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10 Month Flashcards

1
Q

1) Sleeping shall be permitted in:

A

A: Beds Only

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2
Q

2)Personnel shall be in the proper work uniform by:

A

A: 0930

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3
Q

3)The minimum safety gear to be worn by personnel during manipulative drills is:

A

A: Helmet

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4
Q

4)Station personnel shall arise no later than what time?

A

A: 0700 hours

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5
Q

5)Annual Division Inspections shall be held during the months of:

A

A: October through December

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6
Q

6) What time shall all beds be unmade and bedding stored:

A

A:0800

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7
Q

7) On-Duty personnel who desire relief before platoon change shall:

A

A: Secure permission from the station fire captain

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8
Q

8)Personnel shall be in the proper uniform (work uniform or approved physical fitness attire) by:

A

A: 0800 hours

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9
Q

9)When station personnel report to their scheduled work site late, without a satisfactory reason, the station fire captain shall:

A

A: Notify the Battalion Chief immediately by telephone
Provide a written memo to the Battalion Chief
Make a notation in the Business Journal
All of the Above

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10
Q

10) During a quarterly inspection line-up, the employee’s Driver License, Department ID card, and EMT card shall be kept:

A

A: laid on the bed

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11
Q

11) On-Duty personnel shall participate in organized mess arrangements and share the funding unless what condition exists?

A

A: the employee is excused for health or dietary reasons by the station fire captain

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12
Q

12) Regarding platoon change: Daily morning relief shall be no later than:

A

A: 0800 hours

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13
Q

13) B.C. shall approve visitors in quarters after ____________ .

A

A: 2000

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14
Q

14) Morning relief for all personnel shall be ____________ Daily.

A

A: 0800 hours

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15
Q

15) Station captains of move up companies shall be held responsible for the ______________ for the station they are occupying.

A

A: Business journal
Quarters
Grounds
All the above

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16
Q

16) All complaints shall be investigated and mitigated with the action taken and results _____________.

A

A: Journalized (person filing the complaint should be contacted once the complaint has been mitigated or referred.)

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17
Q

17) Bed shall be prepared for sleeping prior ________________hours

A

A: 0800

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18
Q

18) Dogs, mascots or animals are prohibited at all administrative sites unless approved by the __________ of the operational bureau.

A

A: Deputy Chief

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19
Q

19) The first arriving company is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

A: Providing an initial size-up
Identifying the material involved** Possibly marked Wrong**
Initiating incident command procedures
Taking whatever action is necessary

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20
Q

20) This area is considered a not-contaminated or clean are and is the outermost part of the site. This area is restricted to authorized personnel and normal work clothes are appropriate within this zone. This is the _________________ zone.

A

A: Support

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21
Q

21) In a Haz- Mat incident, a unified command post would be established in the __________ zone.

A

A: Support

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22
Q

22) At a Haz-Mat incident, the IC should establish a basic operational area which includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A

A: Supply Zone

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23
Q

23) The safe refuge are is located in which zone?

A

A: Exclusion

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24
Q

24) Entry and exit checkpoints to regulate the flow of personnel and equipment in to and out of the zone are called:

A

A: Access control points

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25
Q

25) Haz- Mat incidents that involve a current or imminient discharge or release of Haz-Mat, regardless of cause, that pose an immediate threat to public health and safety or the environment is best defined as __________ situations.

A

A: Dynamic

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26
Q

26) Hazardous materials incidents that present as ________ situations are temoporarily contained and/ or controlled but may pose a threat to public health/ safety or the environment and require mitigations and clean-up activities prior to a final clearance by HHMD.

A

A: STATIC

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27
Q

27) First responders will not enter in a _______________ environment?

A

A: 2:4:1

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28
Q

28) PPE shall be worn at ____________PPM at CO emergencies.

A

A: 25

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29
Q

29) CO monitoring should not take place on all the following except:

A

A: Haz- Mat Response

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30
Q

30) The most common spacing for trusses is _______________ foot on center.

A

A: 2

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31
Q

31) Ridge beams for conventional construction are single members with conventional rafters running from the ridge to the top plate. The spacing is usually 16 to _____ inches.

A

A: 24

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32
Q

32) Which of the following is not one of the three basic burning stages of a building fire?
A: Cool down phase

A

A: Cool down phase

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33
Q

33) Which one of the following is not one of the four types of lightweight roof construction?

A

A: Metal I beam web truss

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34
Q

34) Metal gusset plates usually penetrate _______ inch and are known as gang nails.

A

A: 3/8

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35
Q

35) Proper ____________ ventilation will release heat and smoke and will neutralize a backdraft hazard.

A

A: Vertical

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36
Q

36) Flashover can usually be avoided by releasing heat with early and aggressive ____________ ventilation and hose streams directed at both ceiling and contents.

A

A: Vertical

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37
Q

37)What is not a basic type of roof design?

A

A: Truss roof

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38
Q

38) Where is the weakness on lightweight roof?

A

A: Area between framing members

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39
Q

39) Gable, hip, bridge truss, mazard, saw tooth are all described which type roof?

A

A: Pitched Roof

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40
Q

40) What is the simultaneous ignition of the entire room?

A

A: Flash over

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41
Q

41) ____________ facades are the most dangerous. They can be both lightweight or conventional construction.

A

A: Add- On unsupported

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42
Q

42)Identify the level of fire involvement in and around the façade area. A ventilation heat hole should be placed in the ___________ of the façade above the roof line in order to visualize fire involvement and to reduce lateral spread.

A

A: Soft Side

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43
Q

43) Company Officers shall be responsible for providing a ___________ to their personnel stressing access and escape routes.

A

A: Safety briefing

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44
Q

44) “SCU” stands for:

A

A: Station Control Unit

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45
Q

45) What is the main purpose of the department’s communication Policy?

A

A: To control communications at incidents so that priority messages are appropriately transmitted and received

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46
Q

46) As an authorized emergency vehicle operator, the driver is exempt from certain rules of the road when:

A

A: All of the above (Vol D-4-5)

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47
Q

47) When a pumping apparatus is sent to the Fire shops, it shall have _________ feet of 1 inch hose , a 1” nozzle, the suction caps, and a full tank of a water.

A

A: 50’

48
Q

48) During the second six month assignment, probationary firefighters may drive department vehicles (including the tiller position) Code R, provided they have met all requirements and are approved by all, except the ______________.

A

A: Battalion Training officer

49
Q

49) Apparatus engine oil shall be checked?

A

A: Daily

50
Q

50) Water Tenders shall respond non- code R unless requested to do so by:

A

A: Incident Command and/ Or Communications Center (is communications dispatch??

51
Q

51) It is illegal to drive a commercial motor vehicle such as a fire apparatus, with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) that is _________% or higher.

A

A: .04%

52
Q

52) The driver of a authorized emergency vehicle is exempt from the rules of the road when the vehicle is being driven in response to an emergency call, or when returning from a fire alarm.

A

A: False

53
Q

53) The modified examination certificate (DL-51A) must be in the drivers possession when driving with a Commercial Class A or B license.

A

A: True

54
Q

54) ____________ poses the greatest potential danger when during emergency and routine driving.

A

A: Intersections

55
Q

55) Form 248 is filled out ____________ and station Captain is responsible for making sure its complete.

A

A: Monthly

56
Q

56) If you have to pass traffic on the left during emergency “Code R” driving, it is ok to ________________.

A

A: Drive in opposing lanes of traffic during a response

57
Q

57) In addition to foam, what else has been known to disorient Africanized Honey Bee’s and allow potential victims to escape to safe refuge areas?

A

A: Heavy Smoke

58
Q

58) What must be done if it was necessary to kill a poisonous snake?

A

A: The head shall be buried in a hole at least two foot deep

59
Q

59) Resources shall respond Non- Code “R” to a reported:

A

A: Inactive Swarm

60
Q

60) A solution of ______% Class A or AFFF foam sprayed by fog nozzle should be used to immobilize the bees

A

A: 1

61
Q

61) The minimum number of personnel needed to take aggressive action or initiate any search for a snake.

A

A: 2

62
Q

62) On snake calls, the first-in unit shall respond “Code R” if

A

A. The snake is inside a structure

63
Q

63) Regarding bee incidents, an exclusion Zone is a minimum of __________ feet in diameter

A

A: 300

64
Q

64) If required to kill a snake, you should give it a positive blow with a shovel or axe on its _____________.

A

A: Head

65
Q

65) AFFF extinguishers do not work well for fires in class _____ or Class ______ fuels.

A

A: C;D

66
Q

66) Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) extinguishers are suitable for use on Class _____ and Class _____ fires.

A

A: A;B

67
Q

67) If an extinguisher is found to be efficient in weight by _______%, it should be removed from service and replaced.

A

A: 10%

68
Q

68) Dry powder agents are for Class _______ fires only.

A

A: D

69
Q

69) C02 Extinguishers are effective in extinguishing class ______ and Class _______ fires.

A

A: B;C Fires

70
Q

70) Which of the following is NOT an example of an immediate life and/ or fire hazard?

A

Accumulation of flammable vapors without adequate ventilation and /or protection from sources of ignition
Obstucted exit doors, corridors, or aisles
Illegal locking devices on panic hardware
All of the above are examples

71
Q

71) What does a “green tab” on an occupancy folder indicate?

A

A: Fire prevention Division occupancies, which are subject to annual station pre-plans

72
Q

72) List the information that may be found in an occupancy folder that firefighters would review prior to inspecting the occupancy?

A

A: Inspection history, noting any repeated violations
Special requirements for the occupancy
Exiting permits required
All of the above should be reviewed prior to inspecting the occupancy

73
Q

73) Limited access keys issued to jurisdictional stations shall be secured:

A

A) out of sight on the apparatus

74
Q

74) The key box shall be should be accessible by fire department first responders without the use equipment. Preference should be given to the ________ side of the building.

A

A: Address

75
Q

75) Key boxers should be located

A

A: At the jurisdictional captains discretion

76
Q

76) The offical inspection report form is a Form _________.

A

A: 410

77
Q

77) Water systems shall be tested to ensure they remain in a fully operable on a _________ basis.

A

A: 5 years

78
Q

78)A _________ can be issued when a violation can be abated in the presence of the fire inspector.

A

A: Verbal Notice

79
Q

79) Imminent life hazards shall be abated _____________

A

A: Immediately

80
Q

80) When the elevator is recalled to the lobby area through the use of keys or building controls, the system is in:

A

A: Phase I

81
Q

81) While working at a working high rise incident, personnel shall wear the following PPE’s?

A

A) All of the above

82
Q

82) A water supply system that is directly connected to a water supply and equipped with both automatic sprinklers and 21/2” outlets for use by department personnel is called a:

A

A: Combined Standpipe System

83
Q

83) A class III system is a ______________system directly connected to a water supply and equipped with both a hose cabinet for use by the building occupants and 21/2 inch outlets for use by F.D. personnel.

A

A: Combination system

84
Q

84) When Department personnel have manual control of the elevators and are moving men and equipment above ground the elevator system is in:

A

A: Phase II

85
Q

85) What is an HVAC?

A

A: Heating, Ventilation, Air Conditioning system

86
Q

86) Personnel assigned to lobby control shall:

A

A: direct incoming companies to correct stairwell
Maintain records of fire resources entering and leaving the building
Keep alert for changes in announciator/ fire control room
Assist movement of occupants to safe areas in orderly fashion
Do all of the above

87
Q

87) Maximum height of airbags?

A

A: 10 stories or 100 ft

88
Q

88) How long does it take to fill up the air bags?

A

A: 60 seconds or 1 minute

89
Q

89) The maximum working pressure should be ___________ PSI.

A

A: 200 PSI

90
Q

90) When pumping to an automatic sprinkler system, the correct amount of pump pressure should be ___________ pounds.

A

A: 150psi

91
Q

91) When personnel are working on floors above the fire, it is important to maintain ___________ and _________________.

A

A: Escape Plan, Company Unity.

92
Q

92)Who determines the proper PPE for emergency incidents?

A

A: Vol 2-11-1

93
Q

93) Civillian asks about County info or other agency contact, where do you find this information?

A

A: Each station is responsible for keeping an updated list of information that public may request

94
Q

94)Who conducts quarterly inspections?

A

A: Jurisdictional Battalion Chief

95
Q

95) After securing your family following an earthquake, personnel shall report to battalion headquarters within ____________ hours?

A

A: 4 Hours

96
Q

96) What level of earthquake do you do a jurisdictional survey?

A

A: LEVEL II

97
Q

97) Largest Straight ladder size?

A

A: 24’

98
Q

98) If lost or damaged equipment is not returned within 30 days a __________ shall be submitted?

A

A: Form 41

99
Q

99) When operating during conditions of civil disturbances, the priorities of this department are:

A

A: Life, property and equipment

100
Q

100) Ambient temperature, relaive humidity and ________ are the variables that effect our ability to work in the heat.

A

A: Solar and reflective radiation

101
Q

101) An initial defusing is performed immediately after or within _____ hours.

A

A: 12

102
Q

102) Role of a peer supporter is to ___________

A

A: to assist the person in finding there own solution

103
Q

103) During civil disturbance personnel shall wear ___________________.

A

A: The fire helmet and brush jacket on all EMS responses and full turnouts going to and from other emergencies. (Body Armor shall be worn under safety clothing)

104
Q

104) If an attack occurs while in the station, notify all personnel, request command and control for law enforcement _____________.

A

A: Extraction

105
Q

105) person should drink ________ glasses of of 8oz water per shift.

A

A: 6 to 8

106
Q

106) Dispatch shall automatically notify the on-call CISM team leader on all of the follwing EXCEPT:

A

A: Multiple fatalities involving children

107
Q

107) fluid loss of ______________ causes a lowered blood column, decreased cardiac efficiency and impaired thermogulation

A

A: 4-5%

108
Q

108) Department defines MCI as any incident generating ____________ casualties or more.

A

A: 5-15

109
Q

109) While triaging, a patient with a cap refill of greater than ______________ seconds will be tagged as immediate?

A

A: 2

110
Q

110) The department defines the START system as _______________.

A

A: Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment

111
Q

111) Using the START system, it should not take longer than _____________ to triage a patient.

A

A: 1 minute

112
Q

112) ____________ a department approved and supplied package containging two disposable suits, two pairs of eyeglasses, two facemask, two pairs of disposable gloves and a plastic bag.

A

A: Communicable Disease Kit

113
Q

113) Form 248 shall be completed __________ during inventory and inspection of rope system components.

A

A: Each Month

114
Q

114) Inspection of ladders occurs ____________ and after each use.

A

A: Weekly

115
Q

115) Ladder rungs are made of _____________ and ladder beams are made of ______________.

A

A: Hickory, Douglas Fir

116
Q

116) How many personnel working on a 24’ ladder?

A

A: 3

10 month (1 decks)

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