11: Animal Physiology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Define antigen

A

A substance that is recognised as foreign and is capable of triggering an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can the immunity system differentiate between body cells and foreign cells

A

This is because every organism has unique molecules on the surface of its cells which could be recognised by the immune system (ex: glycoproteins, glycolipids, antigens…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the blood groups and their antigens

A
  • Blood type A has a type A antigen
  • Blood type B has a type B antigen
  • Blood type AB has both type A and B antigen
  • Blood type O has neither type A nor B antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what happens when blood transfusions are not compatible

A

they will stimulate an antibody production/immune rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which blood groups are AB compatible for transfusions + why

A

AB blood groups can receive blood from any other type (as they already possess both types of antigens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which blood groups are B compatible for transfusions + why

A

B blood groups cannot receive A blood or AB blood (as they both have the type A antigen and will stimulate an antibody production/immune rejection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which blood groups are A compatible for transfusions + why

A
  • A blood groups cannot receive B blood or AB blood (as they both have the type B antigen and will stimulate an antibody production/immune rejection)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which blood groups are O compatible for transfusions + why

A
  • O blood groups can only receive O blood (as all 3 others have type A and type B antigens and O blood groups have no antigens)
  • universal donor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define macrophage

A

a specific phagocyte that engulfs pathogens via phagocytosis and recognises them because of the specific antigen on the surface of the pathogen’s membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies

A

antibodies artificially derived from a single B cell clone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some different types of pathogens

A

viruses, bacteria, fungi and protozoans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of antibodies

A

aid in the destruction of pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the multiple ways antibodies can destroy pathogens

A
  • complement activation
  • agglutination
  • neutralisation
  • Opsonization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is complement activation

A

antibodies can trigger proteins which can perforate cell walls of pathogens causing them to burst (kills pathogen directly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is agglutination

A

antibodies cause pathogens to stick together by binding to them, making it easier to digest via phogocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is neutralisation

A

some antibodies act as antitoxins neutralise the toxins released by pathogens making them harmless, making it easier to be digested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Opsonization

A

antibodies bind to pathogens and link them to phagocytes, making them more recognisable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the primary immune system

A
  • the first exposure to an antigen
  • leads to development of antibodies and memory cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the secondary immune system

A
  • same antigen is found in the body for a second time
  • memory cells recognise the antigen, divide and differentiate into antibody-producing plasma cells and more memory cells
  • pathogens can be destroyed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The differences between the primary and secondary immune system

A

primary: less antibodies, slow, symptons present
secondary: more antibodies, symptoms not present faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Outline how vaccines work

A
  • Vaccine injects a weakened part of a pathogen
  • Antigens on the pathogen in the vaccine stimulate the primary immune response
  • If the body encounters the actual pathogen then it will be destroyed by the antibodies during a secondary immune response.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Function of vaccines

A

give long-term immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Outline Edward Jenner’s discovery

A
  • he developed the first smallpox vaccine
  • Smallpox was the first infectious disease to gave been eradicated via vaccination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is zoonosis

A

Diseases coming from other animals that can infect or be transmitted to humans
- diseases that can cross species barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are Reasons why certain diseases are species specific

A
  • If a species doesn’t possess the necessary receptors to be at risk of infection
  • If the body temperature of the organisms doesn’t reach temperatures required for the development of the disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are histamines

A

chemicals created by the body in response to allergens such as pollen and dust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Outline the production of histamines

A

Allergens are antigens so when B cells encounter allergens, they produce antibodies (lgE antibodies). The lgE antibodies attach themselves to mast cells → stimulate the production of histamine → allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the effects of histamines

A

runny nose, itchy skin and eyes or sneezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Outline the production of monoclonal antibodies

A
  1. A mouse is injected with an antigen to stimulate antibody production
  2. A few days later B lymphocytes are extracted from the mouse’s spleen
  3. Mouse cells and tumour cells are mixed together in suspension
  4. Some of the mouse cells fuse with tumour cells to form hybrid cells called hybridomas
  5. hybridoma cells divide endlessly and produce the desired antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What two cells do B lymphocytes mature into

A

plasma cells and memory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the role/function of plasma cells

A

they produce antibodies specific to a type of antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a structural feature of plasma cells

A

large amounts of RER which promotes protein synthesis to make the required antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is clonal selection (antibodies)

A

involves identifying and activating a B-cell with the complementary receptor to the target antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is clonal expansion

A

The activated B-cell divides by mitosis to produce the same antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the role of monoclonal antibodies in pregnancy kits

A

contain monoclonal antibody molecules that are specific to a hormone produced during pregnancy (hCG)

36
Q

what to T helper cells do

A
  • The T-helper cell with the complementary receptor to the antigen will bind to it and become activated by the phagocyte
  • Activated T-helper cells then bind with complementary receptors on the surface membrane of specific B-lymphocytes
  • the T-helper cells releases signalling proteins and activate these B-cells
37
Q

What is the function of bones and exoskletons

A

act as anchorage for muscles and act as levers

38
Q

what is the function of endoskeletons

A

support their bodies from the inside with tissues surrounding the bone

39
Q

What is the function of exoskeletons

A

to protect the internal tissues

40
Q

what are the three systems in the human body which allow it to move

A
  • skeletal system
  • muscle system
  • nervous system
41
Q

What is the general function of endoskeletons and exoskeletons

A

they provide support for the body and facilitates movement

42
Q

what are synovial joints

A

most common type of joint in the human body + a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid which reduces friction

43
Q

What are the 3 main parts the synovial joints consist of

A
  • joint capsulue
  • synovial fluid
  • cartilage
44
Q

What are the different parts of the human elbow

A
  • humerus
  • triceps
  • biceps
  • radius
  • ulna
  • cartilage
  • joint capsule with synvovial fluid
45
Q

Explain antagonistic pairs

A

Muscles move in opposite direction – when one muscle contracts, the other relaxes

46
Q

What are the Antagonistic Pairs of Muscles in Insects

A
  • flexor
  • extensor
47
Q

Outline what happens when insect prepares to jump

A

When the flexor contracts and the extensor relaxes – the tibia and femur are closer together → insect is preparing to jump

48
Q

Outline what happens when an insect jumps

A

When the extensor contacts and the flexor relaxes – the tibia and femur are further apart → the insect jumps

49
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue

A
  • Cardiac which are found in the heart
  • Smooth which is found in the blood vessels and organs
  • Skeletal muscle is striated and attached to the skeleton
50
Q

What are the structural features of muscle fibres

A
  • many mitochondria (ATP for muscle contraction)
  • many nuclei
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • sarcolemma and T tubules
  • myofibrils made of actin and myosin
51
Q

What is the role/function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

stores calcium ions to trigger the action potential

52
Q

where are myofibrils located at

A

sarcoplasm

53
Q

What are myofibrils made up

A

contractile sarcomeres

54
Q

Features of sarcomeres

A
  • Contains the thick filament (myosin) and the thin filament (actin)
    H band → only thick myosin filaments present
    I band → only thin actin filaments present
    A band → overlap of actin and myosin filaments
55
Q

What are osmoregulators

A

maintain a constant body osmolarity regardless of their environment

56
Q

What are osmoconformers

A

maintain their body’s osmolarity that are equal to the osmolarity of the environment

57
Q

Characteristics of osmoregulators

A
  • Need to be able to get rid of excess salts or actively promote uptake of salts from the environment
  • Must expend energy to maintain the osmotic gradients via active transport
58
Q

Characteristics of osmoconformers

A
  • Synthesise substances upon a rise in external salt concentration to keep internal and external osmolarity equal
  • Does not spend energy regulating body fluids
59
Q

Outline the differences in excretory systems between insects and mammals

A
  • In mammals, the excretory system is separate from the digestive system
  • In insects, the excretory system connects to the digestive system
60
Q

Outline The Malpighian Tubule System

A
  1. Salts and uric acid are actively pumped from hemolymph into malpighian tubules
  2. water follows out of hemolymph into the tubule by osmosis
  3. the nitrogenous wastes moves out of the tubule into the hindgut where salts and water are reabsorbed into hemolymph
  4. Uric acid (nitrogenous wastes) are egested with faeces
61
Q

Difference between renal artery and renal vein

A

Renal artery enters the kidney & renal vein blood leaves the kidney

62
Q

What does the renal vein blood contain

A
  • Less urea
  • Less water and salts
  • Less oxygen
  • Higher carbon dioxide concentration
  • Same concentration of proteins
63
Q

Why does the renal vein contain less urea

A

large amounts of urea is removed in the nephrons

64
Q

Why does the renal vein contain less oxygen

A

used to generate energy and fuel metabolic reactions

65
Q

Why does the renal vein have a higher carbon dioxide concentration

A

produced by kidneys as a product of metabolic reactions

66
Q

Why does the renal vein have the same concentration of proteins

A

they are not filtered by the kidney

67
Q

Where is the nephron located

A

medulla

68
Q

How does the blood enter the Bowman’s capsule

A
  • moves into the kidney via afferent arterioles at high blood pressure, it enters the glomerulus
69
Q

What are the features of the Bowman’s capsule

A
  • The glomerulus is encapsulated by the Bowman’s capsule which contains podocytes
  • Blood vessels in the glomerulus have pores which means the blood can freely leave the glomerulus
70
Q

What are the two main parts of the loop of Henle

A

ascending and descending limb

71
Q

Features of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle

A

It is permeable to water by not salt
Higher solute concentration in medulla draws water out of filtrate
Osmolarity decreases
Water moves out by osmosis

72
Q

Features of the descending limb of the loop of Henle

A

It is permeable to Nacl but not water
NaCl moves out of filtrate into medulla by active transport causing a decrease in filtrate Nacl concentration
It helps keep a high solute concentration in the medulla

73
Q

What takes place in the proximal convulated tubule

A

selective reabsorption
- Glucose is reabsorbed by active transport

74
Q

What are the features of the proximal convulated tubule for adaptations

A

The lining of the PCT is composed of epithelial cells which are adapted to carry out reabsorption
It has many mitochondria (energy needed active transport)
Many microvilli (increases the surface area for reabsorption)

75
Q

The relationship between animals and loop of henle

A

The longer the loop of Henle, the greater an animal’s ability to conserve water. Water conservation can be improved by having a longer loop of Henle, which increase the salt gradient in the medulla → a greater salt gradient means more water is reabsorbed by the collecting ducts

76
Q

Outline ultrafiltration

A

1) Fenestrations of capillary calls and they allow fluid to escape but not blood cells
2) The basement membrane prevents large molecules (proteins + red blood cells) from being filtered out
3) Podocytes allow the passage of small molecules
4) High pressure – helps with filtration and it is created by having a wide afferent arteriole (less resistance to blood flow) and a narrow arteriole (more resistance to blood flow)

77
Q

What substances are not filtered out

A

amino acids, water, glucose, urea and salts

78
Q

What are the consequences of overhydration

A

The osmolarity of the body is less than the surrounding cells causing water to move into the cells by osmosis
Dilute urine, colourless
High blood pressure
Lower heart rate

79
Q

What are the consequences of dehydration

A

The osmolarity of the body is greater than inside the cells, leading to the water moving out of the cells by osmosis
Concentrated urine, dark volume
Higher heart rate
Lower blood pressure

80
Q

The role of ADH in low water blood content

A

lower blood content is detected by the hypothalamus, ADH is released by the pituitary gland, ADH increases the permeability of the collecting by increasing the number of aquaprins, more water is reabsorbed into the blood from filtrate, concentrated urine

81
Q

The role of ADH in high water blood content

A

High blood water content is detected by the hypothlamus, no ADH is released from the pituitary gland, the permeability of the collecting duct

82
Q

Outline urinary tests

A

Glucose: diabetes
Proteins: hCG=pregnacy
Blood cells: cancer
Drugs: they can be detected

83
Q

What are the types of nitrogenous wastes

A

aquatic: ammonia
mammals: urea
reptiles: uric acid

84
Q

How are nitrogenous formed

A

the breakdown of excess amino acids
- ammonia is very toxic so it needs to be converted

85
Q

What are the different types of techniques for kidney failure

A

kidney dialysis and kidney transplant

86
Q

What is kidney dialysis

A

toxins, metabolic waste products and excess substances are removed from the blood by diffusion through a dialysis membrane