10 - ANS III Flashcards

0
Q

The side affects of a1 receptor blockage are

A

Hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia
(Worse with hypovolemia, standing position)

Other side effects: miosis, nasal stuffiness, diarrhea

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1
Q

Vessels with higher initial tone have a _____ response to alpha 1 blockade, which causes

A

Greater

Smooth muscle relaxation

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2
Q

What happens with chronic alpha antagonist use?
Phenylephrine?
Norepi?
Epi?

A

Blunted sympathetic response

Phenyl: response completely blocked
Norepi: tachycardia due to b1 activation
Epi: tachy and sever hypotension due to b2 mediated vasodilation

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3
Q

Why does a2 receptor blockade lead to more NE release? What does this cause?

A

It eliminates negative feedback

Tachycardia

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4
Q

Two nonselective a receptor antagonists are

A

Phentolamine

Phenoxybenzamine

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5
Q

What is chemical sympathectomy? What drugs are used for this?

A

Removal of pain by increasing blood flow to an area through vasodilation
Nonselective alpha antagonists

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6
Q

Complete offset of the effects of nonselective alpha antagonists must be accomplished by

A

Synthesis of new receptors

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7
Q

Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine are almost exclusively used for the treatment of

A

Pheochromocytoma

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8
Q

Why is alpha blockade before beta blockade necessary in management of pheochromocytoma?

A

I opposed alpha stimulation can lead to hypertensive crisis - heart pumping against constricted vessels

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9
Q

Nonselective alpha antagonists have _____ that can be treated with atropine

A

Cholinomimetic activity

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10
Q

Phentolamine binds _____ to the alpha receptor and phenoxybenzamine binds

A

Reversibly

Irreversibly

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11
Q

What is the dose of IV phentolamine?

A

5 mg bolus

Can also be used as an infusion

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12
Q

What are other uses (due to vasodilation) of phentolamine aside from management of pheochromocytoma?

A

Intercavernosal injection for treatment of impotence
Injection of treatment of norepi extravasation
Reversal of local anesthetic injection

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13
Q

How is phenoxybenzamine taken for preop management?

A

Orally

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14
Q

Phenoxybenzamine overdose is treated with

A

Norepi (some receptors are still free)

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15
Q

Prazosin is an ____ antagonist

A

Alpha 1 selective

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16
Q

What is used for the treatment of hypertension and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) as well pheochromocytoma?

A

Alpha 1 selective antagonist

Prazosin

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17
Q

______ cause less tachycardia than nonselective alpha antagonists, but still some orthostatic hypotension

A

Alpha 1 selective antagonists

18
Q

Drugs similar to prazosin

A

Terazosin
Doxazosin
Tamulosin

19
Q

First generation beta antagonists are _____ and second generation beta antagonists are

A

Nonselective

Selective

20
Q

Beta antagonists reduce _____ in patients with heart failure!reduce incidence of perioperative ____, and control

A

Mortality
MI
Tachydysrhythmias

21
Q

Nonselective beta antagonist that lowers BP

A

Propranolol (inderal)

22
Q

How does propranolol lower BP, reduce myocardial O2 demand, and slow ventricular response to SVT and VT?

A

Decreasing myocardial contractility, HR, and releasing renin

23
Q

Propranolol may help treat the symptoms of ______ and _____ but should only be used after

A

Thyrotoxicosis (thyroid storm), pheochromocytoma

After alpha blockade

24
Q

Side effects of propranolol (inderal)

A

Bronchospasm, CHF, bradycardia, AV heart block

25
Q

Why does propranolol cause ______ after being stopped?

A
Withdrawal syndrome (rebound HTN, tachy, angina)
Because of upregulation of beta receptors
26
Q

Good choice in patients with reactive airway disease

A

Beta 1 selective antagonists

Metoprolol, atenolol

27
Q

What is the IV dose of metoprolol?

A

2-5 mg bolus

28
Q

How is metoprolol (lopressor) metabolized and what is its elimination half life?

A

Hepatic

3-4 h

29
Q

How is atenolol (tenormin) excreted and what is its elimination half life?

A

Renally

6-7 hours

30
Q

Esmolol (breviblock) is a _____ abut also causes ____ at high doses

A

Beta 1 selective antagonist

Beta 2 antagonism

31
Q

Used to prevent tachy/HTN during intubation, emergence, and electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A

Esmolol

32
Q

Esmolol is eliminated by

A

Ester hydrolysis (9 min)

Not plasma cholinesterase

33
Q

What is the dose of Esmolol?

A

Bolus - .25-.5 mg/kg IV

Infusion: 50-200 mcg/kg/min

34
Q

Mixed alpha and beta receptor antagonist?

A

Labetalol

35
Q

Why doesn’t Labetelol cause reflex tachycardia?

A

alpha is mostly alpha 1

Beta is nonselective

36
Q

What is the ratio of alpha to beta antagonism in Labetelol taken orally? By IV?

A

Orally - 1:3

IV- 1:7

37
Q

Is bronchospasm a common complication when using Labetelol?

A

No, despite beta being nonselective

38
Q

Common drug of choice for intraoperative HTN?

A

Labetelol

39
Q

How does Labetelol decrease HTN?

A

Decreases peripheral vascular resistance and renin

Also some decrease in HR

40
Q

What is the initial bolus does of Labetelol?

A

2.5-10 mg IV - works in minutes

41
Q

Why should Labetelol be used in caution as an infusion?

A

It is a long acting agent

42
Q

What is the hepatic elimination half life of Labetelol?

A

5-6 hours

43
Q

What is another nonselective beta antagonist and alpha 1 antagonist aside from Labetelol? What is it used for?

A

Carvedilol (coreg)

Oral medication used for managing heart failure, left ventricular dysfunction after MI, and HTN