toxicity is hypotension and reflex tachycardia.

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11
Q

What drug is a NO donor that works on both arterial and venous circulation? When is it used? How is it given? What is the toxicity?

A

Nitroprusside - direct NO donor.

IV for HTN emergencies for rapid reduction in art pressure. Lasts 15-30 min.

Toxicity: hypotension, cyanide accumulation (needs monitoring).

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12
Q

What is a direct vasodilator that acts on arterial circulation and is used in heart failure and HTN? How is it given?

A

Hydralazine

Oral for long-term, combined with nitrates for heart failure.

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13
Q

What direct vasodilator works on arterial circulation and is a selective K+ ATP channels opener? What is it used for and how is it given? What is the side effect?

A

Minoxidil.

Used for heart failure and HTN.

Oral for long-term.

Hypertrichosis (hair growth–ROGAIN).

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14
Q

What direct vasodilator acts on arterial circulation and is a non-selective K+ channel opening? When is it used? How is it given? What is the toxicity?

A

Diazoxide.

Used in HTN emergencies.

Oral is long acting, IV for rapid decrease in vascular resistance and art BP.

Toxicity is hypotension.

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15
Q

What are the three types of membrane channel dilators (Ca2+ channel blockers)? What drugs fall into each category?

A

Phenylalkamines - verapamil

Benzothiazapines - diltiazem

Dihydropyridines - nifedipine, nicardipine, amlodipine

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16
Q

Where is the action of calcium channel blockers? Which ones are more vascular smooth muscle selective and which is cerebral vascular selective?

A

They are arterial dominant.

Vascular smooth muscle selective: dihydropyridines

Cerebral vascular selective: Nimodipine

17
Q

What is the use of calcium channel blockers?

A

HTN, angina, cerebral and coronary vasospasm.

18
Q

Which phosphodiesterases are present in vascular smooth muscle? What is the result of inhibiting each?

A

PDE5: inhibition causes increase in cGMP and causes vasodilation via PKG.

PDE3: inhibition causes an increase in cAMP and PKA, resulting in relaxation

Both of these cause smooth muscle relaxation.

19
Q

Which phosphodiesterase is present in the heart? What is the result of inhibiting it?

A

PDE3: inhibition causes an increase in cAMP and enhances the contraction of the heart. Also decreases afterload.

20
Q

Which phosphodiesterase inhibitors cause PDE3 inhibition? What effect do they have on the heart and vascular smooth muscle?

A

Milrinone and Inamrinone

Heart: causes increased force and velocity of contraction

Vascular smooth muscle: dilation of arterial side

Both work through an increase in cAMP.

21
Q

What is the use of PDE3 inhibitors such as Milrinon and Inamrinone? How are they given?

A

Heart failure.

IV for short-term life-threatening heart failure.

Oral forms withdrawn due to sudden cardiac death.

22
Q

Which drugs are PDE5 inhibitors? What is their action and use?

A

Sildenafil and tadalafil

PDE5 inhibition through an increase in cGMP.

Erectile dysfunction and pulmonary HTN.

23
Q

What miscellaneous vasodilator acts as a dopamine D1 agonist? Where is it’s site of action? What is it used for?

A

Fenoldopam

Arterial dominant, natriuretic.

Used in HTN emergencies and post-operative HTN (IV).

24
Q

What miscellaneous vasodilator is an alpha-adrenergic blocker? What is it’s site of action?

A

Prazosin

Arterial and venous circulation.

Used for HTN.

First dose phenomenon.

25
What drug is an oxytocin receptor antagonist that decreases the frequency of uterine contractions?
Atosiban Used to inhibit uterine contractions and prevent preterm labor.
26
What drugs are PGE1 analogs? What is their use?
Misoprostal: oral/sublingual to stimulate uterine contractions and prevent/treat postpartum hemorrhage. Alprostadil: smooth muscle relaxing to maintain ductus arteriosus in neonates b4 card surgery. Erectile dysfunction.
27
What are two labor-inducing drugs? What do they do?
Oxytocin: causes uterine contractions Ergonovine: ergot alkaloid rye fungi. Small doses cause rhythmic uterine contractions ; large doses cause powerful prolonged uterine contractions.
28
What drug is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that allows for increased cholinergic smooth muscle stimulation (GI motility)? What are its uses?
Metoclopramide. Treats gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), prevents/treats emesis, and impaired gastric emptying.
29
What muscarinic receptor agonist increases GI and bladder contractions? What is its therapeutic use?
Bethanechol. Used for diabetic neuropathy pts with GI and urinary motility problems.
30
What drug can be used to stimulate motilin receptors on GI smooth muscles to promote migrating motor complexes? What are it's therapeutic uses?
Erythromycin - a macrolide antibiotic. Given IV for gastroparesis and to promote gastric emptying for endoscopy.
31
What are the drugs that are B2 adrenergic agonists? What is their action?
Albuterol, Pirbuterol, Terbutaline, Salmeterol, and Formoterol Bronchodilation through a decreased Ca2+ and K+ channel acvitation.
32
What are the uses of B2 adrenergic agonists? What is the associated toxicity?
Inhaled and long acting for asthma and COPD. Terbutaline inhibits uterine contractions with premature labor. Can cause tachycardia due to it's B2 stimulation.
33
What drugs are muscarinic receptor antagonists that inhibit airway smooth muscle contraction and inhibit mucus secretion? What are they used to treat?
Ipratropium and Tiotropium. Inhaled and long-acting for asthma and COPD.
34
Which bronchodilators act through PDE3 inhibition and adenosine receptor antagonism? What are their therapeutic uses? How are they given?
Theophylline and aminophylline. Orally for asthma and COPD.
35
What are three endothelial factors that influence smooth muscle tone? Which receptor does each act on and what is the result?
Prostacyclin (PGI2) and IP receptor: increase contraction and prolif. Endothelin-1 and ETA receptor: Vasodilation NO and sGC (soluble guanylate cyclase) receptor: cGMP increases for vasodilation
36
What occurs with the IP receptor, ETA receptor, and sGC receptor in pulmonary HTN?
Increased endothilin-1 binds ETA receptor to cause increased contraction and proliferation. PGI2 and NO are reduced, resulting in reduced vasodilation.
37
What drugs are PGI2 (IP) receptor agonists that are used for pulmonary HTN? How are they given?
Epoprostenol and Iloprost Given IV or inhaled. Short half life of 15-30 min. Lowers peripheral, pulm, and coronary vascular resistance.
38
What drugs are ETA receptor antagonists that treat pulmonary HTN? How is this drug given?
Bosentan and Ambrisentan Lowers pulmonary resistance in pulmonary arterial HTN. Given orally, IV, or inhaled
39
What drug can be used for pulmonary HTN, acute hypoxemia, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation? What is it's mechanism of action?
Nitric Oxide. Reduces pulmonary artery pressure and improves perfusion to ventilated areas. Inhaled.