1000 Flashcards

1
Q

A network that does not have servers - so each device simultaneously functions as both a client and a server to all other devices connected to the network.

A

Peer-To-Peer (P2P) Network

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2
Q

A policy that outlines how the organization uses personal information it collects.

A

Privacy Policy

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3
Q

A written document that states how an organization plans to protect the company’s information technology assets.

A

Security Policy

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4
Q

Grouping individuals and organization into cluster or groups based on a like affiliation.

A

Social Networking

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5
Q

Web sites that facilitate linking individuals with common interests like hobbies - religion - politics - or school or work contacts.

A

Social Networking Sites

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6
Q

A type of action that has the potential to cause harm.

A

Threat

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7
Q

A person or element that has the power to carry out a threat.

A

Threat Agent

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8
Q

A flaw or weakness that allows a threat agent to bypass security.

A

Vulnerability

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9
Q

The likelihood that the threat agent will exploit the vulnerability.

A

Risk

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10
Q

An event that - in the beginning - is considered to be risk yet turns out not to be.

A

False Positive

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11
Q

List and describe the 3 strategies for controlling risks.

A

1- privilege management- is the process of assigning and revoking privileges to objects; it covers the procedures of managing object authorizations
2- change management- refers to a methodology for making modifications and keeping track of those changes
3- incident management- is defined as the “framework” and functions required to enable incident response and incident handling within an organization.

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12
Q

A subject’s access level over an object - such as a user’s ability to pen a payroll file.

A

Privilege

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13
Q

Periodic reviewing of a subject’s privileges over an object - in which the objective is to determine if the subject has the correct privileges.

A

Privilege Auditing

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14
Q

What is a CMT and what is is duties?

A

Change Management Team
1- review proposed changes
2- ensure risk and impact of the planned changes are understood
3- recommend approval - disapproval - deferral - withdrawal of a requested change
4- communicate proposed and approved changes to coworkers

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15
Q

The planning - coordination - communications - and planning functions that are needed in order to resolve an incident in an efficient manner.

A

Incident Handling

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16
Q

The components required to identify - analyze - and contain an incident.

A

Incident Response

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17
Q

What are the functions of an organization’s information security policy?

A

1- it can be an overall intention and direction. A security policy is a vehicle for communicating an organization’s information security culture and acceptable information security behavior.
2- it details specific risks and how to address them - and provide controls that executives can use to direct employee behavior.
3- it can help to create a security-aware organization culture
4- it can help to ensure that employee behavior is directed and monitored to ensure compliance with security requirements.

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18
Q

What must an effective security policy balance?

A

Trust and Control

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19
Q

What are the 3 approaches to trust?

A

1- Trust everyone all of the time- easiest model to enforce because there are not restrictions; impractical because it leaves system vulnerable to attacks
2- Trust no one at any time- most restrictive model; impractical because few employees would work for an organization that did not trust them
3- Trust some people some of the time- this approach exercises caution in the amount of trust given; access is provided as needed with technical controls to ensure the trust is not violated.

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20
Q

A collection of requirements specific to the system or procedure that must be met by everyone.

A

Standard

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21
Q

A collection of suggestions that should be implemented.

A

Guideline

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22
Q

A document that outlines specific requirements or rules that must be met.

A

Policy

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23
Q

What is the three-phase cycle in the development and maintenance of a security policy?

A

1- vulnerability assessment
2- create the security policy using information from risk management study
3- compliance monitoring and evaluation

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24
Q

What does a vulnerability assessment attempt to identify?

A

1- asset identification (what needs to be protected)
2- threat identification (what the pressures are against it)
3- vulnerability appraisal (how susceptible the current protection is)
4- risk assessment (what damages could result from the threats)
5- risk mitigation (what to do about it)

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25
Q

What MUST a security policy do?

A

1- be implementable and enforceable
2- be concise and easy to understand
3- balance protection with productivity

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26
Q

What SHOULD a security policy do?

A

1- state reasons the policy is necessary
2- describe what is covered by the policy
3- outline how violations will be handled

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27
Q

Ideally - who should comprise the team who designs a security policy?

A

1- Senior level administrator
2- member of management who can enforce the policy
3- member of the legal staff
4- representative from the user community

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28
Q

What is due care?

A

is the obligations that are imposed on owners and operators of assets to exercise reasonable care of the assets and take necessary precautions to protect them. It is the care that a reasonable person would exercise under circumstances.

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29
Q

Defines requirements for using cryptography.

A

Acceptable encryption policy

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30
Q

Established guidelines for effectively reducing the threat of computer viruses on the organization’s network and computers.

A

Anti-virus policy

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31
Q

Outlines the requirements and provides the authority for an information security team to conduct audits and risk assessments - investigate incidents - to ensure conformance to security policies - or to monitor user activity.

A

Audit vulnerability scanning policy

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32
Q

Prescribes that no e-mail will be automatically forwarded to an external destination without prior approval from the appropriate manager or director.

A

Automatically forwarded e-mail policy

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33
Q

Defines requirements for storing and retrieving database usernames and passwords.

A

Database credentials coding policy

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34
Q

Defines standards for all networks and equipment located in the DMZ.

A

Demilitarized zone security policy

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35
Q

Creates standards for using corporate e-mail.

A

E-mail policy

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36
Q

Helps employees determine what information sent or received by e-mail should be retained and for how long.

A

E-mail retention policy

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37
Q

Defines the requirements for third-party organizations to access the organization’s networks.

A

Extranet policy

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38
Q

Establishes criteria for classifying and securing the organization’s information in a manner appropriate to its level of security.

A

Information sensitivity policy

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39
Q

Outlines standards for minimal security configuration for routers and switches.

A

Router security policy

40
Q

Creates standards for minimal security configuration for servers.

A

Server security policy

41
Q

Established requirements for Remote Access IPSec Virtual Private Network (VPN) connections to the organization’s network.

A

VPN security policy

42
Q

Defines standards for wireless systems used to connect to the organization’s networks.

A

Wireless communication policy

43
Q

What policy is considered to be the most important information security policy?

A

Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

44
Q

Which policy is also called a PII (personally identifiable information) policy?

A

Privacy Policy

45
Q

A policy that addresses security as it relates to human resources.

A

Security-Related Human Resource Policy

46
Q

A statement used in a security policy that states any investigation into suspicious employee conduct will examine all material facts.

A

Due diligence

47
Q

A policy that addresses how passwords are created and managed.

A

Password Management and Complexity Policy

48
Q

A policy that addresses the disposal of resources that are considered confidential.

A

Disposal and Destruction Policy

49
Q

A person’s fundamental beliefs and principles used ot define what is good - right - and just.

A

Values

50
Q

List the 3 classification of values.

A

1- moral (fairness - truth - justice - love)
2- pragmatic (efficiency - thrift - health - patience)
3- aesthetic (attractive - soft - cold)

51
Q

Values that are attributed to a system of beliefs that help the individual distinguish right from wrong.

A

Morals

52
Q

The study of what a group of people understand to be good and right behavior and how people make those judgements.

A

Ethics

53
Q

A written code of conduct intended to be a central guide and reference for employees in support of day-to-day decision making.

A

Ethics Policy

54
Q

Name 3 awareness and training topics.

A

1- compliance
2- secure user practices
3- awareness of threats

55
Q

Active Internet connections that download a specific file that is available through a tracker.

A

BitTorrent

56
Q

The collective pieces of a file downloaded from a BitTorrent.

A

Swarm

57
Q

Which learning style do information technology professionals tend to fall in?

A

Kinesthetic

58
Q

A symmetric cipher that was approved by the NIST in late 2000 as a replacement for DES.

A

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

59
Q

Procedures based on a mathematical formula; used to encrypt data.

A

Algorithm

60
Q

Encryption that uses two mathematically related keys.

A

Asymmetric Cryptographic Algorithm

61
Q

A cipher that manipulates an entire block of plaintext at one time.

A

Block Cipher

62
Q

A block cipher that operates on 64-bit blocks and can have a key length from 32 to 448 bits.

A

Blowfish

63
Q

Data that has been encrypted.

A

Ciphertext

64
Q

Unencrypted data.

A

Cleartext

65
Q

The science of transforming information into a secure form while it is being transmitted or stored so that unauthorized persons cannot access it.

A

Cryptography

66
Q

A symmetric block cipher that uses 56-bit key and encrypts data in 64-bit blocks.

A

Data Encryption Standard (DES)

67
Q

The process of changing ciphertext into plaintext.

A

Decryption

68
Q

An electronic verification of the sender.

A

Digital Signature

69
Q

An algorithm that uses elliptic curves instead of prime numbers to compute keys.

A

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)

70
Q

The process of changing plaintext to ciphertext.

A

Encryption

71
Q

Free and open-source software that is commonly used to encrypt and decrypt e-mail messages.

A

GNU Privacy Guard (GPG)

72
Q

A secure cryptographic processor.

A

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

73
Q

The unique digital fingerprint created by a hashing algorithm.

A

Hash

74
Q

A variation of a hash that encrypts the hash with a shared secret key before transmitting it.

A

Hashed Message Authentication Code (HMAC)

75
Q

The process for creating a unique digital fingerprint signature for a set of data.

A

Hashing

76
Q

A mathematical value entered into the algorithm to produce ciphertext.

A

Key

77
Q

A common hash algorithm of several different versions.

A

Message Digest (MD)

78
Q

A revision of MD4 that is designed to address it weaknesses.

A

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

79
Q

The process of proving that a user performed an action.

A

Nonrepudiation

80
Q

A password hash for Microsoft Windows systems that is no longer recommended for use.

A

NTLM (New Technology LAN Manager) Hash

81
Q

An updated version of NTLM that uses HMAC with MD5.

A

NTLMv2 (New Technology LAN Manager Version 2) Hash

82
Q

Using a unique truly random key to create ciphertext.

A

One-Time Pad (OTP)

83
Q

Data input into an encryption algorithm.

A

Plaintext

84
Q

A commercial product that is commonly used to encrypt e-mail messages.

A

Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

85
Q

An asymmetric encryption key that does have to be protected.

A

Private Key

86
Q

Cryptographic algorithms that use a single key to encrypt and decrypt a message.

A

Private Key Cryptography

87
Q

An asymmetric encryption key that does not have to be protected.

A

Public Key

88
Q

Encryption that uses two mathematically related keys.

A

Public Key Cryptography

89
Q

An asymmetric cryptography that attempts to use the unusual and unique behavior of microscopic objects to enable users to securely develop and share keys.

A

Quantum Cryptography

90
Q

A hash algorithm that uses two different and independent parallel chains of computation and then combines the result at the end of the process.

A

RACE Integrity Primitives Evaluation Message Digest (RIPEMD)

91
Q

An RC stream cipher that will accept keys up to 128 bits in length.

A

RC4

92
Q

A family of cipher algorithms designed by Ron Rivest.

A

Rivest Cipher (RC)

93
Q

An asymmetric algorithm published in 1977 and patented by MIT in 1983.

A

RSA

94
Q

A secure hash algorithm that creates hash values of longer lengths than Message Digest (MD) algorithms.

A

Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)

95
Q

Hiding the existence of data within a text - audio - image - or video file.

A

Steganography

96
Q

An algorithm that takes one character and replaces it with one character.

A

Stream Cipher

97
Q

Encryption that uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt a message.

A

Symmetric Cryptographic Algorithm