11 - Female Reproductive System, Breast and Skin Flashcards

1
Q

Three examples of developmental abnormalities of female reproductive system?

A
  1. agenesis of vagina
  2. agenesis of uterus
  3. abnormality of uterus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define the difference btwn true hermaphroditism, male and female pseudohermaphroditism

A

True: person has both male and female gonads (hormone makers)
Male pseudo: genotypically male, phenotypically female
Female pseudo: genotypically female, phenotypically male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 pathogenic and 5 anatomic classifications

A

Pathogenic:
1. descending infections (TB, hematogenouos)
2. Ascending infection (STI)

Anatomic classification:
1. salpingitis: fallopian tube
2. endometritis: endometrium
3. cervicitis: cervix
4. vaginitis: vagina
5. vulvitis: vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main characteristics of diseases caused by genital herpes (3)? Why is it important?

A
  • majority are asymptomatic
  • vesicle rupture can lead to ulcerations
  • no cure, virus remains dormant in neural ganglion

Important because don’t want vaginal delivery if active lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the main characteristics of diseases caused by HPV (3)?

A
  • labial, vaginal, and cervical warts (condyloma)
  • certain types associated with carcinoma
  • condyloma acuminatum: anogenital warts, usually caused by HPV 6,11 and transmitted through skin contact
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe bacteria and diseases caused by chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis

A

Chlamydia:
- chlamydia trachomatis
- causes urethritis, cervicitis with discharge, and PID

Gonorrhea:
- neisseria gonorrheae
- causes urethritis, cervicitis with discharge, and PID

Syphilis:
- treponema pallidum
- causes vulvar ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Characteristics of PID? What are 3 other diseases it can cause and 3 complications?

A
  • infection of reproductive tract, usually secondary to an ascending infection of STI

Causes: salpingitis, tubo-ovarian abscess, peritonitis

Complications: infertility, ectopic pregnancy, spread of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three main infectious and non-infectious causes of vaginitis

A

Infectious:
1. bacterial vaginosis (bacteria, not STI)
2. candidiasis (fungus, not STI)
3. Trichomonas (trichomonas vaginalis, STI)

Non-infectious:
1. atrophic vaginitis
2. foreign body
3. allergen or irritant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is endometriosis characterized by (2)? Pathogenesis? What’s a specific example

A

Characterized by:
- when endometrial tissue, which is normally lines the inside of the uterus, is found on the outside of the uterus
- benign condition that may cause pain and infertility

Pathogenesis:
- retrograde menstrual flow theory
- traumatic implantation
- embryonic rests (part of embryonic tissue remains after embryonic development period)

Example: **Ovarian endometriosis **-> ovarian cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia?

A

thickening of endometrial mucosa due to hormonal imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 5 main steps of the anovulatory cycle? What are the functional and organic causes? What disease is this cycle relevant to?

A
  1. no ovulation
  2. no progesterone secretion
  3. unopposed estrogenic stimulation
  4. proliferation
  5. endometrial hyperplasia

Functional: puberty, anorexia, anxiety, nervosa, bulima, athletes
Organic: excess estrogen

Endometrial Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe characteristics of vulva (4) carcinoma and vaginal carcinoma (2)

A

Vulva
- squamous cell carcinoma
- raised wart-like or ulcerated regions
- may result in leukoplakia or erythroplakia
- biopsy to assess, surgical excision w/ or w/o adjuvant therapy to treat

Vagina
- squamous cell carcinoma
- clear cell carcinoma due to women born to mothers on DES during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are 4 characteristics of carcinoma of cervix?

A
  1. cause is unknown
  2. most commonly squamous cell carcinoma
  3. occurs at transition zone of exocervic and endocervix
  4. cells may shed into vagina (hence pap test)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are 2 risk factors of carcinoma of cervix?

A
  1. sexual intercourse at young age/multiple partners/HPV infections type 16 and 18
  2. Environmental factors (tobacco)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of neoplasm is cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) associated with? What does CIN I, II, III mean in terms of severity?

A

Carcinoma of cervix

CIN I = mild
CIN II = moderate
CIN III = severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe leiomyoma (3) and leiomyeosarcoma (2)

A

Leiomyoma:
- benign neoplasm of uterus derived from smooth muscle of uterus wall
- response to estrogen, usually asymptomatic
- may produce symptoms due to bleeding

Leiomyosarcoma:
- malignant neoplasm derived from smooth muscle in uterus wall
- very rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is endometrial adenocarcinoma? What is a risk factor? Diagnosis and treatment?

A

Malignant neoplasm derived from epithelial cells in endometrium

Risk factors are related to increased estrogen

Diagnosis: endometrial biopsy, dilation, curettage

Treatment: hysterectomy (surgical removal of uterus) with or without adjuvant therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name an example of a disease with ovarian cysts and state 4 characteristics

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome
1. multiple cysts in both ovaries
2. presents with menstrual irregularities
3. patients don’t ovulate
4. cause of infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the three major ovarian neoplasm groups? Pathogenesis (3)?

A

Three Major Groups:
1. surface epithelial tumors
2. Germ cell tumors
3. Sex Cord stromal tumors

Pathogenesis
1. after ovulation, ovarian surface epithelium ruptures
2. heals by proliferation
3. proliferative surface epithelial cells have increased risk of transformation

20
Q

What are the three main surface epithelial tumors? Describe their characteristics and whether they’re generally benign or malignant

A

Serous epithelial tumors
- typically cystic and filled with clear fluid
- 30% benign 60% malignant

Mucinous epithelial tumors
- typically cystic and filled with vicsous fluid
- more likely to be benign compared to serous

Endometriod epithelial tumors
- typically solid
- usually malignant

21
Q

Characteristics of teratoma (4)?

A
  • aka dermoid cyst, often cystic and contains hair + sebaceous material
  • may contain teeth and bone cartilage
  • benign but should be resected to avoid malignant transformation
  • immature teratomas contain immature neural tissue and may behave malignantly
22
Q

What disease is a risk of excess estrogen

A

Endometrial carcinoma

23
Q

Where do ovarian sex cord neoplasms originate from? What are the 4 types?

A

Originates from ovarian stromal cells

  1. Fibroma: benign neoplasm of fibroblasts
  2. thecoma: benign neoplasm of theca cells, can produce estrogen
  3. Granulosa cell tumor: benign or malignant neoplasm of granulosa cell, can produce estrogen
  4. Sertoli-leydig cell tumor: secretes androgens -> virilization
24
Q

What are 4 factors leading to infertile pregancies?

A

Ovum related:
- immature ovum, incomplete meiotic division

Sperm related:
- azospermia (no sperm)
- oligospermia (low sperm)
- immotile sperm

Genital organ factors:
- PID
- Asherman’s syndrome: scar tissue in uterus or cervix

Systemic Factors:
- immune mechanisms

25
Describe ectopic pregnancy and why it's dangerous (3)?
- implantation of fertilzied ovum outside of uterine cavity, usually in the fallopian tube - adhesions prevent normal passage of zygote so it implants and penetrates in the fallopian tube - may erode through wall and rupture, leading to massive blood loss
26
Difference btwn placenta accreta and previa?
**Accreta**: - abnormally deep peneration of placental villi into uterus wall - risk of retaining placenta after delivery and post-partum hemorrhage **Previa**: - abnormal placental implantation site in lower uterine segment - prone to bleeding and risk of premature delivery
27
What is the difference btwn complete, incomplete, missed, threatened, and inevitable abortion?
**Complete**: fetus and placenta expelled, normal function **Incomplete**: retention of some fetal and placental material **Missed**: death of fetus in uterus, expelled weaks later **Threatened**: cervix closed, spotting blood, fetus still in uterus **Inevitable**: cervix is dilated, but products of conception not expeleld
28
What are gestational trophoblastic diseases? What are the two cell types? Name a benign and malignant GTD.
Group of abnormalities of placentation resulting in tumor-like changes or malignant transformation Cytotrophoblasts and synctiotrophoblasts which proliferate in GTD **Benign**: hydatid mole **Malignant**: choriocarcinoma
29
What are some characteristics of hydatid form moles? Difference btwn complete and incomplete moles?
- trophoblastic proliferation, degeneration of chorionic villi - features enlarged uterus with no fetal movement, looks like cluster of grapes on ultrasound **Complete mole**: - more common, no fetus (empty ovum), abnormal fertilization (all chromosomes from one parent, but normal amount) **Incomplete mole**: - some fetal parts in ovum, abnormal fertilization (abnormal number of chromosomes)
30
Characteristics of choriocarcinoma?
rare highly malignant tumor of gestational trophoblasts, arises from pre-existing complete mole
31
What is the difference btwn preeclampsia and eclampsia? What disease do they describe?
**Preeclampsia**: - triad: HTN, edema, proteinuria - typically occurs in third trimester - can lead to eclampsia **Eclampsia**: - triad + seizure, life threatning to both mother and baby - requires treatment of seizure before delivering baby **Toxemia of pregnancy**
32
What is mastitis? Difference btwn acute and chronic mastitis?
Mastitis = inflammation of breast **Acute**: - warm, red, edema, painful - bacterial infection through milk ducts and breastfeeding - may develop abscess **Chronic**: mimics breast cancer, requires biopsy
33
Describe fibrocystic change. What are some clinical features? Pathological findings?
Benign change in bobs due to hormones and age **Clinical findings**: pain, nodularity, sensitivity on palpation **Pathological findings**: - *fibrosis* on intralobular stroma - *cystic dilation* of epithelial ducts - epithelial *hyperplasia*
34
Describe gynecomastia
Increased proliferation of excretory ducts and stroma, leading to enlarged man breasts, usually due to hormonal changes
35
Name a benign breast neoplasm and what causes it to occur
Fibroadenema - Proliferation of stromal elements (fibro) and epithelial elements (adenoma) - Believed to be abnormal exaggerated response of breast to hormones (puberty, pregnancy)
36
Name a malignant breast neoplasm and what causes it to occur
**Breast cancer, most common type is ductal carcinoma** - hormonal, environmental, and genetic influences (e.g. familial breast cancers = mutation in BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 tumor suppressor genes)
37
What are some non-modifiable and modifiable risk factors of breast cancer?
**Non-modifiable**: - age, race, female sex - genetic predisposition, personal history - hormones - dense breasts **Modifiable**: - alcohol intake - smoking - maintaining healthy body weight - breastfeeding - hormone replacement therapy - radiation exposure (unnecessary)
38
Describe the three types of external skin injuries
**Mechanical**: - blunt force - sharp force **Electrical**: - inadequately isolated electrical wiring/lightening - can cause burns - can interfere with heart conduction **Radiation injury** - non-ionizing (UV) - ionizing
39
Describe the 4 degrees of burn
**First degree**: epidermis only, erythema, swelling, pain **Second degree**: involves dermis, superficial or deep partial thickness, blisters/pain **Third degree**: full thickness dermis, charred and black, no pain **Fourth degree**: underlying soft tissue, muscle and bone
40
Describe eczema and urticaria
**Eczema** - chronic inflammatory disorder characterized by red, dry, scaly. itchy skin - type I HSR - often associated with asthma and allergic rhinitis **Urticaria (hives, welts, wheals)** - acute, transient, intensely itchy red raised plaques - mast cell degranulation - allerigic triggers (meds, food, bite) and non-allergic triggers (infections, cold temperature)
41
What is seborrheic dermatitis
- chronic relapsing mild dermatitis - infants -> cradle cap - severity varies
42
What is psoriasis
Papules and patches covered by scale extensor surfaces (elbows, knees)
43
What are the 4 types of skin neoplasms?
1. **epithelial** (basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma) 2. **melanocytic** (nevus/mole, melanoma) 3. **dermal connective tissue** 4. **metastasis**
44
Describe basal and squamous cell carcinoma
**Basal**: - good prognosis, doesn't metastasize - nodule with red thread-like veins **Squamous**: - good prognosis, <2% metastasize - firm, scaly nodules
45
Describe nevus and melanoma
**Nevus**: benign neoplasm of melanocyte **Melanoma**: malignant neoplasm of melanocyte - refer to the ABC's: - Asymmetry - Border irregularity - Colour irregularity - Diameter > 6 mm - Evolution (shape, colour, size, etc.)