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1 to 100 Flashcards

1
Q

1 The decibel range for a hearing aide compatible telephone is between ___ and ___ decibels

A

Per the ADA the range for a hearing compatible phone is 12 – 18 decibels

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2
Q

2 What are the main symptoms of Tardives dyskinesia?

A

Lip Smacking and uncontrolled facial gestures

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3
Q

3 What do the initials COPD stand for?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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4
Q

4 What do the initials CHF stand for?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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5
Q

5 What is blockage of the arteries called?

A

A blockage of the arteries is arteriosclerosis

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6
Q

6 What is hardening of the artery walls called?

A

Hardening of the artery walls is called atherosclerosis

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7
Q

7 What do the initials TIA stand for?

A

Trans Ischemic Attack

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8
Q

8 What is a TIA? (i.e.; heart attack; end stage renal failure or a stroke)

A

A TIA is a stroke

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9
Q

9 What do the initials EKG stand for?

A

Electro Kardio (cardio) Gram (measures heart activity)

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10
Q

10 What do the initials CVA stand for?

A

Cerebral Vascular Accident

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11
Q

11 What is a CVA? (i.e.; heart attack; end stage renal failure or a stroke)

A

A CVA is a stroke

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12
Q

12 What is a physiatrist?

A

A physiatrist is a physician who works with the musculoskeletal system and works closely with the physical therapist.

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13
Q

13 Per OBRA 1987; does a resident have the right to a bath?

A

OBRA 1987 does not specify any requirement that a resident must have a bath

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14
Q

14 Per OBRA 1987; does a resident have the right to a shower?

A

OBRA 1987 does not specify any requirement that a resident must have a shower – it is assumed that you will keep the residence clean.

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15
Q

15 What is gerontology?

A

Gerontology is the study of the aging process

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16
Q

16 What is a gerontologist?

A

A gerontologist is a person who studies the aging process

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17
Q

17 Describe the 4 stages of a decubitis sore?

A

The 4 stages of a decubitis sore: 1. Redness/warm to touch 2. A blister that opens with possible pus 3. Tissue loss of the upper and lower layers of the epidermis 4. Tissue loss down to the bone potential

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18
Q

18 Explain what a severity of Level 1; Class 2; Class 3 and Class 4 deficiency is per OBRA 1987?

A

Class 1 deficiency – no harm; no potential for harm Class 2 deficiency – no harm but possible (They could not identify any residents actually harmed) Class 3 deficiency – Harm but not immediate jeopardy Class 4 deficiency is Harm and immediate jeopardy

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19
Q

19 Which of the letters between A-L would indicate the existence of substandard care?

A

Substandard care would begin with the letter G Class 1 – A – isolated B- patterned C – Widespread Class 2 - D – isolated E- pattered F- Widespread Class 3 - G – isolated H – patterned I- widespread Class 4 - J - isolated K – Pattered L – Widespread

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20
Q

20 What is a myocardial infarct?

A

A myocardial infarct is a heart attack

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21
Q

21 What is the first stage of the annual survey?

A

The first stage of the annual survey is OFFSITE PREPARATION where the surveyors review the facility’s prior surveys; incident report; ombudsman reports; quality indicatorys and other information from OSCAR.

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22
Q

22 Which stage is where the survey team sits down with staff and discloses the results of the annual survey?

A

In the EXIT CONFERENCE the survey team sits down with staff and discloses the results of the annual survey.

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23
Q

23 Which stage of the annual survey involves the team leader sitting down with the facility staff and discuss the survey about to take place and what records they will need to see?

A

In the ENTRANCE CONFERENCE the team leader sits down with the facility staff and discusses the survey about to take place and what records they will need to see.

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24
Q

24 Which stage of the survey involves the survey team walking around the facility and identifying the layout of the facility?

A

The FACILITY TOUR involves the survey team walking around the facility and identifying the layout of the facility.

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25
Q

25 Which phase of the survey involves the survey team identifying which people they want to talk to and records they want to review?

A

SAMPLE SELECTION involves the survey team identifying which people they want to talk to and records they want to review.

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26
Q

26 Which phase of the survey involves identifying which deficiencies; if any; the facility will cited for?

A

INFORMATION ANALYSIS involves identifying which deficiencies; if any; the facility will cited for.

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27
Q

27 Which phase of the survey involves the survey team observing residents and staff; taking notes; interviewing the resident council and other residents?

A

INFORMATION GATHERING involves the survey team observing residents and staff; taking notes; interviewing the resident council and other residents.

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28
Q

28 What is the correct order of the steps of an annual survey?

A

What is the correct order of the steps of an annual survey: 1. Offsite Preparation 2. Enterance Conference 3. Sample Selection 4. Information Gathering 5. Information Analysis 6. Exit Interview

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29
Q

29 Within how many days of the survey team exiting a facility and completing a survey must the facility receive a report of the results of compliance survey?

A

The facility must receive a report of the results of a compliance survey within 10 days of the exit interview.

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30
Q

30 Within how many days must a facility submits a plan of correction in response to any alleged deficiencies?

A

A facility must submit a plan of correction for any alleged deficiencies within 10 days from receipt of the report of deficiencies.

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31
Q

31 When is your date certain for re-survey ( the earliest the survey team can return to verify the facility corrected all cited deficiencies)?

A

Your date certain for re-survey ( the earliest the survey team can return to verify the facility corrected all cited deficiencies) is 30 days from the date the survey team exited the facility.

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32
Q

32 What is the number of the form that you will receive detailing any deficiencies found during an annual or complaint survey?

A

You will receive a form 2567 that will detail any deficiencies found during an annual or complaint survey.

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33
Q

33 You have how many days to file a request for administrative hearing to dispute a citation?

A

You have 20 days from the date you receive the 2567 to file a request for administrative hearing to dispute a citation.

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34
Q

34 What is an IDR?

A

An IDR is an informal dispute resolution (i.e. sending a letter to the survey team leader or requesting a face to face meeting with the local licensing office to dispute a citation)

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35
Q

35 What is a FDR?

A

An FDR is a formal dispute resolution which involves requesting a hearing before an administrative law judge within 20 days of receipt of the 2567.

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36
Q

36 What does OSCAR stand for?

A

OSCAR stands for Online Survey and Certification Reporting

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37
Q

37 Which entity created OSCAR and what is the purpose of this database?

A

The CMS created OSCAR and it is a national base that collects all of the information collected from the MDS data entered into the system from each of the 17;000 nursing homes in the nation.

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38
Q

38 Which 3 reports does a survey team pull off OSCAR before entering a facility to do an annual survey or complaint survey?

A

The survey team will print off: 1) the facility profile report 2) the facility characteristics report 3) resident level summary – from OSCAR before they enter your facility

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39
Q

39 Which survey type is the annual survey?

A

A standard survey is an annual survey

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40
Q

40 Which survey type a complaint survey?

A

An abbreviated standard survey is a complaint survey

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41
Q

41 Which survey type will you have if the surveyors find substandard care during an annual survey?

A

A extended survey would be imposed if the surveyors found substandard care during an annual survey.

42
Q

42 Which survey type with you be subject to if the surveyors find substandard care during a complaint survey?

A

A partial extended survey would be imposed if the surveyors find substandard care during a complaint survey.

43
Q

43 Which survey type is used to verify a facility corrected any cited deficiencies?

A

A re-survey is done to verify a facility corrected any cited deficiencies where the facility was cited for no more than a level F citation.

44
Q

44 What is a psychiatrist?

A

A psychiatrist is a physician who specializes in mental disorders.

45
Q

45 What is an MDS?

A

An MDS is a minimum data set.

46
Q

46 What is the purpose of the MDS?

A

The MDS is required to maintain a continuing evaluation of each residents physical; mental and psychosocial well-being throughout the year.

47
Q

47 What is the standard of care a facility must provide each resident per OBRA 1987?

A

A facility must maintain each resident’s highest practical physical; mental and psychosocial well being and minimize decline per OBRA 1987.

48
Q

48 What is the standard you must provide residents with respect to the facility environment per OBRA 1987?

A

You must provide residents an environment that is homelike and de-emphasizes the institutional look of most nursing homes.

49
Q

49 What is type 1 Diabetes and what treatment is required?

A

Type 1 Diabetes is insulin dependent diabetes and is treated with regular insulin injections

50
Q

50 What is type 2 diabetes and what treatment is required?

A

Type 2 diabetes is adult onset and is treated with diet; exercises and pills.

51
Q

51 What does CMS stand for?

A

CMS stands for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

52
Q

52 How often must a facility be surveyed?

A

A facility must be surveyed at every 15 months

53
Q

53 What is a class 1 deficiency?

A

A class 1 deficiency is no harm and no potential for harm

54
Q

54 What is a class 2 deficiency?

A

What is a class 2 deficiency is no harm but potential for harm

55
Q

55 What is a class 3 deficiency?

A

What is a class 3 deficiency is Harm but not immediate jeopardy

56
Q

56 What is a class 4 deficiency?

A

What is a class 4 deficiency is harm and immediate jeopardy

57
Q

57 A class A fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?

A

A class A fire extinguisher would be used to put out a PAPER OR WOOD fire.

58
Q

58 A class B fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?

A

A class B fire extinguisher would be used to put out a FLAMMABLE LIQUID FIRE like like kerosene.

59
Q

59 A class C fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?

A

A class C fire extinguisher would be used to put out an ELECTRICAL fire.

60
Q

60 A class D fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?

A

A class D fire extinguisher would be used to put out a flammable METALS fire like

61
Q

61 An MDS must be signed by a _______?

A

An MDS must be signed by a registered nurse.

62
Q

62 A care plan must be signed by a _______?

A

A care plan must be signed by a registered nurse.

63
Q

63 A comprehensive assessment must be completed within ___ days of admission to a facility?

A

A comprehensive assessment must be completed within 14 days of admission to a facility.

64
Q

64 A care plan must be completed within ___ days of the completion of the MDS?

A

A care plan must be completed within 7 days of the completion of the MDS.

65
Q

65 A significant change must be processed within ____ days?

A

A significant change must be processed within 14 days (the comprehensive assessment is the MDS and a significant change means doing a completely new MDS).

66
Q

66 A comprehensive assessment must be reviewed every ____ and completely updated ____.

A

A comprehensive assessment must be reviewed every 3 months (quarterly) and completely updated annually or since last significant change.

67
Q

67 A comprehensive care plan must be reviewed every ____ and completely updated ____.

A

A care plan must be reviewed every 3 months (quarterly) and completely updated annually. (The care plan must be updated every time the MDS is revised).

68
Q

68 What does HCFA stand for?

A

HCFA stands for the Health Care Financing Administration

69
Q

69 What does the HCFA do?

A

HCFA is the sister organization to the CMS. HCFA sets the rates for Medicare and establishes the RUG rates that SNF’s are paid.

70
Q

70 What does OIG stand for?

A

OIG is the office of the Inspector General. This is the inspector general for the Department of Health and Human Services which oversees the CMS and HCFA.

71
Q

71 What does the OIG do?

A

The OIG investigates Medicare and Medicaid Fraud

72
Q

72 Which national organization represents health care administrators?

A

The American College of Health Care Administrators represents health care administrators

73
Q

73 Which national organization represents for profit nursing homes?

A

The AHCA represents for profit nursing homes

74
Q

74 Which national organization represents non-profit long term care facilities?

A

The AAHSA represents non-profit long term care facilities

75
Q

75 What does DHHS stand for and what does the DHHS do?

A

DHHS stands for the Department of Health and Human Services and it administers the Social Security Administration; CMS; HCFA; and the FD.

76
Q

76 Which organization provides research to OSHA?

A

NIOSH provides research to OSHA

77
Q

77 What does OSHA stand for?

A

OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Act or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration which enforces the Act.

78
Q

78 What does OSHA do?

A

OSHA protects American workers by ensuring a safe workplace

79
Q

79 Who enforces OSHA?

A

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration enforces OSHA

80
Q

80 Which organization sets the standards for the Americans with Disabilities Act?

A

ANSI or the American National Standards Institute sets the standards for the for the American with Disabilities Act?

81
Q

81 Which organization develops and publishes the life safety code?

A

NFPA develops and publishes the life safety code

82
Q

82 Which life safety code do we follow?

A

WE follow the life safety code of 2000

83
Q

83 What is the purpose of the life safety code?

A

The life safety code is designed to prevent deaths due to structural fires

84
Q

84 The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of _____; ______; _____; _____ and ______.

A

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of (RRGCRN) _Race; religion; gender; color and national origin.

85
Q

85 Which entity enforces the Civil Rights Act?

A

The EEOC enforces the Civil Rights Act

86
Q

86 Which entity enforces the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act with respect to discrimination in employment based on physical disabilities?

A

The EEOC enforces the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act with respect to discrimination in employment based on physical disabilities?

87
Q

87 Which federal law prohibits discrimination against workers 40 years and older?

A

The Age in Discrimination Act prohibits discrimination against workers 40 years and older

88
Q

88 How many employees does an employer need to have to be subject to the federal law identified in question 87 above?

A

Need 20 employees to be subject to the Age in Discrimination Law

89
Q

89 Which entity enforces the Equal Employment Opportunity Act?

A

The EEOC enforces the Equal Employment Opportunity Act

90
Q

90 What is the standard we use today to determine if discrimination in hiring employees has occurred per the EEOA?

A

ADVERSE IMPACT is the standard we use today to determine if discrimination in hiring employees has occurred per the EEOA.

91
Q

91 If I hire 10 white people (the majority group); then how many minority people do I have to hire per EEOA?

A

If I hire 10 white people (the majority group); then I need to hire 80% of the majority or 80% x 10 = 8 minorities.

92
Q

92 If I need to hire additional minorities because I did not meet the minimum required by the EEOA; this is called ____ hiring.

A

Ratio Hiring

93
Q

93 What does NFPA stand for?

A

NFPA stands for National Fire Protection Association

94
Q

94 What does the NFPA do?

A

NFPA researches and publishes the life safety code. It does not enforce the code.

95
Q

95 What does ANSI stand for?

A

ANSI means the American National Standards Institute

96
Q

96 What does ANSI do?

A

ANSI develops and publishes the Americans with Disabilities Act. It does not enforce the Act.

97
Q

97 Which entity enforces the Life Safety Code?

A

NFPA enforces the Life Safety Code

98
Q

98 Which entity enforces the ADA with respect to access to public buildings by the handicapped?

A

The Architectural Barriers Compliance Board enforces the ADA with respect to access to public buildings by the handicapped.

99
Q

99 Which entity enforces the Discrimination in Pregnancy Act?

A

The EEOC enforces the Discrimination in Pregnancy Act

100
Q

100 What is the main objective of the Equal Pay Act?

A

The main objective of the Equal Pay Act is to ensure that females are paid the same wages as males for the same work.

NAB (8 decks)

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