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PEDIATRICS > 1. MCQ > Flashcards

1. MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

A 3-year-old boy has a height of 82 cm. His birth height was 50 cm, and birth
weight 3kg. What is the diagnosis?

  • A. Short stature
  • B. Hypostatura
  • C. Gigantism
  • D. Hypotrophy
  • E. Paratrophy
A
  • A. Short stature
  • B. Hypostatura
  • C. Gigantism
  • D. Hypotrophy
  • E. Paratrophy
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2
Q

A 6.5-month-old baby, who is on a breast milk feeding, has two kinds of solid
food. Starting from which age, the first solid food should be introduced to a
baby who has breast-feeding

  • A. 3 month
  • B. 4 month
  • C. 6 month
  • D. 5 month
  • E. 7 month
A
  • A. 3 month
  • B. 4 month
  • C. 6 month
  • D. 5 month
  • E. 7 month
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3
Q

A child can walk up and down the stairs alternating his feet by which of the
following age?

  • A. 12 months
  • B. 18 months
  • C. 24 months
  • D. 36 months
  • E. 48 months
A
  • A. 12 months
  • B. 18 months
  • C. 24 months
  • D. 36 months
  • E. 48 months
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4
Q

A neonate has a head circumference of 35 cms at birth. His ideal head
circumference will be 43 cms at

  • A. 4 months of age
  • B. 6 months of age
  • C. 8 months of age
  • D. 12 months of age
  • E. 24 months of age
A
  • A. 4 months of age
  • B. 6 months of age
  • C. 8 months of age
  • D. 12 months of age
  • E. 24 months of age
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5
Q

At what age does a child begin to walk?( )

  • A. 14 months of age
  • B. 8 months of age
  • C. 10 months of age
  • D. 16 months of age
  • E. 12 months of age
A
  • A. 14 months of age
  • B. 8 months of age
  • C. 10 months of age
  • D. 16 months of age
  • E. 12 months of age
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6
Q

Two carpal bones are radiologically seen in the wrist X-ray of most of the
children by the end of which years of age?

  • A. 1 year
  • B. 2 year
  • C. 3 year
  • D. 4 year
  • E. 5 year
A
  • A. 1 year
  • B. 2 year
  • C. 3 year
  • D. 4 year
  • E. 5 year
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7
Q

Which one of the following is not a clinical manifestation of zinc deficiency in
children

  • A. Dwarfism and hypogonadism
  • B. Liver and spleen enlargement
  • C. Impaired cell mediated immunity
  • D. Macrocytic anaemia
  • E. Loss of appetite
A
  • A. Dwarfism and hypogonadism
  • B. Liver and spleen enlargement
  • C. Impaired cell mediated immunity
  • D. Macrocytic anaemia
  • E. Loss of appetite
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8
Q

What clinical sign does Apgar score include?

  • A. heartbeat
  • B. breathing
  • C. color of skin
  • D. muscle tonus, reflexes
  • E. all answers are correct
A
  • A. heartbeat
  • B. breathing
  • C. color of skin
  • D. muscle tonus, reflexes
  • E. all answers are correct
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9
Q

What condition does not correspond to physicological changes of the skin of
newborn?

  • A. milia
  • B. physiological erythema
  • C. vesiculopustulosis
  • D. physiological jaundice
  • E. physiological desquamation
A
  • A. milia
  • B. physiological erythema
  • C. vesiculopustulosis
  • D. physiological jaundice
  • E. physiological desquamation
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10
Q

The healthy parents without harmful habits give birth to a mature boy without
complications. The average body weight of healthy mature boy is

  • A. 3200-3400g
  • B. 2000-2500g
  • C. 1500-2000g
  • D. 4500-5000g
  • E. 4000-4500g
A
  • A. 3200-3400g
  • B. 2000-2500g
  • C. 1500-2000g
  • D. 4500-5000g
  • E. 4000-4500g
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11
Q

The newborn developed jaundice at 6 days after birth, reaching a peak
between 2 to 3 weeks, serum bilirubin> 342 μmol/L, no symptoms of Bilirubin
encephalopathy, and jaundice had subsided significantly after manual
feeding.Laboratory: liver function is normal, blood bilirubin is not bound bilirubin
mainly. Should consider

  • A. Neonatal hepatitis
  • B. breast milk jaundice
  • C. Neonatal cytomegalovirus infection
  • D. Neonatal hemolysis
  • E. Neonatal sepsis
A
  • A. Neonatal hepatitis
  • B. breast milk jaundice
  • C. Neonatal cytomegalovirus infection
  • D. Neonatal hemolysis
  • E. Neonatal sepsis
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12
Q

A 4 days old male patient was born at home who was 40 weeks of gestation.
She refused milk for the past 1 day, her face was gray, the hands and feet were
cold, and the jaundice increased rapidly. The white blood cells were 20×10^9/L,
the neutrophils were 0.75, the lymphocytes were 0.25, and the total blood
bilirubin was 222.3 μmol/L. The most likely diagnosis is…. Translation
results Patient, male, 4 days old. The first child was born at home through the
birth canal at 40 weeks of gestation. She refused milk for the past 1 day, her
face was gray, the hands and feet were cold, and the jaundice increased rapidly.
The white blood cells were 20×10/L, the neutrophils were 0.75, the lymphocytes
were 0.25, and the total blood bilirubin was 222.3 μmol/L. The most likely
diagnosis is

  • A. Neonatal sepsis
  • B. Neonatal hypoglycemia
  • C. Neonatal scleredema
  • D. Bilirubin encephalopathy
  • E. Neonatal Tetanus
A
  • A. Neonatal sepsis
  • B. Neonatal hypoglycemia
  • C. Neonatal scleredema
  • D. Bilirubin encephalopathy
  • E. Neonatal Tetanus
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13
Q

A male child, 2 days after birth ，who was first pregnancy and 40 weeks
pregnant, delivered through the birth canal, with a history of asphyxia. On the
second day after birth, he was sleepy, slightly cyanotic, breathing 32 times / min,
heart rate 95 times / min, anterior fontanelle tense, heart sound low and blunt,
limb muscle tension decreased, and hugging reflex disappeared. The most likely
diagnosis is ()

  • A. inhalation syndrome
  • B. wet lung
  • C. neonatal hyaline membrane disease
  • D. hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
  • E. hypoglycemia
A
  • A. inhalation syndrome
  • B. wet lung
  • C. neonatal hyaline membrane disease
  • D. hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
  • E. hypoglycemia
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14
Q

A 3 days old female was second birth and full-term spontaneous labor.
Jaundice began 15 hours after birth, and the total serum bilirubin was 102 μmol /
L. The serum bilirubin was 204μmol/L and 306μmol/L on day 2 and 3. Which test
is preferred for clear diagnosis

  • A. Blood group and blood group antibody examination
  • B. liver function examination
  • C. determination of G-6-PD activity of red blood cells
  • D. blood culture and leukocyte classification count
  • E. determination of serum alpha fetoprotein content
A
  • A. Blood group and blood group antibody examination
  • B. liver function examination
  • C. determination of G-6-PD activity of red blood cells
  • D. blood culture and leukocyte classification count
  • E. determination of serum alpha fetoprotein content
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15
Q

The three major indicators of neonatal asphyxia resuscitation evaluation are

  • A. breathing, heart rate and primitive reflex
  • B. breathing, heart rate and blood oxygen saturation
  • C. crying, heart rate and skin color
  • D. crying, heart rate and primitive reflex
  • E. breathing, heart rate and body temperature
A
  • A. breathing, heart rate and primitive reflex
  • B. breathing, heart rate and blood oxygen saturation
  • C. crying, heart rate and skin color
  • D. crying, heart rate and primitive reflex
  • E. breathing, heart rate and body temperature
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16
Q

Congenital heart disease ventricular septal defect is referred to ()
when it is called Eisenmenger syndrome

  • A. Right to left shunt occurs at ventricular level
  • B. When there is bidirectional shunt at the ventricular level
  • C. Secondary pulmonary hypertension and bidirectional shunt occurred at
    ventricular level
  • D. When the right atrium dilates
  • E. Left to right shunt occurs at ventricular level
A
  • A. Right to left shunt occurs at ventricular level
  • B. When there is bidirectional shunt at the ventricular level
  • C. Secondary pulmonary hypertension and bidirectional shunt occurred at
    ventricular level
  • D. When the right atrium dilates
  • E. Left to right shunt occurs at ventricular level
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17
Q

Congenital heart disease is a right-to-left bifurcation ( )

  • A. Tetralogy of Fallot
  • B. Atrial septal defect
  • C. Ventical septal defect
  • D. PDA
A
  • A. Tetralogy of Fallot
  • B. Atrial septal defect
  • C. Ventical septal defect
  • D. PDA
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18
Q

The main pathological anatomy that determines the condition of tetralogy of
Fallot is ( )

  • A. Ventical septal defect
  • B. Aortic straddle
  • C. Right ventricular hypertension
  • D. Obstruction of the right ventricular outflow tract
A
  • A. Ventical septal defect
  • B. Aortic straddle
  • C. Right ventricular hypertension
  • D. Obstruction of the right ventricular outflow tract
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19
Q

Which part of the normal fetal circulation has the highest blood oxygen
content ( )

  • A. Umbilical artery
  • B. Umbilical vein
  • C. Right atrium
  • D. Right ventrical
  • E. The aorta
A
  • A. Umbilical artery
  • B. Umbilical vein
  • C. Right atrium
  • D. Right ventrical
  • E. The aorta
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20
Q

Which part of pulmonary stenosis is the most common ( )

  • A. Pulmonary valve stenosis
  • B. Subvalvular pulmonary stenosis
  • C. Infundibular stenosis
  • D. Supravalvular pulmonary stensosis
A
  • A. Pulmonary valve stenosis
  • B. Subvalvular pulmonary stenosis
  • C. Infundibular stenosis
  • D. Supravalvular pulmonary stensosis
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21
Q

The best treatment for acute Kawasaki disease is ( )

  • A. Glucocorticoid
  • B. Aspirin
  • C. IV of immunoglobulin
  • D. Glucocorticoid + aspirin
  • E. IV of immunoglobulin + aspirin
A
  • A. Glucocorticoid
  • B. Aspirin
  • C. IV of immunoglobulin
  • D. Glucocorticoid + aspirin
  • E. IV of immunoglobulin + aspirin
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22
Q

The purpose of early use of immunoglobulin in Kawasaki disease is to ( )

  • A. Alleviate the symptoms
  • B. Shortening course
  • C. Improve body resistance
  • D. Reduce the incidence of coronary artery disease
  • E. Reduce lymphadenopathy
A
  • A. Alleviate the symptoms
  • B. Shortening course
  • C. Improve body resistance
  • D. Reduce the incidence of coronary artery disease
  • E. Reduce lymphadenopathy
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23
Q

For Kawasaki disease with coronary artery damage, the time of taking aspirin
should be ( )

  • A. Fever back
  • B. After the platelet count drops to normal
  • C. Long-term use until coronary artery returns to normal
  • D. After ESR drops to normal
  • E. Course of treatment is 4-8 weeks
A
  • A. Fever back
  • B. After the platelet count drops to normal
  • C. Long-term use until coronary artery returns to normal
  • D. After ESR drops to normal
  • E. Course of treatment is 4-8 weeks
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24
Q

Which of the following is not the characteristic of a rheumatic fever rash ( )

  • A. Occurs in high fever
  • B. The rash appears or recedes with the rise and fall of body temperature
  • C. Flecked with a reddish hue, can be fused into a film
  • D. It is more common in the chest and proximal extremities
  • E. More often in the face
A
  • A. Occurs in high fever
  • B. The rash appears or recedes with the rise and fall of body temperature
  • C. Flecked with a reddish hue, can be fused into a film
  • D. It is more common in the chest and proximal extremities
  • E. More often in the face
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25
Q

The valves most commonly involved in rheumatic endocarditis are ( )

  • A. Mitral valve
  • B. Aortic valve
  • C. Pulmonary valve
  • D. Tricuspid valve
  • E. Mitral valve and tricuspid valve
A
  • A. Mitral valve
  • B. Aortic valve
  • C. Pulmonary valve
  • D. Tricuspid valve
  • E. Mitral valve and tricuspid valve
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26
Q

The main pathological changes of acute glomerulonephritis is ( )

  • A. Diffuse proliferation of endothelial mesangial cells
  • B. Hump-like deposits in the glomerular subepithelium
  • C. IgG deposition
  • D. Numerous crescent bodies formed in the glomerulus
  • E. Leukocyte infiltration
A
  • A. Diffuse proliferation of endothelial mesangial cells
  • B. Hump-like deposits in the glomerular subepithelium
  • C. IgG deposition
  • D. Numerous crescent bodies formed in the glomerulus
  • E. Leukocyte infiltration
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27
Q

The main clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis is ( )

  • A. Proteinuria, azotemia, hypertension
  • B. Edema, oliguria, hematuria, hypertension
  • C. Edema, oliguria, proteinuria, hematuria
  • D. Edema, oliguria, hypertension, proteinuria
  • E. Hematuria, oliguria, hypertension, azotemia
A
  • A. Proteinuria, azotemia, hypertension
  • B. Edema, oliguria, hematuria, hypertension
  • C. Edema, oliguria, proteinuria, hematuria
  • D. Edema, oliguria, hypertension, proteinuria
  • E. Hematuria, oliguria, hypertension, azotemia
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28
Q

The following is about the clinical manifestation of acute glomerulonephritis,
the view ( ) is inconsistent

  • A. Pitting edema
  • B. Almost all have hematuria at the onset
  • C. Have high blood pressure
  • D. A sudden rise in blood pressure suggests hypertensive encephalopathy
  • E. Gross hematuria usually disappeared in 1-2 weeks
A
  • A. Pitting edema
  • B. Almost all have hematuria at the onset
  • C. Have high blood pressure
  • D. A sudden rise in blood pressure suggests hypertensive encephalopathy
  • E. Gross hematuria usually disappeared in 1-2 weeks
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29
Q

The cause of acute glomerulonephritis in children are sudden acceleration of
breathing, the sound of wet rales in both lungs, accelerated heart rate,
enlargement of liver and indignant jugular vein is ( )

  • A. Merger of pneumonia
  • B. Severe circulation congestion
  • C. Pleural effusion
  • D. Pulmonary edema
  • E. Acute renal failure
A
  • A. Merger of pneumonia
  • B. Severe circulation congestion
  • C. Pleural effusion
  • D. Pulmonary edema
  • E. Acute renal failure
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30
Q

The necessary means to determine the pathological type and extent of
glomerulopathy are ( )

  • A. Measurement of glomerular filtration rate
  • B. Renal ultrasound
  • C. Renal biopsy
  • D. Urine examination
  • E. Renal angiography
A
  • A. Measurement of glomerular filtration rate
  • B. Renal ultrasound
  • C. Renal biopsy
  • D. Urine examination
  • E. Renal angiography
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31
Q

> 6 years and adults hematopoies ( )

  • A. in all bones
  • B. Spleen
  • C. lymph nodes
  • D. in flat bone
A
  • A. in all bones
  • B. Spleen
  • C. lymph nodes
  • D. in flat bone
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32
Q

The first cross between lymphocytes and neutrophils during the ( )

  • A. 4-6 years
  • B. 4-6 days
  • C. 7-8 years
  • D. 7-8 days
A
  • A. 4-6 years
  • B. 4-6 days
  • C. 7-8 years
  • D. 7-8 days
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33
Q

The mean corpuscular volume MCV(fl) of macrocytic anemia is( )

  • A. >94
  • B. 80~94
  • C. <84
  • D. <80
A
  • A. >94
  • B. 80~94
  • C. <84
  • D. <80
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34
Q

The iron supply for hematopoiesis is normal in the( ) stage of iron deficiency
anemia

  • A. ID
  • B. IDE
  • C. IDA
  • D. IDM
A
  • A. ID
  • B. IDE
  • C. IDA
  • D. IDM
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35
Q

Nutritional iron deficiency anemia is often happened during ( )

  • A. 3-6 months
  • B. 6-24 months
  • C. 1-3 years
  • D. 6-9 years
A
  • A. 3-6 months
  • B. 6-24 months
  • C. 1-3 years
  • D. 6-9 years
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36
Q

Which choice is not belongs to primitive reflex( )

  • A. stiff neck
  • B. The moro reflex
  • C. Tonic neck reflex
  • D. Crawl reflex
  • E. Step reflex
A
  • A. stiff neck
  • B. The moro reflex
  • C. Tonic neck reflex
  • D. Crawl reflex
  • E. Step reflex
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37
Q

Transillumination of skull with electric torch: width >( ) cm suggest subdural
effusion.

  • A. 2cm
  • B. 2.5cm
  • C. 3.0cm
  • D. 3.5cm
  • E. 4cm
A
  • A. 2cm
  • B. 2.5cm
  • C. 3.0cm
  • D. 3.5cm
  • E. 4cm
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38
Q

Which is the Bacterial meningitis csf examination characteristic( )
Appearance WBC(*106
) Protein Glucose Chloride Pandy’s Pressure

  • A. Clear 0-10 0.2-0.4 2.2-4.4 117-132 - 0.69-1.96
  • B. Turbid >100 1-5 <2.2 <117 ++-+++ ↑
  • C. Clear 0-100 0.2-1 2.2-4.4 117-132 - –++ Normal
  • D. Cloudy 50-500 >0.4 <2.2 <117 +-+++ ↑
  • E. Viscous 10-500 >0.4 <2.2 <117 +-+++ ↑
A
  • A. Clear 0-10 0.2-0.4 2.2-4.4 117-132 - 0.69-1.96
  • **B. Turbid >100 1-5 <2.2 <117 ++-+++ ↑
  • C. Clear 0-100 0.2-1 2.2-4.4 117-132 - –++ Normal
  • D. Cloudy 50-500 >0.4 <2.2 <117 +-+++ ↑
  • E. Viscous 10-500 >0.4 <2.2 <117 +-+++ ↑
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39
Q

Bacterial meningitis show many manifestation, which is not the CNS
manifestation ( )

  • A. Bulging fontanelle
  • B. Stiff neck
  • C. Convulsion
  • D. Fever
  • E. Kernig and Brudzinski signs (+)
A
  • A. Bulging fontanelle
  • B. Stiff neck
  • C. Convulsion
  • D. Fever
  • E. Kernig and Brudzinski signs (+)
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40
Q

Which is not the type of ( )

  • A. Viral meningitis
  • B. Viral encephalitis
  • C. Viral meningoencephalitis
  • D. virus caused byherpes simplex virus
A
  • A. Viral meningitis
  • B. Viral encephalitis
  • C. Viral meningoencephalitis
  • D. virus caused byherpes simplex virus
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41
Q

Which of the following hormone( ) stimulated by pituitary ,then stimulates the
thyroid gland to take up iodine and synthesize active thyroid hormones, T3 and
T4.

  • A. TRH
  • B. TSH
  • C. T3
  • D. T4
A
  • A. TRH
  • B. TSH
  • C. T3
  • D. T4
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42
Q

Which following ( ) is not the bioaction of thyroid hormones.

  • A. Promote synthesis of protein
  • B. Promote absorption of glucose
  • C. Promote growth and development
  • D. Reduce fatty acid oxidation
A
  • A. Promote synthesis of protein
  • B. Promote absorption of glucose
  • C. Promote growth and development
  • D. Reduce fatty acid oxidation
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43
Q

The clinical Manifestation Congenital nongoitrous hypothyroidism including
the followings except( )

  • A. Clinical Manifestation
  • B. Growth retardation
  • C. Cry freqently
  • D. Hypofunction
A
  • A. Clinical Manifestation
  • B. Growth retardation
  • C. Cry freqently
  • D. Hypofunction
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44
Q

The gorwth hormone value of gorwth hormone deficiency is ( )

  • A. <5 μg/L
  • B. <10 μg/L
  • C. <15 μg/L
  • D. 20 μg/L
A
  • **A. <5 μg/L
  • B. <10 μg/L
  • C. <15 μg/L
  • D. 20 μg/L
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45
Q

The delayed bone age of gorwth hormone deficiency is ( )

  • A. ≥1 year
  • B. ≥1.5 years
  • C. ≥2 years
  • D. ≥2.5 years
A
  • A. ≥1 year
  • B. ≥1.5 years
    * C. ≥2 years
  • D. ≥2.5 years
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46
Q

Febrile Seizure is common disorder occurring in infants with fever and aged

a. 5 to 10 years
b. 6 months to 4 years
c. >= 10 years
d. <= 6 years
e. >=5 years

A

a. 5 to 10 years
b. 6 months to 4 years
c. >= 10 years
d. <= 6 years
e. >=5 years

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47
Q
  1. Neonatal period is from time of umbilical cord to

a. 22 days of life
b. 30 days of life
c. 7 days of life
d. 14 days of life
e. 28 days of life

A

a. 22 days of life
b. 30 days of life
c. 7 days of life
d. 14 days of life
e. 28 days of life

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48
Q

According to WHO, the minimum hemoglobin level for a child aged 6 to 14 is

a. 130g/L
b. 90g/L
c. 110g/L
d. 1g/L
e. 145g/L

A

a. 130g/L
b. 90g/L
c. 110g/L
d. 1g/L
e. 145g/L

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49
Q

The prognosis of Kawasaki disease depends on

a. Fever
b. Edema or erythema of hand and feet
c. Development of cardiovascular complications
d. Lymphadenopathy
e. Rash

A

a. Fever
b. Edema or erythema of hand and feet
c. Development of cardiovascular complications
d. Lymphadenopathy
e. Rash

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50
Q

The closure time of anterior fontanelle is usually between

a. 6 to 12 years of age
b. 3 to 6 years of age
c. 1 to 2 years of age
d. 20 to 24 months of age
e. 12 to 18 months of age

A

a. 6 to 12 years of age
b. 3 to 6 years of age
c. 1 to 2 years of age
d. 20 to 24 months of age
e. 12 to 18 months of age

51
Q

Level of glucose and chloride may be normal in patients with

a. TB meningitis
b. Viral enchepalitis
c. Fungal meningitis
d. Bacterial meningitis
e. Purulent meningitis

A

a. TB meningitis
b. Viral enchepalitis
c. Fungal meningitis
d. Bacterial meningitis
e. Purulent meningitis

52
Q

Standard of diagnosis for neonatal mild anemia

a. 140 – 110 g/L
b. 121-100 g/L
c. 144-120 g/L
d. 110-90 g/L
e. 100-90 g/L

A

a. 140 – 110 g/L
b. 121-100 g/L
c. 144-120 g/L
d. 110-90 g/L
e. 100-90 g/L

53
Q

Alopecia in occiput could be found in children with

a. Pneumonia
b. Anemia
c. Rickets
d. TOF
e. Diarrhea

A

a. Pneumonia
b. Anemia
c. Rickets
d. TOF
e. Diarrhea

54
Q

In patients with hypertonic dehydration, the serum sodium may be

a. 0 mmol/L
b. 130-150 mmol/L
c. >150 mmol/L
d. <=130 mmol/L
e. <=100 mmol/L

A

a. 0 mmol/L
b. 130-150 mmol/L
c. >150 mmol/L
d. <=130 mmol/L
e. <=100 mmol/L

55
Q

Average length of neonate is

a. 100
b. 70
c. 50
d. 60
e. 40

A

a. 100
b. 70
c. 50
d. 60
e. 40

56
Q

Most important trigger for asthma

a. Exercise
b. Allergy
c. Infections
d. Environment
e. Smoke

A

a. Exercise
b. Allergy
c. Infections
d. Environment
e. Smoke

57
Q

APGAR score criteria for neonatal severe asphyxia

a. 0-4
b. 4-7
c. 0-3
d. 0-1
e. 5-8

A

a. 0-4
b. 4-7
c. 0-3
d. 0-1
e. 5-8

58
Q

Highest no of deciduous teeth is

a. 28
b. 20
c. 24
d. 32
e. 18

A

a. 28
b. 20
c. 24
d. 32
e. 18

59
Q

IDA should be used until

a. Heme and RBC count recovered
b. 2 months after heme level comes to normal
c. 1 month after heme level comes to normal
d. Heme level returned to normal
e. Symptoms disappear

A

a. Heme and RBC count recovered
b. 2 months after heme level comes to normal
c. 1 month after heme level comes to normal
d. Heme level returned to normal
e. Symptoms disappear

60
Q

Preterm infants are born before

a. 35 weeks
b. 34 weeks
c. 42 weeks
d. 37 weeks
e. 40 weeks

A

a. 35 weeks
b. 34 weeks
c. 42 weeks
d. 37 weeks
e. 40 weeks

61
Q

Squatting phenomenon is found in

a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Patient ductus arteriosus
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Atrial septal defect
e. Tetralogy of fallot

A

a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Patient ductus arteriosus
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Atrial septal defect
e. Tetralogy of fallot

62
Q

Which is not a common manifestation of primary pulmonary TB in children

a. Fever
b. Slim down
c. Hilar node enlargement
d. Highly sensitive to tuberculin
e. Cavitation in lung

A

a. Fever
b. Slim down
c. Hilar node enlargement
d. Highly sensitive to tuberculin
e. Cavitation in lung

63
Q

Which antibiotic is most suitable for mycoplasmal pneumonia

a. Nystatin
b. Erythromycin
c. Cephalexin
d. Compound sulfamethoxazole
e. Penicillin

A

a. Nystatin
b. Erythromycin
c. Cephalexin
d. Compound sulfamethoxazole
e. Penicillin

64
Q

Rotavirus is the major cause of epidemic viral enteritis in infancy especially
during

a. Winter
b. Whole year
c. Autumn
d. Summer
e. Spring

A

a. Winter
b. Whole year
c. Autumn
d. Summer
e. Spring

65
Q

Chromosomal karyotype of 47, XY, +21 could be found in patients with

a. TOF
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Down syndrome
d. Hypopituitarism
e. Hypothyroidism

A

a. TOF
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Down syndrome
d. Hypopituitarism
e. Hypothyroidism

66
Q

In patients with primary hypothyroidism, the labs may show

a. Decreased serum T4 and TSH
b. Increased serum T4 and TSH
c. Decreased T4 and increased TSH
d. Normal T4 and increased TSH
e. Increased serum T4 and decreased TSH

A

a. Decreased serum T4 and TSH
b. Increased serum T4 and TSH
c. Decreased T4 and increased TSH
d. Normal T4 and increased TSH
e. Increased serum T4 and decreased TSH

67
Q

Which is the most common pathogen involved in acute glomerulonephritis

a. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
b. Rotavirus
c. Cocxsakie virus
d. Influenza
e. Spirochete

A

a. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
b. Rotavirus
c. Cocxsakie virus
d. Influenza
e. Spirochete

68
Q

Thickness of subcutaneous fat of abdominal wall in patients with second degree
malnutrition is

A

a. 4 to 8 cms
b. 0 cms
c. 2 cms
d. 4 cms
e. 8 cms

69
Q

Pharyngoconjunctival virus is caused by

a. Rhinovirus
b. Influenza virus
c. Corona virus
d. Adenovirus
e. Group A cocxsakie virus

A

a. Rhinovirus
b. Influenza virus
c. Corona virus
d. Adenovirus
e. Group A cocxsakie virus

70
Q

In the metabolism of Vitamin D, the most active form is

a. Cholecalciferol
b. 25-Hydroxy cholecalciferol
c. 24, 25- dihydroxy cholecalciferol
d. 1, 25 Dihydroxy cholecalciferol
e. Ergo calciferol

A

a. Cholecalciferol
b. 25-Hydroxy cholecalciferol
c. 24, 25- dihydroxy cholecalciferol
d. 1, 25 Dihydroxy cholecalciferol
e. Ergo calciferol

71
Q

Which is the most common cause of malnutrition

a. Neonatal sepsis
b. Inadequate food intake
c. Sufficient food supply
d. Pneumonia
e. Diarrhea

A

a. Neonatal sepsis
b. Inadequate food intake
c. Sufficient food supply
d. Pneumonia
e. Diarrhea

72
Q

Following are the characteristics of bronchiolitis except

a. Asthmatic
b. Continuous fever
c. Bubble sounds
d. Expiratory wheezing
e. Wheezing

A

a. Asthmatic
b. Continuous fever
c. Bubble sounds
d. Expiratory wheezing
e. Wheezing

73
Q

Weight of low birth weight infant is

a. < 1500gms at birth
b. < 3000gms
c. < 3500 gms
d. < 2000 gms
e. < 2500 gms

A

a. < 1500gms at birth
b. < 3000gms
c. < 3500 gms
d. < 2000 gms
e. < 2500 gms

74
Q

Kwashiorkor results from a deficiency of

a. Folate
b. Protein
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin B12
e. Calcium

A

a. Folate
b. Protein
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin B12
e. Calcium

75
Q

Which of the following factors lead to neonatal hyperbilirubinemia?

a. Shortened neonatal RBC life span
b. Impaired excretion of conjugated bilirubin
c. Limited conjugation of bilirubin in liver
d. Increase in enterohepatic circulation
e. All of above

A

a. Shortened neonatal RBC life span
b. Impaired excretion of conjugated bilirubin
c. Limited conjugation of bilirubin in liver
d. Increase in enterohepatic circulation
e. All of above

76
Q

Which one is the indication for oral rehydration therapy

a. Severe dehydration
b. Anemia
c. Mild dehydration
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
e. Malnutrition

A

a. Severe dehydration
b. Anemia
c. Mild dehydration
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
e. Malnutrition

77
Q

In which congenital heart disease, P2 is usually weakened?

a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Atrial septal defect
e. Heart failure

A

a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Atrial septal defect
e. Heart failure

78
Q

A doctor finds the continuous machinery murmur at the upper and left sternal
border of a child. Thus, the doctor considers the child may suffered from

a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Atrial septal defect
e. Pulmonary stenosis

A

a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Atrial septal defect
e. Pulmonary stenosis

79
Q

Which pathological type is most common in nephrotic syndrome

a. Minimal change disease
b. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
c. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
d. Membranous glomerulonephritis
e. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

a. Minimal change disease
b. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
c. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
d. Membranous glomerulonephritis
e. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

80
Q

The duration of long-term steroid therapy of nephrotic syndrome is

a. 9 months
b. 3-6 months
c. >/ 6months
d. 3 months
e. >/ 3 months

A

a. 9 months
b. 3-6 months
c. >/ 6months
d. 3 months
e. >/ 3 months

81
Q

The levels of glucose and chloride in cerebrospinal fluid may be normal in
patients with

a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Fungal meningitis
c. Tuberculous meningitis
d. Viral encephalitis
e. Purulent meningitis

A

a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Fungal meningitis
c. Tuberculous meningitis
d. Viral encephalitis
e. Purulent meningitis

82
Q

Nutritional megaloblastic anemia should be treated with

a. Iron
b. Vitamin B12 and folate
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
e. Calcium

A

a. Iron
b. Vitamin B12 and folate
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
e. Calcium

83
Q

Child has edema, proteinuria, hyperlipemia and hypoproteinemia. His illness may
be

a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Renal failure
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Urinary tract infection
e. Heart failure

A

a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Renal failure
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Urinary tract infection
e. Heart failure

84
Q

Full-term infants are born between

a. 32-37 weeks of gestation
b. 37-42 weeks of gestation
c. 40-42 weeks of gestation
d. 35-40 weeks of gestation
e. 35-35 weeks of gestation

A

a. 32-37 weeks of gestation
b. 37-42 weeks of gestation
c. 40-42 weeks of gestation
d. 35-40 weeks of gestation
e. 35-35 weeks of gestation

85
Q

The thickness of subcutaneous fat of abdominal wall in patients with III degree
of malnutrition is

A

a. 0.4 cm
b. 0.8 cm
c. 0 cm
d. 0.4-0.8 cm
e. 0.2 cm

86
Q

Which one is abnormal in neonate

a. APGAR score is 7 at birth
b. Epstein pearls
c. Pseudo-menses (idk?)
d. Moro reflex
e. Rooting reflex

A

a. APGAR score is 7 at birth
b. Epstein pearls
c. Pseudo-menses (idk?)
d. Moro reflex
e. Rooting reflex

87
Q

In full-term infants with physiological jaundice, the appearance of jaundice
disappears

a. By the end of the 4 weeks
b. By the end of the 3 weeks
c. By the end of the 2 weeks
d. By the end of the 1 weeks
e. By the end of the 6 weeks

A

a. By the end of the 4 weeks
b. By the end of the 3 weeks
c. By the end of the 2 weeks
d. By the end of the 1 weeks
e. By the end of the 6 weeks

88
Q

Hyaline membrane disease (respiratory distress syndrome) usually occurs in

a. Full-term infants
b. Pre-term infants
c. Post-term infants
d. Normal birth weight infants
e. Height birth weight infants

A

a. Full-term infants
b. Pre-term infants
c. Post-term infants
d. Normal birth weight infants
e. Height birth weight infants

89
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome is caused by a deficiency of

a. Oxygen inhalation
b. Protein
c. Pulmonary surfactant
d. Glucose
e. Lipid

A

a. Oxygen inhalation
b. Protein
c. Pulmonary surfactant
d. Glucose
e. Lipid

90
Q

Hemolytic jaundice of newborn usually occurs in infants with

a. Blood type A, and his mother’s blood type is usually A
b. Blood type O, and his mother’s blood type is usually A
c. Blood type A, and his mother’s blood type is usually B
d. Blood type A or B, and his mother’s blood type is usually O
e. Blood type O, and his mother’s blood type is usually A or B

A

a. Blood type A, and his mother’s blood type is usually A
b. Blood type O, and his mother’s blood type is usually A
c. Blood type A, and his mother’s blood type is usually B
d. Blood type A or B, and his mother’s blood type is usually O (!!)
e. Blood type O, and his mother’s blood type is usually A or B

91
Q

The subdural effusion is usually a complication of

a. Viral encephalitis
b. Tuberculous meningitis
c. Fungal meningitis
d. Purulent meningitis
e. Febrile seizures

A

a. Viral encephalitis
b. Tuberculous meningitis
c. Fungal meningitis
d. Purulent meningitis
e. Febrile seizures

92
Q

Insufficiency of exposure to sunshine is a reason of

a. Anemia
b. Malnutrition
c. Rickets of vitamin D deficiency
d. Hypothyroidism
e. Hypoglycemia

A

a. Anemia
b. Malnutrition
c. Rickets of vitamin D deficiency
d. Hypothyroidism
e. Hypoglycemia

93
Q

Mental retardation could be usually found in patients with

a. Anemia
b. Pneumonia
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Growth Hormone deficiency
e. Hypoglycemia

A

a. Anemia
b. Pneumonia
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Growth Hormone deficiency
e. Hypoglycemia

94
Q

Brain tumor may be a reason of

a. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
b. Viral encephalitis
c. Hypopituitarism
d. Hypertensive encephalopathy
e. Febrile seizures

A

a. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
b. Viral encephalitis
c. Hypopituitarism
d. Hypertensive encephalopathy
e. Febrile seizures

95
Q

Decreased plasma volume may occur in patients with

a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Heart failure
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Urinary tract infection
e. Pneumonia

A

a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Heart failure
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Urinary tract infection
e. Pneumonia

96
Q

Immunosuppressant and cytotoxic drugs could be used in patients with

a. Pneumonia
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Acute glomerulonephritis
d. Infantile diarrhea
e. Heart failure

A

a. Pneumonia
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Acute glomerulonephritis
d. Infantile diarrhea
e. Heart failure

97
Q

. Phototherapy is the main treatment for the patients with

a. Neonatal sepsis
b. Hyaline membrane disease
c. Hemolytic jaundice of newborn
d. Malnutrition
e. Kwashiorkor

A

a. Neonatal sepsis
b. Hyaline membrane disease
c. Hemolytic jaundice of newborn
d. Malnutrition
e. Kwashiorkor

98
Q

A child has seizures and fever, aged 1 year and without symptoms and signs of
nervous system. His illness may be

a. Viral encephalitis
b. Febrile seizures
c. Bacterial meningitis
d. Fungal meningitis
e. Brain tumor

A

a. Viral encephalitis
b. Febrile seizures
c. Bacterial meningitis
d. Fungal meningitis
e. Brain tumor

99
Q

Neonatal period is from tying umbilical cord to

a. 7 days of life
b. 14 days of life
c. 28 days of life
d. 30 days of life
e. 22 days of life

A

a. 7 days of life
b. 14 days of life
c. 28 days of life
d. 30 days of life
e. 22 days of life

100
Q

Factors influencing growth and development include

a. Genetic factors
b. Nutrition
c. Maternal factors
d. Social factors
e. All-above mentioned

A

a. Genetic factors
b. Nutrition
c. Maternal factors
d. Social factors
e. All-above mentioned

101
Q

The normal age for deciduous teeth eruption is

a. From 2 months to 12 months of age
b. From 4 months to 10 months of age
c. From 10 months to 18 months of age
d. From 1 year to 2 years of age
e. From 1 month to 3 months of age

A

a. From 2 months to 12 months of age
b. From 4 months to 10 months of age
c. From 10 months to 18 months of age
d. From 1 year to 2 years of age
e. From 1 month to 3 months of age

102
Q

BCG vaccine is used to immunize against

a. Measles
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tuberculosis
d. Diphtheria
e. Tetanus

A

a. Measles
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tuberculosis
d. Diphtheria
e. Tetanus

103
Q

Rheumatic fever is the immunoreactivity disease which occurs following the
infection caused by

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Group A, B-hemolytic streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Hemophilus influenzae
e. Escherichia coli

A

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Group A, B-hemolytic streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Hemophilus influenzae
e. Escherichia coli

104
Q

Acute phase reaction in rheumatic fever is indicated by the

a. Accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. Elevated C-reactive protein
c. Leukocytosis
d. Prolonged PR interval
e. All above-mentioned

A

a. Accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. Elevated C-reactive protein
c. Leukocytosis
d. Prolonged PR interval
e. All above-mentioned

105
Q

Which of the following is correct about asthma?

a. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways
b. Asthma is an infectious disease caused by different pathogens
c. Large airway inflammation is a major factor in asthma
d. Genetic factors are not involved in the pathogenesis of asthma
e. Absence of wheezing in the lung fields indicates less possibility of
asthma

A

a. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways
b. Asthma is an infectious disease caused by different pathogens
c. Large airway inflammation is a major factor in asthma
d. Genetic factors are not involved in the pathogenesis of asthma
e. Absence of wheezing in the lung fields indicates less possibility of
asthma

106
Q

When the solid foods should be introduced for infants?

a. 2 months of age
b. 4-6 months of age
c. 8 months of age
d. 10 months of age
e. 1 year of age

A

a. 2 months of age
b. 4-6 months of age
c. 8 months of age
d. 10 months of age
e. 1 year of age

107
Q

Herpangina is caused by

a. Group A coxsackie viruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Coronaviruses
d. Influenza viruses
e. Rhinoviruses

A

a. Group A coxsackie viruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Coronaviruses
d. Influenza viruses
e. Rhinoviruses

108
Q

Behavioral problems in children include
a. Thumb-sucking
b. Nocturia
c. Breath holding spells
d. Syndrome of rubbing lower limbs (Masturbation)
e. All-above mentioned

A

a. Thumb-sucking
b. Nocturia
c. Breath holding spells
d. Syndrome of rubbing lower limbs (Masturbation)
e. All-above mentioned

109
Q

Which period after birth do we call pre-school period

a. 1-2 years
b. 7-9 years
c. 3-5 years
d. 3-7 (6) years
e. 5 (6)-8 years

A

a. 1-2 years
b. 7-9 years
c. 3-5 years
d. 3-7 (6) years
e. 5 (6)-8 years

110
Q

Of the following, which can be seen in both bacterial endocarditis and acute
rhematic fever

a. Erythema marginatum
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Petechiae
d. Subcutaneous nodulese
e. None of the above

A

a. Erythema marginatum
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Petechiae
d. Subcutaneous nodulese
e. None of the above

111
Q

Perioral rash, pigmentation of skin creases and neuritis are seen in deficiency of

a. Copper
b. Iron
c. Zinc
d. Biotin
e. Magnesium

A

a. Copper
b. Iron
c. Zinc
d. Biotin
e. Magnesium

112
Q

The complications of severe pneumonia are

a. Cardiac failure
b. Toxic intestinal paralysis
c. Respiratory failure
d. All of the above
e. Toxic encephalopathy

A

a. Cardiac failure
b. Toxic intestinal paralysis
c. Respiratory failure
d. All of the above
e. Toxic encephalopathy

113
Q

Serum sodium concentration for isotonic dehydration is

a. 130-150 mmol/L
b. 170-200 mmol/L
c. 60-100 mmol/L
d. 150-170 mmol/L
e. 100-120 mmol/L

A

a. 130-150 mmol/L
b. 170-200 mmol/L
c. 60-100 mmol/L
d. 150-170 mmol/L
e. 100-120 mmol/L

114
Q

Iron deficiency anemia should be used until

a. Two months after hemoglobin levels returned to normal
b. Hemoglobin levels returned to normal
c. Symptoms disappear
d. Hemoglobin and red blood cell count recovered
e. Use for 1 month after hemoglobin levels

A

a. Two months after hemoglobin levels returned to normal
b. Hemoglobin levels returned to normal
c. Symptoms disappear
d. Hemoglobin and red blood cell count recovered
e. Use for 1 month after hemoglobin levels

115
Q

APGAR score criterion for neonatal mild aspyhyxia was

a. 0-4
b. 4-8
c. 4-7
d. 5-8
e. 0-1

A

a. 0-4
b. 4-8
c. 4-7
d. 5-8
e. 0-1

116
Q

What is the most common pathogen seen in pediatric UTIs?

a. S. saprophyticus
b. S. aureus
c. H. influenza
d. E. coli
e. C. difficile

A

a. S. saprophyticus
b. S. aureus
c. H. influenza
d. E. coli
e. C. difficile

117
Q

The most common pathogen of infantile autumn diarrhea is:()

a. Influenza virus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Coxsackie virus
d. Rotavirus
e. pathogenic Escherichia coli

A

a. Influenza virus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Coxsackie virus
d. Rotavirus
e. pathogenic Escherichia coli

118
Q

Symptoms of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome generally appear after
birth

a. 10 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. At birth or within 4-6 hours
e. 12 hours

A

a. 10 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. At birth or within 4-6 hours
e. 12 hours

119
Q

Hypoxic-Ischemic brain injury can lead to

a. Germinal matrix hemorrhage/intraventricular hemorrhage
b. Anemia
c. Encephalitis
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

a. Germinal matrix hemorrhage/intraventricular hemorrhage
b. Anemia
c. Encephalitis
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

120
Q

Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of allergic purpura

a. Abdominal pain, black stool
b. Skin purpura
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. 1/3 of patients may have joint symptoms
e. Hematuria and / or proteinuria

A

a. Abdominal pain, black stool
b. Skin purpura
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. 1/3 of patients may have joint symptoms
e. Hematuria and / or proteinuria

121
Q

Of the following defects, which is not associated with Tetralogy of Fallot

a. Over-riding dextroposed aorta
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Atrial septal defect
e. Ventricular septal defect

A

a. Over-riding dextroposed aorta
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Atrial septal defect
e. Ventricular septal defect

122
Q

The most common type of tuberculosis in childhood is the type of

a. tuberculous meningitis
b. tuberculous pleurisy
c. original hairdo tuberculosis
d. tuberculous peritonitis
e. miliary tuberculosis

A

a. tuberculous meningitis
b. tuberculous pleurisy
c. original hairdo tuberculosis
d. tuberculous peritonitis
e. miliary tuberculosis

123
Q

Nutritional iron deficiency anemia is

a. Normocytic anemia
b. Macrocytic anemia
c. Microcytic and hypochromic anemia
d. Hyperchromic anemia
e. All above-mentioned

A

a. Normocytic anemia
b. Macrocytic anemia
c. Microcytic and hypochromic anemia
d. Hyperchromic anemia
e. All above-mentioned

124
Q

A child aged 4 years, his body weight, and height and ossification center in
wrist bones are normally

a. 25kg, 60cm and 4, respectively
b. 20kg, 73cm and 7, respectively
c. 10kg, 60cm and 3, respectively
d. 16kg, 98cm and 5, respectively
e. su30kg, 100m and 8, respectively

A

a. 25kg, 60cm and 4, respectively
b. 20kg, 73cm and 7, respectively
c. 10kg, 60cm and 3, respectively
d. 16kg, 98cm and 5, respectively
e. su30kg, 100m and 8, respectively

PEDIATRICS (4 decks)

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