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SBA guy > 101-113 > Flashcards

101-113 Flashcards

1
Q

Antimotility drug in diarrhoea?

A

Loperamide

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2
Q

If systemically unwell with diarrhoea, caused by campylobacter, what antibiotics?

A

Macrolides

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3
Q

If systemically unwell with diarrhoea, caused by salmonella or shigella, what antibiotics?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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4
Q

If systemically unwell with diarrhoea, caused by typhoid, what antibiotics?

A

Ceftriaxone- cephalosporin

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5
Q

If systemically unwell with diarrhoea, caused by C. Diff, what antibiotics?

A

Metronidazole

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6
Q

If a child is unwell with diarrhoea, recently started play school, what is infectious agent?

A

Rotavirus

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7
Q

If an elderly person has recently been treated with antibiotics and get’s diarrhoea what is likely causative agent?

A

C. difficile

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8
Q

If someone has got traveller’s diarrhoea, (Europe, Latin America) what is likely causative agent?

A

ETEC

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9
Q

If diarrhoea looks like rice water, what is it caused by?

A

Cholera

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10
Q

If diarrhoea is fatty stools, what is causative agent?

A

Giardia lamblia

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11
Q

If someone gets diarrhoea haven eaten rice, what is the likely causative agent?

A

Bacillus cereus

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12
Q

If someone gets diarrhoea after eating chicken what is likely causative agent?

A

Campylobacter (2-5 days) or salmonella (2 days)

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13
Q

What immunoglobulin is secreted early in the immune response?

A

Ig M

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14
Q

What is an example of hypersensitivity type 1?

A

Allergies

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15
Q

What is an example of hypersensitivity type 2?

A

Cytotoxic - Myasthenia gravis

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16
Q

What is an example of hypersensitivity type 3?

A

Immune complex- RA

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17
Q

What is an example of hypersensitivity type 4?

A

Delayed response- contact dermatitis

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18
Q

What WBCs appears in largest numbers at infection onset?

A

Neutrophils

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19
Q

What WBCs release histamine?

A

Basophil

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20
Q

What WBCs produce antibodies?

A

B lymphocytes

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21
Q

Which interleukin acts as a pyrogen?

A

Interleukin 1

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22
Q

Take a breath in and out normally. What is this called?

A

Tidal volume- 500ml

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23
Q

Take a normal breath in. Breath in more, what is the extra bit called?

A

Inspiratory reserve volume

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24
Q

Take a normal breath out. Breath out more. What is this extra bit called?

A

Expiratory reserve volume

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25
Q

Take deepest breath in and then breath out as much as possible. What is this total called?

A

Vital capacity (IRV+tidal volume+ERV)

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26
Q

When you breath out fully what volume do you reach?

A

Residual capacity

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27
Q

How to measure the anatomical dead space?

A

Nitrogen washout/Fowler’s method

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28
Q

How to measure the physiological dead space?

A

Bohr equation

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29
Q

How to measure the functional residual capacity?

A

Helium dilution

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30
Q

How to treat COPD?

A

SABA then LABA then inhaled corticosteroids

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31
Q

Name a short acting bronchodilator?

A

SABA (beta 2 agonist)- salbutamol, SAMA (muscarinic antagonist)- Iprtropium

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32
Q

Name a long acting bronchodilator?

A

LABA - Salmeterol

LAMA - Tiotropium

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33
Q

Name an inhaled corticosteroid?

A

Beclomethasone. Used in exacerbations

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34
Q

Patient presents with miosis (constricted pupils) and a low respiratory rate. What is likely overdose agent?

A

Heroin - codeine constricts pupils and lowers RR

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35
Q

What antidote for opiod overdose?

A

Naloxone

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36
Q

Overdose, with vomiting, tinnitus, and hyperventilation. Likely overdose agent?

A

Aspirin - causes metabolic acidosis

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37
Q

Overdose, hypotonia, hyporeflexia, hypotension. Likely overdose agent?

A

Lorazepam

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38
Q

Mydriasis (pupil dilated), delirium, melting (hyperthermia_, agitation. What overdose agent?

A

MDMA

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39
Q

Antidote for paracetamol overdose?

A

N acetyl cysteine

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40
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumazenil

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41
Q

Antidote for beta blockers overdose?

A

Glucagon

42
Q

Antidote for iron overdose?

A

Desferrioxamine

43
Q

Antidote for digoxin overdose?

A

Digoxin specific antibodies

44
Q

Patients presents with jaundice, abdominal pain and nausea/vomiting, taken on overdose. What agent?

A

Paracetamol

45
Q

What is the treatment for a simple pneumothorax?

A

Aspirate with a 16-18G cannula

46
Q

What is the treatment for a tension pneumothorax?

A

Chest drain (needle thoracotomy)

47
Q

Causes of transudate pleural effusion?

A

Heart, liver, renal failure

48
Q

Causes of exudate pleural effusion?

A

Infection, malignancy

49
Q

Groin to loin pain, lateral pain can radiate to back, colicky pain, can’t get comfortable?

A

Renal colic

50
Q

What investigations in renal colic?

A

Urine microscopy to rule out infections. Test urine for microscopic haematuria (90+ in renal colic). Spiral non contract CT -imagining of choice

51
Q

How to treat renal colic?

A
  1. Analgesia. If stone’s smaller than 5mm will pass spontaneously. More than 5mm might need medical expulsive therapy - 2. calcium channel blocker or alpha blocker- nifedipine or tamsulosin. If that doesn’t work 3. shockwave therapy- EWSL
52
Q

What urine dipstick findings in UTIs?

A

+ve for nitrites, WBC. Clinical definition is 1000 organisms per ml of freshly voided urine

53
Q

What antibiotics in UTIs?

A

Trimethoprim (not in 1st trimester), Nitrofurantoin

54
Q

What is the normal QRS duration?

A

120ms

55
Q

What is normal PR interval?

A

120-200ms

56
Q

What is 1st degree heart block?

A

Regular, but PR interval is greater than 200ms

57
Q

What is 2nd degree heart block, Mobitz type 1?

A

PR interval gets progressively longer then you get a non-conducted P wave

58
Q

What is 2nd degree heart block, Mobitz type 2?

A

2 P waves for every 1 QRS complex

59
Q

What is 3rd degree heart block?

A

Complete heart block. No association between P waves and QRS complex

60
Q

What is mean arterial pressure dependent on?

A

Systemic vascular resistance (aka total peripheral resistance)

61
Q

What does the ectoderm end up forming?

A

External structures- epidermis, retina and nervous system

62
Q

What does the mesoderm end up forming?

A

Muscle, CV system, skeleton, reproductive organs

63
Q

What does the endoderm end up forming?

A

GI system and respiratory epithelium

64
Q

What should a child be able to do by 12 months?

A

Walk

65
Q

Penetrance of BRCA gene?

A

60-80%

66
Q

Penetrance of FAP colon cancer?

A

100% if polyps not detected

67
Q

What is adrenarche?

A

Pubic and axillary hair

68
Q

What is gonardarche?

A

Testicle and ovary development

69
Q

What is thelarche?

A

Breast development

70
Q

What investigations would you do in GORD?

A

Endoscopy to look for epithelial change. 24 hour pH study. Barium swallow for hiatus hernia

71
Q

What type of ulcer gets worse during and after a meal?

A

Gastric

72
Q

What type of ulcer gets better during and after a meal?

A

Duodenal

73
Q

How to test for H. pylori infection?

A

breath test- (CLO test, urease test, carbon 13 test)

74
Q

What is treatment for H. pylori infection?

A

Triple therapy- Omeprazole, Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin. Use metronidazole in cases of penicillin allergy

75
Q

What nerve has been compressed with wrist drop (commonly called Saturday night palsy)?

A

Radial nerve

76
Q

What nerve has been trapped with carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Median nerve (loss of wrist flexion, thenar wasting, loss of sensation)

77
Q

What nerve has been compressed with loss of sensation of medial fingers, with hypothenar wasting?

A

Ulnar nerve

78
Q

What nerve has been compressed in loss of sensation over lateral thigh to knee?

A

Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh- tight trousers syndrome

79
Q

What nerve has been compressed with a foot drop?

A

Common perineal nerve (around head of fibula)

80
Q

Patient presents with rapid onset muscle weakness, previous infection, ascend polyneuropathy, what Is likely cause?

A

Guillain Barre Syndrome - important to do spirometry to check lung function. Treat with IV immunoglobulins

81
Q

Patient presents with fatiguability, drooping of eyelids, dysphagia, quiet voice, what is likely cause?

A

Myasthenia gravis - treat with Pyridostigmine (inhibits acetylcholinesterase)

82
Q

Patient presents with gait disturbance before drooping eyes. Reflexes get better with increased testing. What is the cause?

A

Lambert Eaton syndrome. Antibodies against calcium channels

83
Q

Patient presents with hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy. Foot drop, hammer toes (always curled) inverted champagne bottle sign, and PMP22 marker. What is the cause?

A

Charcot Marie Tooth

84
Q

What is distribution of diabetic neuropathy?

A

Glove and stocking

85
Q

What is the effect of high leptin levels?

A

Lower appetite

86
Q

What is the effect of high ghrelin levels?

A

Increased appetite

87
Q

What does the foregut cover?

A

Mouth to duodenum

88
Q

What does the midgut cover?

A

Small intestine, caecum, ascending colon, 2/3 transverse colon

89
Q

What does the hindgut cover?

A

1/3 transverse colon, rectum, descending colon, sigmoid colon

90
Q

What is blood supply to the foregut?

A

Coeliac trunk

91
Q

What is blood supply to the midgut?

A

Superior mesenteric artery

92
Q

What is the supply to the hindgut?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

93
Q

What muscle fibres would suit a marathon runner?

A

Slow twitch, type 1.

94
Q

Red muscle fibres with high levels of glycogen are what type?

A

Type 2a - high myoglobin so are red, lots of glycogen so are fast

95
Q

What muscles are supplied by the median nerve?

A

LOAF - lateral lumbricals, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis

96
Q

What artery supplies the superficial palmar arch?

A

Primarily ulnar artery

97
Q

Which artery supplies the deep palmar arch?

A

Primarily the radial artery

98
Q

What are the interossei muscles supplied by?

A

Ulnar artery (superficial palmar arch, palmar metacarpal artery, dorsal metacarpal artery)

99
Q

What is the primary pathological process in early primary OA?

A

Disorganisation of collagen matrix in cartilage

100
Q

What are features of OA on X-ray?

A

Loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral cysts, subchondral sclerosis

SBA guy (2 decks)

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