105 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the actual name of the 105?

A

CV NATOPS Manual

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2
Q

What is the CCZ and who is responsible for it?

A

The Carrier Control Zone (CCZ) is the airspace within a circular limit defined by a 5 mile horizontal radius from the carrier, extending upward from the surface to and including 2,500’ unless otherwise designated for special operations and is under the cognizance of the Air Officer during VMC.

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3
Q

What is the CCA?

A

The Carrier Control Area is that circular airspace within a radius of 50 nm around the carrier, extending upward from the surface to infinity, under control of CATCC except for those aircraft operating under control of the Air Officer during Case I and II operations.

Note: The radius and height may be limited because of adjacent controlled airspace.

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4
Q

List the Alert Response Requirements and their associated Readiness Condition Requirement.

A

Alert 5 = Condition I
Alert 15 = Condition II
Alert 30 = Condition III
Alert 60 = Condition IV

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5
Q

What is the Note associated with Helicopter Readiness Condition II?

A

Alert SAR helicopter in Condition II may be folded provided the primary SAR helicopter is airborne.

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6
Q

Explain Helicopter Readiness Condition I.

A

The aircraft shall be spotted for immediate launch, with rotor blades spread, starting equipment plugged in, and a LSE, starting crewman, Plane Captain, and required plane handlers standing by.

Unless otherwise directed by the Aircraft Handling Officer, at least 4 tiedowns shall be attached to the aircraft.

The flightcrew shall be ready for launch in all respects with all personnel equipment attached and adjusted as in flight.

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7
Q

Explain Helicopter Readiness Condition II.

A

Same conditions as Helicopter Readiness Condition I, except that flight crews shall standby in the readyrooms.

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8
Q

Explain Helicopter Readiness Condition III.

A

Main rotor blades may be folded and the aircraft need not be in position for immediate launch; however it must be parked so as to allow direct access to a suitable launch spot.

A towbar shall be attached to the aircraft and a specific LSE, tractor driver, handling crew, and starting crewman shall be designated and assigned to each helicopter.

These personnel must be thoroughly briefed so that when the order is given to prepare to launch, the aircraft can be safely and expeditiously moved into position and readied for launch.

Flightcrews should be briefed for the launch and be standing by in a designated location.

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9
Q

Describe Helicopter Readiness Condition IV.

A

This is similar to Helicopter Readiness Condition III, except that minor maintenance may be performed on the aircraft if no delay in launch is involved.

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10
Q

When the _____ passes the word to standby to launch Condition I helicopters, _____ shall be _____ without further instructions; however, _____ and _____ shall be positively controlled by PriFly.

A

Air Officer, engines, started, rotor engagement, launch.

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11
Q

What are weather minimums for Case I?

A

Weather conditions are at or better than 3,000’ ceilings and 5 miles visibility within the carrier control zone.

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12
Q

What are weather minimums for Case II in the 105?

A

Aircraft may encounter instrument conditions during the descent, but visual conditions of at least 1,000’ ceilings and 5 miles visibility exist at the ship.

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13
Q

What are the 105 weather minimums for Case III?

A

Weather below Case II minimums or during anytime from 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise.

Case III may be modified by OTC or CAG.

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14
Q

What are the 105 Helicopter Case III Departure Procedures?

A

After takeoff climb straight ahead to an altitude range of either:
a. 150’ to 300’ (NVD aided)
b. 200’ to 300’ (unaided)
c. As assigned by CATCC.

At 3 nm, arc to intercept the assigned departure radial.

Once outside 12 nm, commence a climb to the departure altitude.

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15
Q

What is the consideration for helicopters during fixed-wing case III operations in the 105?

A

Weather conditions permitting, helicopters may be assigned Case I procedures concurrently with Case II and Case III fixed-wing aircraft operations.

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16
Q

What is the definition of ‘Night Time’ in the 105?

A

The period of time from 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise.

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17
Q

What are the recovery procedures for Transient Helicopters?

A

Transient helicopters approaching the carrier for landing shall contact marshal control at least 25 nm out.

Transient helicopters inbound for CVN should expect to proceed to starboard delta for recovery unless otherwise directed.

During Case III, marshal control will clear helicopters to CV-3 holding or starboard delta as required.

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18
Q

Explain Helicopter Holding as described in the 105.

A

Helicopters shall proceed to a holding pattern as specified by tower for recovery.

If one is not specified, they shall hold clear of the avoid areas depicted on the keyhole diagram in such a manner that will expedite recovery.

Unless previously briefed to the contrary, when more than one helicopter is operating in the holding pattern, all helicopters shall fly a right-hand pattern at 300’ while maintaining 80 knots.

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19
Q

What are the 4 degrees of control?

A

NAMP
1. Nonradar
2. Advisory
3. Monitor
4. Positive

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20
Q

When shall Positive Control be utilized?

A
  1. Ceilings less than 500’.
  2. Visibility is 1 mile or less.
  3. Between 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes before sunrise (except as modified by OTC/Carrier CO).
  4. During mandatory letdown in thunderstorm areas.
  5. In situations where weather phenomena might cause difficulty to pilots.
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21
Q

Define Red Light.

A

The local time at which a helicopter will no longer be SAR capable and has approximately 30 minutes of flight time remaining.

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22
Q

What fuel state do you expect to be at when you reach Red Light?

A

1,100 lbs + fuel required to transit

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23
Q

Does Red Light ever change?

A

Yes, it is dependent on your fuel burn rate. You should make a radio call to the controlling agency when there is a significant change to it or when you reach it.

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24
Q

What is the actual name of the Keyhole Diagram?

A

Helicopter Restrictions During Fixed-Wing Launch/Recovery

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25
Q

Explain the Lost Communications procedure for helicopters in the 105.

A

Helicopters experiencing lost communications should remain at or below 300’, arc to enter the starboard delta, and then indicate that:

‘I require an immediate landing’:
Fly close aboard starboard quarter with flood/search/landing lights on.

or

‘I desire to land, but can wait for the next recovery’:
Fly by/hover on the starboard side of the ship, low and close aboard, with navigation lights bright/flashing and anti-collision lights on.

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26
Q

Can FCFs be conducted during a cycle?

A

Yes, by utilizing either Spot 2 or Spot 7.

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27
Q

The designated plane guard helicopter is “on station” when operating within _____ (day) or _____ (night) of the carrier.

A

20 nm, 10 nm

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28
Q

Draw and describe the Starboard Delta per the 105.

A
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29
Q

Draw the CVN flight deck with spots per the 105.

A
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30
Q

Draw and label the CVN flight deck gouge locations.

A
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31
Q

Which spots are non-precision?

A

Spots 1 and 9.

32
Q

Which spots are precision?

A

Spots 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8.

33
Q

Which spot is the primary dearming area?

34
Q

Hot refueling operations shall not be conducted to Spot _____.

35
Q

Left seat slide-in visual recoveries are not recommended to Spot _____.

36
Q

Spot _____ shall remain vacant during V-22 launches and recoveries to Spot _____.

37
Q

Left seat slide-in visual recoveries are prohibited to Spot _____.

38
Q

Spot _____ is the secondary dearming area.

39
Q

Only spots that afford _____ shall be used for night helicopter launches.

A

Visual reference to the deck

40
Q

Spot _____ is the recommended recovery spot for a hung dome.

41
Q

On Spot _____, personnel shall not be permitted to enter the rotor arc of an engaged helicopter when fixed wing aircraft are on tension on catapults 3 and 4.

42
Q

Draw and label the Keyhole diagram.

43
Q

Where would you take an aircraft with hung crew served weapons?

A

Either spot 7 or spot 9; using a +15° offset for spot 9.

44
Q

No helicopter operations to Spot _____ with aircraft on tension on catapults 3 and 4.

45
Q

Night and/or IMC operations to Spot _____ with forward firing ordnance should be avoided.

46
Q

Which spots should be avoided with aircraft turning in the six-pack?

47
Q

Starboard approaches and departures are prohibited to Spot _____.

48
Q

What should be done on/near the landing spot for a hung dome situation?

A

Consideration should be given to securing a mattress or padding to the deck either on or adjacent to the landing spot with tie down straps.

49
Q

For a hung dome recovery to the CVN, consideration should be given to placing the LSE _____.

A

In vultures row to provide signals for placing the dome on the deck.

50
Q

What does “Charlie Spot 5” mean?

A

The aircraft is clear to land Spot 5.

51
Q

What does “Expect Charlie Spot 5” mean?

A

This is given with the anticipation that the first aircraft will be cleared to land Spot 5 upon arrival.

52
Q

What does “Charlie 5” mean?

A

Aircraft shall enter the landing pattern with the lead aircraft planning to be over the deck at the expiration of 5 minutes.

53
Q

Describe CVN Flight Deck Uniforms.

54
Q

Who is the ATO?

A

The Air Transfer Officer (ATO) is the person responsible to the Air Operations Officer for the safe and orderly flow of passengers, mail, and cargo on and off carriers by aircraft.

55
Q

Who is Red Crown and who are they in the CSG?

A

Red Crown is the ship responsible for defense of the force against air and ballistic missile defense.

They will have Whiskey (Air and Missile Defense Commander) on board.

56
Q

Who is Strike and who are they in the CSG?

A

Strike on on the CVN, they are the Strike Warfare Commander (Papa)’s watch team. They are responsible for planning, directing, monitoring, and accessing the CWC force airborne power projection ashore.

57
Q

When you check in with Strike, what are they checking?

A

IFF Mode 3 and Mode 5.

58
Q

Who is Zulu and where are they in the CSG?

A

Zulu is the Sea Combat Commander, Zulu and their watch team are on the carrier and are responsible for ASW and SUW.

59
Q

Does “call the ball” apply to helicopters?

A

Yes, during Case III recoveries, the approach shall be flown as directed by CATCC until the pilot acquires visual contact with the optical landing aids, at which time the pilot will “call the ball”.

60
Q

What are the CVN weather minimums?

A

200’ ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility.

61
Q

Can we transport passengers to/from the CVN with the GAU-21 installed?

A

A GAU-21 installed in an MH-60R presents an egress hazard.

MH-60Rs in this configuration shall remove the GAU-21 and swing arm before transporting passengers.

62
Q

What are the considerations of conducting SAR with a GAU-21 per the 105?

A

A GAU-21 installed in an MH-60R does not preclude SAR operations, but it does present an obstacle to the crewman due to its size and location in the cabin door.

To the maximum extent practicable, the GAU-21 and swing arm should be removed before tasking an MH-60R in this configuration to conduct Plane Guard.

63
Q

Who is in charge of all aircraft movements during the day? Night?

A

Aircraft Handling Officer
Day = ACHO
Night = NACHO

64
Q

What is the communications flow for arriving to the carrier?

A
  1. Red Crown
  2. Strike
  3. CATTC (as required)
  4. Tower (PriFly)
65
Q

What is the communications flow for leaving the carrier?

A
  1. Tower (PriFly) / Departure
  2. Strike
  3. Redcrown
66
Q

Who is normally on button 18?

A

An MH-60R representative.

67
Q

At what distance do Close Proximity Operations come into effect?

A

Close proximity prelaunch procedures shall include an exchange of air plans and prelaunch notification by aviation-capable ships and acknowledgement by the CVN/LHA/LHD prior to any flight operations within 10 nm of the CVN/LHA/LHD.

68
Q

Is the ship’s BRC in magnetic or true?

69
Q

What are the SAA SAR requirements?

A

SAR Assist Assets are Condition III support (30 minute response).

They must be airborne within 50 nm and capable of providing 30 minutes of on-station time.

70
Q

Describe the Charlie Pattern.

71
Q

Describe the Port Delta Pattern.

72
Q

What does “Snuggle up” mean?

A

Helicopters directed to “snuggle up” should operate within 1 nm of the ship and expect to land within the next 5 minutes.

73
Q

What does “Charlie” mean?

A

Helicopters directed to “Charlie” are cleared to cross the stern (if required) and to commence an approach to the designated landing spot.

Helicopters shall sequence themselves for landing in order.

74
Q

Who determines the case launch and/or recovery?

A

The Air Officer.

75
Q

What are the HEFOE codes?

76
Q

As Plane Guard, how often do you need to conduct a radio check with CATCC?

A

Every 20 minutes during Case III.