106 Flashcards
The ships airplan is submitted by the ___, reviewed by the____, and ___and approved by the _____.
Air OPS officer, ops officer, air officer , commanding officer
What chart depicts operating areas, ordnance jettison areas, airspace and political boundaries and any other pertinent information.
Hot sheet
Distribution of the ship’s air plan and flight schedule is in accordance with
ship/squadron requirements
AATCC shall be manned and the checkoff list in Chapter
9 of NAVAIR 00-80T-125 executed, commensurate with the EMCON plan in effect how many hours before scheduled flight operations?
one and one half hours (90 mins)
who is responsible for the safe and expeditious launch and recovery of AV-8B and F-35B aircraft aboard LHDs?
LSO
who under the supervision of the Air Officer is responsible for visually signaling to the helicopter, thus assisting the pilot in making a safe takeoff and/or approach and landing on the LHDs?
LSE
The maximum number of aircraft in the CQ/DLQ pattern is ____, unless modified by the Air Officer?
6
Who is responsable for for the ordinance load plan?
Ordinance handling officer
who is responsible for the control of airborne aircraft, except when control is assigned to
other authority?
Operations Officer
who is responsible for coordination of all matters pertaining to flight operations?
Air officer
Who is responsible to the Air Operations Officer for the execution of the Air Plan (Current Ops) and
the proper functioning and manning of the AATCC?
AATCC Officer
who is responsible for visual control of all aircraft operating in the control zone?
Air Officer
Who is responsible for providing separation from other traffic operating in the vicinity of the ship and ensuring that mission controllers know the basic procedures for air traffic control?
Combat Information Center (CIC)
Who controls and coordinates airborne tactical aircraft and helicopter operations with supporting
arms and other air operations through the TACC (afloat)?
Tactical Air Officer
What is the most prominent factor affecting the degree of control necessary?
Weather
This control shall be utilized under thunderstorm areas.
Positive Control
This control shall be utilized when the traffic density in an operating area requires a higher degree of control for safety
of flight than required under visual flight rules?
Advisory Control
This control shall be utilized only when aircraft are operating VMC outside controlled airspace and the responsibility
for separation from other traffic can be safely assumed by the pilot.
Monitor Control
This control shall be used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar
separation of air traffic under conditions normally requiring positive control?
Nonradar Control
who or what is responsible for detection and identification for ESGs. Contact with GC must be established as soon as practical and in accordance with the applicable theater operating procedures?
Green Crown
who or what is responsible for the mission control of the airspace assigned to the ESG. That airspace may extend out to 50 nm?
Icepack
commonly referred to as Center, ________is the air traffic control agency on the LHA/LHD that is responsible for providing IMC approach and departure control services?
AATCC
Who controls airspace within 5 nm and up to and including 2500 feet of the LHA/LHD?
TOWER
The outer limit of the control zone shall not be established closer than ____ nm to any airway, controlled airspace, or special use airspace, unless approved by cognizant authority (controlling activity, scheduling activity, or FAA facility)?
10 nm
Separation standards apply to aircraft controlled by designated air search radars that rotate in excess of ____ rpm.
7
Aircraft operating at 50 miles or more from the monitoring antenna shall be separated by a minimum of _____miles with Radar rotating in excess of 7 RPM.
5
Aircraft operating within 50 miles of the monitoring antenna, and not within 10 miles on a designated
approach, shall be separated by a minimum of ____ miles with radar rotating in excess of 7 RPM.
3
Aircraft on a designated approach or established downwind and inside of 10 miles shall be separated by
a minimum of ___miles
2
Aircraft established on final within 5 miles shall be separated by a minimum of ______miles?
1-1/2 miles.
Aircraft operating within 50 miles of the monitoring antenna, and not within 10 miles on a designated
approach, shall be separated by a minimum of ____ miles with RADAR rotating at 7RPM?
5
Aircraft provided positive separation via nonradar control, utilizing a published approach/departure, shall
be separated by a minimum of ___ minutes ( ____miles separation when using DME).
2/5
Jet and turboprop aircraft operating at altitudes up to and including FL 290 shall be separated by ______ feet vertically.
1000
Aircraft operating at altitudes above FL 290 shall be separated by ______ feet vertically
2000
Reduced Vertical Separation
Minimum (RVSM) equipped aircraft may use ______foot vertical separation minimum above FL 290.
1000
Helicopters and tiltrotor aircraft in conversion mode shall be separated by ____feet vertically.
500
Fixed wing and tiltrotor
aircraft in airplane mode shall be separated from helicopters and tiltrotor aircraft in conversion mode by ____feet vertically.
1000
Vertical separation may be reduced to ____ feet inside of 12 nm.
800
AATCC Primary Control Frequencies?
Ship to shore/AATCC Frequencies/Helicopter Direction
AATCC Secondary Frequencies?
Guard/Land Launch/Air Tactical
CIC/TACC Primary Control Frequencies?
Tactical Frequencies/Guard
CIC/TACC Secondary Frequencies?
Ship to Shore
PriFly Primary Frequencies?
Land launch
Primary Secondary Frequencies?
Guard/Departure/Ship-to-shore
Radio circuits used for the control of air traffic shall be recorded ______ during hours of operation.
Continuously
First step once lost aircraft contact is regained?
Check Fuel State
What are the Five Categories of Emergencies?
- Communications failure.
- NAVAIDs failure.
- Aircraft systems failure.
- Crewmember injury or illness.
- Ship system casualty
Which Helicopter Readiness condition is when the helicopter shall be spotted for immediate launch with rotor blades spread, aircrew and mission-required
personnel in the helicopter?
Condition I/Alert 5
Which Helicopter Readiness condition is when Main rotor blades may be folded and the helicopter need not be in position for immediate launch; however, it must
be parked so as to allow direct access to a suitable launch spot?
Condition III/Alert 30
Which Helicopter Readiness condition is when flight crews and mission-required personnel are not required
to be in the helicopter, and rotor blades may be folded or tied down?
Condition II/Alert 15
Which Helicopter Readiness condition is when minor maintenance may be performed if no restoration delay is involved?
Condition IV/Alert 60
Which Fixed-Wing Readiness condition is when aircraft shall be spotted in the launch position or in a position that affords a clear route to the launch position?
Condition I/Alert 5
Which Fixed-Wing Readiness condition is when flight crews are not required in the aircraft but be on the flight deck near their aircraft or inside the island structure at the flight deck level?
Condition II/Alert 15
Which Fixed-Wing Readiness condition is when Flightcrews shall be in full flight gear, briefed, and standing by in the ready rooms or working spaces?
Condition III/Alert 30
Which Fixed-Wing Readiness condition is when minor maintenance may be performed on the aircraft if no delay in launch is involved?
Condition IV/Alert 60
How many parking spots for Aircraft are there on a LHD?
9
What does EMCON Stand for?
Emission Control
Lost Communications Procedures during departure?
continue climbout on assigned departure radial. Climb/descend to emergency marshal altitude, and proceed with emergency marshal
instructions
Lost Communications and DME Procedures During Departure?
- Continue briefed departure, utilizing DR to maintain appropriate arc until assigned departure radial is
reached. - Continue outbound on departure radial climbing to emergency marshal altitude, reverse course, proceed
inbound, and enter holding overhead in accordance with the TACAN/NDB overhead approach chart. Use
prebriefed emergency BRC to determine relative radial. - Conserve fuel, monitor auxiliary receiver and guard, and be alert for joinup.
- If joined by another aircraft, fly wing position to recovery.
- If not joined, commence NDB approach at EEAT
Lost Communications and NAVAIDS During Departure procedures?
- Continue prebriefed departure, utilizing DR to arc and intercept departure radial.
- Climb on departure to last assigned altitude.
- At altitude, utilize DR and hold, conserving fuel, and fly appropriate triangles in accordance with Flight
Information Handbook. - Attempt contact with ship utilizing survival radio on guard (243.0). Comply with AATCC instructions for
radar approach. Once in the approach, no further communication from pilot to ship shall be required, except
for further emergency or pertinent information. - If unable to contact ship, await joinup, and follow lead to recovery.
- Upon reaching bingo fuel with no joinup, execute bingo procedures for divert field utilizing DR.
Primary responsibility for adherence to assigned departure rests with?
the pilot
What are the 8 Marshal Instructions information AATCC provides to inbound aircraft in the marshal pattern?
- Case Recovery.
- Type approach.
- Expected final bearing.
- Weather and altimeter.
- Marshal instructions.
- Expected approach time.
- Approach button.
- Time check
What are the 7 Aircraft Initial Voice Check-In reports?
- Call sign.
- Position (bearing and range relative to the ship).
- Altitude.
- Fuel state (in hours and minutes for helicopter or pounds remaining for fixed wing) of the lowest aircraft in flight.
- Souls on board.
- Ordnance remaining (see Paragraph 5.12.1, Recovering with Ordnance).
- Other pertinent information.
This approach is used as a last resort when available equipment will not allow normal procedures to be utilized or when the ship cannot be visually acquired utilizing normal procedures and ditching is considered imminent?
Smokelight Approach
During Smokelight Approach, the aircraft is positioned __ miles astern of the ship and __ feet at ___knots?
2/100/40
How often are smoke lights dropped during a smokelight approach?
Every 15 Seconds
