100 Cases in Obstetrics & Gynaecology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the differentials for intrauterine bleeding?

A
  • Cervical malignancy
  • Cervical ectropion
  • Endocervical polyp
  • Atrophic vaginitis
  • Pregnancy
  • Irregular bleeding related to contraceptive pill
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2
Q

What are the common causes of hyperprolacinaemia?

A
  • Physiological (pregnancy, breastfeeding, stress)
  • Tumours
  • Idiopathic hypersecretion
  • Drugs
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Ectopic prolactin secretion
  • Chronic renal failure
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3
Q

Which drugs are associated with hyperprolactinaemia (due to DA antagonistic effects)?

A
  • Metoclopramide
  • Phenothiazines (e.g. chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine, thioridazine)
  • Reserpine
  • Methyldopa
  • Omeprazole, ranitidine, bendrofluazide (rare associations)
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4
Q

What investigations should be carried out when investigating infertility?

A
  1. Day 21 progesterone
  2. Semen analysis
  3. Tubal patency testing (laparoscopy and dye test, hysterosalpingogram or hysterosalpingoconstrastsonography [hyCoSy])
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5
Q

What are the causes of secondary amenorrhoea?

A

Hypothalamic:

  • Chronic illness
  • Anorexia
  • Excess exercise
  • Stress

Pituitary:

  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Breast-feeding

Ovarian:

  • Polycystic ovarian syndrome
  • Premature ovarian failure
  • Iatrogenic (e.g. chemotherapy, radiotherapy, oophorectomy)
  • Long-acting progresterone contraception

Uterine:

  • Pregnancy
  • Asherman’s syndrome
  • Cervical stenosis
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6
Q

What are the causes of post-menopausal bleeding?

A
  • Endometrial cancer (should be default suspected diagnosis until proven otherwise)
  • Endometrial/endocervical polyp
  • Endometrial hyperplasia
  • Atrophic vaginitis
  • Iatrogenic (e.g. anticoagulants, intrauterine device, hormone replacement therapy)
  • Infective (e.g. vaginal candidiasis)
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7
Q

What are the causes of dysmenorrhoea?

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Premenstral syndrome (PMS)
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Endometriosis
  • Adenomyosis
  • Submucosal peduculated fibroids
  • Iatrogenic (e.g. intrauterine contraceptive device [IUCD] or cervical stenosis after large-loop excision of the transformation zone [LLETZ])
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8
Q

What are the causes of post-coital bleeding in young women?

A
  • Cervical ectropion
  • Chlamydia or other STIs
  • Cervical malignancy
  • Complication of COCP
  • Endocervical polyp
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9
Q

What does an STI screen consist of?

A
  • Endocervical swab for chlamydia
  • Endocervical swab for gonorrhoea
  • High vaginal swab for trichomonas
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10
Q

What are the causes of recurrent miscarriages?

A
  • Parental chromosomal abnormalities (e.g. balanced translocation)
  • Antiphospholipid syndrome
  • Other forms of thrombophilia (e.g. activated protein C)
  • Uterine abnormality (intracavity fibroids, uterine septum)
  • Uncontrollable diabetes or hypothyroidism
  • Bacterial vaginosis (usually associated with pregnancy loss in 2nd trimester)
  • Cervical weakness (associated with 2nd trimester loss)
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11
Q

What hormonal tests should be performed when investigating female ovarian cycle integrity?

A
  • Day 2-5 LH - Normal range 1-11 IU/L
  • Day 2-5 FSH - Normal range 0.5-14.5 IU/L
  • Day 21 progesterone - Normal range >30 nmol/L
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12
Q

How should fluid overload secondary to transcervical resection procedures be managed?

A
  1. Monitor electrolytes and blood gases closely
  2. Fluid restriction
  3. Potassium supplementation if hypokalaemic
  4. ECG monitoring
  5. Diuretics
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13
Q

Under which social circumstances could an individual/couple regret a previous decision for sterilisation and thus should be discussed in detail?

A
  • Death of a child
  • Break-up of current relationship and desire to have children with a new partner
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14
Q

What technical aspects of female sterilisation needs to be considered before the procedure is carried out?

A
  • Sterilisation should be considered a permanent procedure. Success rate of reversal is <60%
  • Up to 10% of women who have been sterilised later regret their decision
  • Failure rate of laparoscopic sterilisation procedure is 2%
  • If there is pregnancy following sterilisation, there is significantly increased risk of ectopic
  • Complications associated with the procedure itself include: Bleeding, infection, injury to bowel or blad- der or blood vessels (3 in 1000 risk of significant harm), thrombosis and anaesthetic complications
  • There is a chance laparoscopic sterilisation may be technically impossible during operation, in which case it would need to be converted to open operation
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15
Q

What alternatives are there to laparoscopic female sterilisation?

A

Transcervical hysterscopically performed sterilisation involves insertion of flexible inserts into fallopian tube hysteroscopically, which induce fibrotic reactions that block the tubes within 3 months (need confirmation by hysterosalpingography)

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16
Q

What are the complications associated with insertion of IUD?

A
  • Uterine perforation
  • Device migration into peritoneal cavity
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Expulsion of device (usually with next period)
17
Q

What are the differentials for lost IUS thread?

A
  • Migration of device into peritoneal cavity
  • Expulsion of device
  • Initial misplacement if the device
18
Q

What are the causes of pelvic pain in early pregnancy?

A
  • Corpus luteum
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Miscarriage
  • Ovarian cyst
  • Urinary tract infection
  • Renal tract calculus
  • Constipation
  • Appendicitis
  • Unexplained pain
19
Q

In early pregnancy, what is the normal rate of hCG rise?

A

>66% every 48hrs

20
Q

What are the risks associated with using crack cocaine during pregnancy?

A

Crack cocaine use is associated with placental abruption and hence increased risk of perinatal death or prematurity. It is also known to cause intrauter- ine growth restriction by way of arterial vasoconstriction

21
Q

What are the risks associated with use of heroin in pregnancy?

A

Opiates are not teratogenic but are associated with intrauterine growth restric- tion and premature delivery.

22
Q

What are the risks associated with use of cannabis during pregnancy?

A

Cannabis is not known to have specific risks in pregnancy, but the tobacco use associated and the possibility of other associated drug use makes it an important risk factor.

23
Q

What are the risks associated with use of tobacco during pregnancy?

A

Tobacco use is associated with fetal growth restriction and low birth weight. There is also the risk of respiratory disease in the infant from passive smoking

24
Q

What are the components of the combined screening for Down’s syndrome?

A
  • Pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) - Decreased in Down’s
  • Nucal translucency - Increased in Down’s
  • Free beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) - Increased in Down’s
25
What are the diagnostic tests used for Down's syndrome in-utero?
**Chorionic villous sampling:** * Performed 11 to 14 weeks’ gestation * Ultrasound guidance * Sample of placental tissue collected generally using needle inserted through the abdominal wall * Small risk of miscarriage (about 1 per cent) associated with the procedure * Inconclusive result in 1 per cent of cases (so amniocentesis then required) **Amniocentesis:** * Performed any time from 15 to 16 weeks’ gestation * Ultrasound guidance * Sample of amniotic fluid collected using needle inserted through the abdominal wall * Small risk of miscarriage (about 1 per cent) **Cell-free fetal DNA:** * This recently developed non-invasive diagnostic test detects cell-free fetal DNA in a sample of maternal blood from 10 weeks’ gestation. It is used to identify the common trisomies (21, 18, 13) and fetal gender
26
What are the possible consequences of anaemia in pregnancy?
**Fetal:** * Low birth weight * Neonatal anaemia * Cognitive impairment **Maternal:** * Antenatal symptoms (fatigue, fainting, dizziness) * Peripartum complications (haemodynamic compromise from extensive blood loss)
27
What are the common causes of antepartum haemorrhage at term?
**Maternal blood:** * Bloody show (blood-stained cervical mucous from ruptured cervical vessels) * Bleeding placenta previa * Placental abruption * Cervical ectropion * Infection (e.g. candida) **Fetal blood:** * Vasa previa
28
What are the advantages of caesarean section compared to natural vaginal birth?
* Predictable timing of delivery (unless labour occurs prior to the planned date of caesarean) * Avoidance of the need for an emergency caesarean, which has higher complication rates * Avoidance of the possibility of birth trauma to the baby, although the studies do not show a difference in incidence of hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy or intra- cranial haemorrhage * Reduction in the chance of pelvic floor weakness (although this occurs in part due to pregnancy itself and therefore incontinence and prolapse are not completely avoided by caesarean section) * Lower rate of immediate postpartum haemorrhage * Lower rate of injury to the vagina and perineum
29
What are the disadvantages of caesarean section compared to natural vaginal birth?
* Increased rate of admission of baby to neonatal care unit * Greater pain following abdominal surgery * Possibility of intraperitoneal trauma to bowel or bladder at surgery * Increased risk of wound infection * Possibility of thrombosis (although this is minimized by the use of heparin prophylaxis) * Longer hospital admission * Increased likelihood of needing caesarean section in a subsequent pregnancy * Very small increase in chance of hysterectomy for postpartum haemorrhage or of cardiac arrest
30
What do recent guidelines state about offering caesarean section without medical grounds?
* Women who do not want to give birth naturally due to mental health or anxiety problems should be referred to specialist for support and counselling * If despite support and counselling the woman still insists on caesarean section, it may be offered
31
What are causes of stillbirths/intrauterine death?
**Maternal:** * Diabetes * Infection (e.g. parvovirus, listeria) * Thrombophilia (e.g.antiphospholipidsyndrome) **Fetal:** * Chromosomal abnormality (e.g.trisomy) * Other genetic abnormality (e.g. Gaucher’s disease) * Haemolytic disease * Cord incident (e.g. ‘knot’ in cord) **Placental:** * Placental abruption * Uteroplacental insufficiency (e.g. secondary to pre-eclampsia) * Postmaturity **Unexplained**
32
What is the definition of fetal bradycardia as seen in CTG and what are the possible causes?
* Fetal bradycardia on CTG is defined as fetal heart rate dropping \<100/min * Though in many cases the cause is unknown, common causes include: 1. Placental abruption 2. Uterine rupture 3. Maternal hypotension (e.g. after epidural insertion) 4. Bleeding vasa praevia
33
How should sudden decelerations seen on CTG be managed?
**Rule of 3:** 1. If the deceleration has not recovered at 3 min call for help. 2. If the deceleration has not recovered at 6 min transfer to theatre and prepare for immediate delivery. 3. If the deceleration has not recovered at 9 min deliver immediately by category one (‘crash’) caesarean section (if immediate instrumental vaginal delivery is not pos- sible). This will usually involve general anaesthetic unless an effective spinal anaesthetic is achievable by an experienced anaesthetist in a similar time.
34
What are the advantages and disadvantages of inducing labour when a fetus is overdue?
**Advantages:** * Reduced risk of stillbirth associated with prolonged pregnancy – the relative risk of stillbirth from induction of labour after 41 weeks (versus expectant management) is 0.30. * Some women express the wish to deliver soon after 40 weeks because of discomfort, anxiety or social reasons. **Disadvantages:** * Uterine hyperstimulation (1–5 percent). * Failed induction (15 percent) – may require repeat induction process or caesar- ean section. * Induction of labour can be a prolonged process – sometimes taking more than 24 h for labour to be established. * Approximately 500 women need to undergo induction of labour to prevent one baby death. * There is some evidence that induced labour is associated with greater analgesia requirement than spontaneous labour.
35
How should urate levels be interpreted?
Urate levels (in mmol/L) should be no higher than the current gestational week
36
What are long-acting reversible contraception methods?
* Copper coil * Contraceptive vaginal ring * Contraceptive implant * Contraceptive depot injection * Levonorgestrel-containing intrauterine system (IUS)
37
In a woman on the COCP who experiences breakthrough bleeding, what important information from the history needs to be obtained?
* Has she been missing any pills? * Has she taken any other medication which might interfere with the COCP (e.g. anti- biotics, enzyme inducers)? * Has she had any intercurrent illnesses causing diarrhoea or vomiting? * Has she ever had any sexually transmitted infections, or been investigated for this? * How many sexual partners has she had in the last 3 months? * Has she recently changed the COCP that she uses?
38
What are the differentials for breakthrough bleeding in women on the COCP?
**COCP-related causes:** * Poor compliance * Intercurrent infection causing poor pill absorption * Drug interactions, reducing the COCP efficacy * Inadequate oestrogen component for that woman * Pregnancy **Unrelated causes:** * Cervical ectropion * Cervical carcinoma * Sexually transmitted infection – chlamydia, gonorrhoea, trichomonas * Candidal vaginitis * Cervical or endometrial polyp * Bleeding disorder (rare)