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Security+ Study Guide > 1.1 > Flashcards

1.1 Flashcards

1
Q

Deterrent Control

A

Psychologically discourages an attacker from attempting an intrusion.

EX: Warning sign

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2
Q

Preventive Control

A

Physically or logically restricts unauthorized access.

EX: Physical door lock or password.

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3
Q

Detective Control

A

Identify and record any attempted or successful intrusion.

EX: Security Camear

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4
Q

Corrective Control

A

Responds to and fixes an incident. Also prevent the reoccurrence of the incident.

EX: antivirus software

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5
Q

Technical Security Control

A

Hardware or software mechanisms used to protect assets.

EX: Antivirus software, firewalls, intrusion detection systems

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6
Q

Operational Security Control

A

Items preventing or detecting unauthorized access to physical spaces, systems and assets.

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7
Q

Compensating controls

A

refer to measures put in place to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability when security teams cannot directly eliminate it or when direct remediation is not immediately possible, such as additional monitoring or enhanced encryption.

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8
Q

Policy enforcement points

A

enforce decisions about whether to grant access to a requested resource or not.

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9
Q

Non-repudiation

A

assures the origin and integrity of transmitted data, preventing entities from denying the validity of the data.

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10
Q

Zero trust

A

security concept that recommends not trusting any entity inside or outside the organization by default. It does not assist in granting access based on roles.

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11
Q

honeypot

A

allows security teams to monitor attacker activity and gather information about the attacker’s tactics and tools.

mimics real systems or applications as a decoy system.

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12
Q

honeynet

A

uses a network of interconnected honeypots to simulate an entire network versus mimicking a system or application.

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13
Q

honeyfile

A

uses fake files that appear to contain sensitive information. A honeyfile will detect attempts to access and steal data.

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14
Q

honeytoken

A

contains false credentials, login credentials, or other data types that distract attackers, trigger alerts, and provide insight into attacker activity.

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15
Q

Gap analysis

A

assesses the differences in performance between a company’s information systems or software applications to determine whether they meet requirements.

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16
Q

Authorization models

A

dictate what resources a user or system can access within a system.

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17
Q

AAA

A

Authentication, authorization, and accounting

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18
Q

RBAC

A

Role-based access control (RBAC) is the role assigned to individual users within an enterprise.

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19
Q

policy engine

A

includes subject and host identities and credentials, access control policies, up-to-date threat intelligence, behavioral analytics, and other results of host and network security scanning and monitoring.

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20
Q

Adaptive identity

A

dynamically adjusting user access rights based on various factors, such as user behavior, to maintain security and mitigate risk.

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21
Q

Authenticating systems

A

refers to the process of confirming the identity of a system to ensure it’s trustworthy

22
Q

Policy-driven access control

A

uses policies to control access to resources. It is crucial for maintaining security but does not directly address the dynamic adjustment of access rights.

23
Q

Authorization models

A

determine what resources a user or system can access within a system.

24
Q

control plane uses router tables to

A

determine which path the data packets should take through the network.

25
Q

data plane is the network part that carries

A

user data

26
Q

router

A

device that routes data packets based on their destination internet protocol (IP) address. However, the path of the data based on routing tables is the control plane

27
Q

switch

A

network device connecting various devices on a computer network. The role of determining the path of data based on routing tables falls under the control plane.

28
Q

Threat scope reduction

A

involves minimizing the possible attack vectors and surfaces. This process reduces the company’s exposure to potential threats.

29
Q

Standard Operating Procedures

A

Outline regular operations or modifications and provide specific guidance for their execution.

30
Q

The cybersecurity analyst can streamline and standardize the documentation process for legacy system’s code and integrations by implementing…

A

Automation and Orchestration

31
Q

Data privacy policy

A

Defines how the company collects, stores, processes, and shares customer data and measures taken to protect customer information.

It ensures that the organization complies with relevant data protection laws and regulations, safeguarding sensitive data and promoting transparency in data handling practices

32
Q

Acceptable use policy

A

Outlines appropriate computer and network usage

33
Q

Information Security Policy

A

Ensures that all users follow the guidelines related to information security

34
Q

Disaster recovery policy

A

Deals with steps to recover from catastrophic events such as natural disaster or security breaches.

35
Q

Impact analysis

A

Assesses the potential implications of a proposed change but it does not test the changes.

36
Q

Testing results

A

Evaluate proposed changes in a test environment to ensure the changes will work as intended and not cause issues.

37
Q

Backout plan

A

A contingency plan for reversing changes and returning systems and software to their original state if the implementation plan fails but does not assess the implication of proposed changes.

38
Q

Maintenance Window

A

Predefined, recurring time frame for implementing changes but does not test the changes

39
Q

How can a cybersecurity analyst effectively utilize version control to maintain a historical record of changes and ensure security in the organization’s IT systems and applications?

A

Use version control to track changes in network diagrams and configuration files.

40
Q

Trusted Plateform Module

A

A crypto-processor implemented as a module within the CPU on a computer or mobile device

41
Q

Hardware Security Module

A

Cryptoprocessor that implements hardware through a removable or dedicated form factor, such as plug-in peripheral component interconnect express adaptor cards

42
Q

Certificate revocation list

A

Provides a summation of all revoked and suspended certificates and must be accessible to anyone relying on the validity of the certificate authority’s certificates

43
Q

Public key infrastructure

A

Framework that establishes trust in using public key cryptography to sign and encrypt messages via digital signatures

44
Q

Which encryption method would be inefficient for encrypting a large amount of data on a disk or transporting it over a network?

A

Asymmetric encryption: it becomes inefficient when dealing with large volumes of data on disks or during network transport due to its computational overhead.

45
Q

Tokenization

A

Replacing all or part of the value of a database field with a randomly generated token while maintaining the original data on a separate token server.

46
Q

Data masking

A

When a user redacts all or part of the contents of a database field by substituting the string, such as using “x” in its place.

47
Q

Salting

A

Cryptography hash method where the user hashes data used for something like a password, and the system cannot decrypt it back to the plaintext password that generated it,

48
Q

Stenography

A

Occurs when a user embeds information, such as a document, within an unexpected source, such as as a message hidden in a picture, to guise either true appearance

49
Q

Key escrow

A

Involves securely storing a copy of the private key with a trusted third party for recovery and availability in case of key loss or compromise. It serves as a backup mechanism for private keys

50
Q

Secure Enclave

A

Enhances security by providing an isolated environment for executing sensitive operations and protecting critical data.

51
Q

wildcard certificates

A

streamline the certificate deployment process and simplify ongoing maintenance tasks, leading to improved operational efficiency.

Security+ Study Guide (2 decks)

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