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STEM Projects | Study Guide > 10 EGB - Raw Materials to final production - Summative Exam > Flashcards

10 EGB - Raw Materials to final production - Summative Exam Flashcards

This information is for students in 10th Course

1
Q

What does electrical resistivity measure?
a) The ability of a material to conduct heat
b) The ability of a material to resist the flow of electric current
c) The mass per unit volume of a material
d) The ability of a material to absorb impact

A

b) The ability of a material to resist the flow of electric current

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2
Q

Which material property describes the ability to transfer heat?
a) Electrical resistivity
b) Density
c) Thermal conductivity
d) Hardness

A

c) Thermal conductivity

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3
Q

What is thermal expansion?
a) The ability of a material to resist wear and tear
b) The increase in material volume when subjected to heat
c) The resistance of a material to scratches
d) The force required to break a material

A

b) The increase in material volume when subjected to heat

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4
Q

Which test is commonly used to measure scratch hardness?
a) Mohs hardness test
b) Vickers test
c) Brinell test
d) Rockwell test

A

a) Mohs hardness test

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5
Q

How is mass different from weight?
a) Mass depends on gravity, while weight does not
b) Mass is the amount of matter in an object, while weight is the force due to gravity
c) Mass is measured in Newtons, while weight is measured in grams
d) Mass and weight are the same

A

b) Mass is the amount of matter in an object, while weight is the force due to gravity

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6
Q

What does density describe?
a) The ability of a material to stretch without breaking
b) The ratio of mass to volume
c) The ability to return to its original shape
d) The resistance to wear and tear

A

b) The ratio of mass to volume

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7
Q

Which property determines how much a material indents under a given load?
a) Scratch hardness
b) Static indentation hardness
c) Thermal expansion
d) Elasticity

A

b) Static indentation hardness

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8
Q

Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity?
a) Wood
b) Plastic
c) Copper
d) Rubber

A

c) Copper

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9
Q

What is measured in cubic meters or liters?
a) Density
b) Mass
c) Volume
d) Weight

A

c) Volume

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10
Q

Which property is commonly tested using a Brinell or Rockwell hardness test?
a) Electrical resistivity
b) Thermal conductivity
c) Indentation hardness
d) Ductility

A

c) Indentation hardness

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11
Q

Tensile strength measures a material’s ability to withstand:
a) Compression
b) Tension forces
c) Bending
d) Shearing

A

b) Tension forces

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12
Q

Which property describes the ability to withstand compressive forces?
a) Ductility
b) Elasticity
c) Compressive strength
d) Fracture toughness

A

c) Compressive strength

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13
Q

A material that returns to its original shape after deformation has high:
a) Toughness
b) Elasticity
c) Plasticity
d) Ductility

A

b) Elasticity

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14
Q

Which property determines how much energy a material can absorb before breaking?
a) Toughness
b) Stiffness
c) Stress
d) Strain

A

a) Toughness

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15
Q

What does ductility measure?
a) The ability to absorb shock without fracturing
b) The ability to stretch into a wire
c) The ability to resist bending forces
d) The ability to return to original shape

A

b) The ability to stretch into a wire

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16
Q

Plasticity refers to:
a) The ability to return to its original shape
b) The ability to permanently deform without breaking
c) The ability to absorb high impact
d) The ability to conduct electricity

A

b) The ability to permanently deform without breaking

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17
Q

Which term describes a material’s resistance to breaking under tension?
a) Tensile strength
b) Compressive strength
c) Hardness
d) Fracture toughness

A

a) Tensile strength

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18
Q

What does strain measure in materials?
a) The ability to resist compression
b) The deformation due to applied stress
c) The ability to stretch under tension
d) The resistance to impact

A

b) The deformation due to applied stress

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19
Q

Which property is tested in a Charpy or Izod test?
a) Elasticity
b) Toughness
c) Plasticity
d) Hardness

A

b) Toughness

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20
Q

What does stiffness measure?
a) The ability to deform without breaking
b) The ability to return to its original shape
c) The resistance to bending forces
d) The ability to stretch under tension

A

c) The resistance to bending forces

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21
Q

Which production scale is best suited for custom-made products?
a) One-off production
b) Batch production
c) Mass production
d) Continuous flow production

A

a) One-off production

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22
Q

What is the main advantage of batch production?
a) It is the cheapest production method
b) It allows customization with reduced costs
c) It requires minimal labor
d) It is the fastest method

A

b) It allows customization with reduced costs

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23
Q

Which production method involves manufacturing a product in large quantities without interruption?
a) One-off production
b) Batch production
c) Mass production
d) Continuous flow production

A

d) Continuous flow production

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24
Q

Which scale of production focuses on making products for a specific market segment?
a) One-off production
b) Batch production
c) Mass customization production
d) Continuous flow production

A

c) Mass customization production

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25
Q

What is a disadvantage of mass production?
a) High unit costs
b) Low efficiency
c) High initial investment
d) Limited product uniformity

A

c) High initial investment

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26
Q

Which type of production is used for making unique, custom items?
a) One-off production
b) Batch production
c) Mass production
d) Continuous flow production

A

a) One-off production

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27
Q

Which of the following is a feature of batch production?
a) High automation
b) Continuous operation
c) Flexible manufacturing
d) Custom-made products

A

c) Flexible manufacturing

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28
Q

Mass customization allows:
a) A mix of standard and customized products
b) One product per customer
c) The slowest production rates
d) A single-use production process

A

a) A mix of standard and customized products

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29
Q

What is a key advantage of continuous flow production?
a) High product variability
b) Cost efficiency due to automation
c) The ability to produce one unique item
d) Minimal investment

A

b) Cost efficiency due to automation

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30
Q

Which industry is most likely to use mass production?
a) Custom jewelry
b) Automotive industry
c) Handmade furniture
d) Boutique fashion

A

b) Automotive industry

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31
Q

Which production system is characterized by highly skilled workers making items by hand?
a) Craft production
b) Mechanized production
c) Automated production
d) Mass production

A

a) Craft production

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32
Q

What is a key feature of mechanized production?
a) All work is done manually
b) Machines assist in the production process
c) Production is done in small, customized batches
d) It requires no human intervention

A

b) Machines assist in the production process

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33
Q

Which of the following best describes automated production?
a) It is labor-intensive
b) It relies on machines with little human intervention
c) It produces unique, handcrafted products
d) It is primarily used for prototyping

A

b) It relies on machines with little human intervention

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34
Q

Which production system involves workers completing a specific task at different workstations?
a) Craft production
b) Assembly line production
c) Mechanized production
d) Mass production

A

b) Assembly line production

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35
Q

Which system is best suited for large-scale manufacturing of identical products?
a) Craft production
b) Assembly line production
c) Mass production
d) Mechanized production

A

c) Mass production

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36
Q

What is a disadvantage of mass production?
a) High labor costs
b) Low efficiency
c) Lack of product variation
d) Inconsistent quality

A

c) Lack of product variation

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37
Q

Which production system allows for customer-specific customization on a mass scale?
a) Craft production
b) Automated production
c) Mass customization production
d) Mechanized production

A

c) Mass customization production

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38
Q

Which of the following best describes mechanized production?
a) Products are made entirely by hand
b) Machines are used alongside human labor
c) The process is fully automated
d) It is used only for one-off production

A

b) Machines are used alongside human labor

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39
Q

What is a key advantage of automated production?
a) High labor requirements
b) Increased efficiency and consistency
c) Low investment costs
d) Customization of individual products

A

b) Increased efficiency and consistency

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40
Q

Which system is most commonly used for small-scale, high-quality handmade products?
a) Mass production
b) Craft production
c) Automated production
d) Assembly line production

A

b) Craft production

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41
Q

Which of the following is an example of an additive manufacturing process?
a) CNC machining
b) Injection molding
c) 3D printing
d) Milling

A

c) 3D printing

42
Q

Which manufacturing process involves removing material to create the final product?
a) Wasting or subtractive techniques
b) Additive techniques
c) Joining techniques
d) Shaping techniques

A

a) Wasting or subtractive techniques

43
Q

Which process is commonly used for shaping metal sheets?
a) Injection molding
b) Forging
c) Welding
d) Casting

A

b) Forging

44
Q

Which of the following is an example of a joining technique?
a) Cutting
b) Soldering
c) Drilling
d) Extrusion

A

b) Soldering

45
Q

Which shaping process involves heating a material until it becomes liquid and then solidifying it in a mold?
a) Casting
b) Machining
c) Welding
d) Extrusion

A

a) Casting

46
Q

Which process would best be used to create a prototype with complex geometries?
a) CNC machining
b) Injection molding
c) 3D printing
d) Laser cutting

A

c) 3D printing

47
Q

What is the primary advantage of additive manufacturing?
a) Waste reduction and design flexibility
b) High production speed
c) Low production cost for mass manufacturing
d) Minimal energy consumption

A

a) Waste reduction and design flexibility

48
Q

What is a disadvantage of subtractive manufacturing?
a) High material waste
b) Limited material choices
c) Inability to produce complex designs
d) Slow production speed

A

a) High material waste

49
Q

Which manufacturing technique involves permanently fusing two materials together?
a) Welding
b) CNC machining
c) Forging
d) Casting

A

a) Welding

50
Q

Which of the following processes is commonly used in injection molding?
a) Heating a material and forcing it into a mold
b) Cutting material with lasers
c) 3D printing objects layer by layer
d) Removing excess material using a lathe

A

a) Heating a material and forcing it into a mold

51
Q

Timber refers only to trees that are still standing and have not been cut down.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Timber is wood that has been cut and prepared for use in construction and furniture.)

52
Q

All types of timber come from hardwood trees because softwood trees cannot be used for building.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Both hardwood and softwood trees produce timber, and softwood is commonly used in construction.)

53
Q

Timber and wood mean the same thing because both come from trees and can be used in any form.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Wood is a general term for material from trees, while timber is wood that is processed for use.)

54
Q

Timber is used for making homes, furniture, and even paper.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Timber is processed into different products, including construction materials and paper.)

55
Q

Using too much timber can cause deforestation, but sustainable forestry can help reduce the impact.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Sustainable forestry helps by planting new trees and managing forests responsibly.)

56
Q

The use of timber always has a negative environmental impact, even when managed responsibly.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Sustainable timber management can actually benefit the environment by maintaining healthy forests.)

57
Q

Timber is a non-renewable resource because once a tree is cut, it cannot be replaced.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Timber is renewable when forests are replanted and managed sustainably.)

58
Q

Treated timber lasts longer than untreated timber because it is resistant to decay, insects, and moisture.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Treated timber undergoes chemical treatments that protect it from environmental damage.)

59
Q

Plywood and MDF (Medium-Density Fiberboard) are examples of engineered timber products.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Engineered timber products are made from processed wood fibers and adhesives to improve strength and stability.)

60
Q

Timber cannot be recycled and must be disposed of after use.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Timber can be recycled and repurposed for new construction, furniture, and other applications.)

61
Q

Textiles can only be classified based on their natural or synthetic origin, with no other classification criteria.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Textiles can also be classified by their structure (woven, non-woven, knitted), use (apparel, industrial, technical), and production method.)

62
Q

All textiles are made from fibers, but not all fibers can be used to create textiles.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Only fibers with certain properties, such as flexibility and durability, can be spun into yarn and woven or knitted into textiles.)

63
Q

Textiles are primarily used for clothing, with very few industrial or technical applications.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Textiles are widely used in medical applications, construction, automotive interiors, and protective gear in addition to clothing.)

64
Q

Textile and fabric are interchangeable terms that both refer to finished materials used for clothing and upholstery.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (A textile is a broader term that refers to any woven, knitted, or non-woven material, while fabric is a finished material used for specific applications.)

65
Q

Synthetic textiles, such as polyester and nylon, have a lower environmental impact than natural fibers because they do not require agricultural land.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (While synthetic textiles do not require farmland, they are derived from petroleum and contribute to microplastic pollution and long-term waste issues.)

66
Q

Cotton is considered an environmentally friendly fiber because it is biodegradable and does not require chemical treatment.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Although biodegradable, cotton farming requires significant amounts of water and pesticides, making its environmental impact complex.)

67
Q

Recycling textiles is an effective way to reduce textile waste and environmental impact.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Recycling textiles helps reduce landfill waste, save resources, and promote sustainability in the fashion industry.)

68
Q

Fast fashion contributes to high textile waste because clothes are produced cheaply and discarded quickly.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Fast fashion encourages mass production of low-quality garments, leading to high consumption and waste.)

69
Q

Natural textiles like wool and silk require less processing than synthetic textiles, making them more sustainable.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (While natural fibers may require less processing, they often involve environmental concerns such as land use, animal welfare, and water consumption.)

70
Q

Most textiles, whether natural or synthetic, can be fully recycled into new clothing without losing quality.
A) True
B) False ✅ (While some textiles can be recycled, fibers often degrade in quality, and blending different materials makes recycling more difficult.)

A

B) False ✅ (While some textiles can be recycled, fibers often degrade in quality, and blending different materials makes recycling more difficult.)

71
Q

Glass is an amorphous material, meaning it lacks a fixed crystalline structure.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Unlike crystalline solids, glass has a random molecular arrangement, making it amorphous and giving it unique optical and mechanical properties.)

72
Q

Glass is completely unbreakable because of its hardness.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Glass is hard but brittle, meaning it can shatter upon impact.)

73
Q

Glass is naturally transparent because it does not absorb visible light.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Glass allows most visible light to pass through, making it transparent.)

74
Q

Glass is chemically inert, meaning it does not react with most substances.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Glass resists chemical reactions, which is why it is commonly used in laboratories and food storage.)

75
Q

Glass is a good conductor of electricity, making it useful for electrical wiring.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Glass is an electrical insulator, meaning it does not allow electricity to flow through it.)

76
Q

Tempered glass is stronger than regular glass and breaks into small, blunt pieces instead of sharp shards.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Tempered glass undergoes a special heating and cooling process that makes it stronger and safer.)

77
Q

Glass can be made to be biocompatible, which means it can be used in medical applications like implants.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Bioactive glass is used in bone regeneration and medical implants due to its compatibility with the human body.)

78
Q

The cost of producing glass is always higher than producing plastic.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (While some types of glass can be expensive, standard glass production can be cost-effective and competitive with plastic manufacturing.)

79
Q

Glass can be made in various colors by adding different chemicals during the manufacturing process.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Adding metal oxides or other chemicals changes the color of glass, creating stained or tinted glass.)

80
Q

Once glass is broken, it cannot be recycled and must be discarded.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Glass can be recycled indefinitely without losing quality.)

81
Q

Plastic is a synthetic material made from polymers that can be molded into different shapes.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Plastics are made from long chains of molecules called polymers, allowing them to be shaped into various products.)

82
Q

All plastics are biodegradable and break down naturally in the environment within a few years.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Most plastics take hundreds of years to degrade, contributing to environmental pollution.)

83
Q

Plastic is lightweight, water-resistant, and can have both flexible and rigid forms.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (These properties make plastic useful in packaging, construction, and medical applications.)

84
Q

Plastics can conduct electricity, which is why they are used in electrical wiring.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Plastics are electrical insulators, making them useful for wire coatings and electronic device casings.)

85
Q

Exposure to UV light from the sun can cause some plastics to weaken and break down over time.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (UV rays can degrade certain plastics, causing them to become brittle and discolored.)

86
Q

Plastics are used in packaging, construction, medicine, and electronics due to their versatility.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Plastics are used in various industries, from medical implants to lightweight car parts.)

87
Q

Not all plastics can be recycled due to differences in their chemical composition.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Some plastics, like thermosetting plastics, cannot be melted and reshaped, making them difficult to recycle.)

88
Q

Plastic recycling involves collecting, sorting, melting, and reshaping plastic waste into new products.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Recycling helps reduce waste by transforming used plastic into new materials.)

89
Q

Plastic waste is a major environmental issue because most plastic takes centuries to decompose.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Plastic pollution is a serious problem as many plastics remain in landfills and oceans for hundreds of years.)

90
Q

Recycled plastic is always of the same quality as new plastic.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Recycled plastic often loses strength and quality, limiting its reuse in high-performance applications.)

91
Q

Metals are elements that are generally solid, shiny, conductive, and malleable.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Metals have distinct properties such as conductivity, ductility, and high melting points.)

92
Q

All metals are magnetic.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Only certain metals, such as iron, nickel, and cobalt, are naturally magnetic.)

93
Q

Metals are good conductors of electricity and heat, making them useful in wiring and cookware.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Metals like copper and aluminum are widely used in electrical wiring and cooking utensils due to their high conductivity.)

94
Q

Steel is a pure metal.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Steel is an alloy made primarily of iron and carbon, not a pure metal.)

95
Q

Metals can only exist in their solid form at room temperature.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Mercury is a metal that exists as a liquid at room temperature.)

96
Q

Non-ferrous metals contain iron and are prone to rusting.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Non-ferrous metals do not contain iron, making them more resistant to rust. Examples include aluminum, copper, and brass.)

97
Q

Copper, aluminum, and silver are examples of non-ferrous metals.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Non-ferrous metals do not contain iron and are often used in electrical wiring, aircraft, and jewelry.)

98
Q

Alloys are created by mixing two or more metals to improve their properties.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Alloys, such as bronze (copper and tin) and stainless steel (iron and chromium), are made to enhance strength, corrosion resistance, and durability.)

99
Q

Metals cannot be recycled and must always be mined from the Earth.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False ✅ (Metals like aluminum, copper, and steel can be recycled indefinitely without losing quality.)

100
Q

Ferrous metals contain iron and are usually stronger but more prone to rust compared to non-ferrous metals.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True ✅ (Ferrous metals, such as iron and steel, are strong but can rust if exposed to moisture.)

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