1. CM - GFC Flashcards

1
Q

The primary blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the abdominal aorta to the kidneys:

A

RENAL ARTERY

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2
Q

The kidneys maintain a concentration gradient of solutes in the renal medulla to facilitate the concentration of urine. This is primarily due to the ______ Multiplier system involving the loop of Henle and the vasa recta.

A

COUNTER CURRENT MECHANISM

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3
Q

The highest solute concentration in the kidney is found in the inner region of the renal medulla, particularly around the_____ and ___ where the kidney creates a high osmolarity environment necessary for water reabsorption and urine concentration.

A

Loop of Henle and CD

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4
Q

Tuft of 8 capillaries within the Bowman’s capsule that resembles a sieve:

A

Glomerulus

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5
Q

Basic structural and functional unit of the kidney:

A

Nephron

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6
Q

Nonselective filter of plasma substances of MW of Daltons?

A

<70.000 Daltons MW

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7
Q

Major site of reabsorption of plasma substances:

Reabsorbing approximately 65% of the filtered substances such as salts (sodium, chloride, bicarbonate), water, glucose, amino acids, and urea

A

PCT

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8
Q

Permeable to water but impermeable to solutes:

A

DLOH (no solute reabsorption)

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9
Q

Impermeable to water but actively reabsorbs solutes:

A

ALOH (no water reabsorption)

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10
Q

Regulates water reabsorption in the DCT and CD:

**High: Increases water permeability in the DCT and CD, leading to increased water reabsorption and concentrated urine = LOW URINE VOL

** Low: Decreases water permeability in the DCT and CD, leading to decreased water reabsorption and dilute urine= HIGH URINE VOL

A

ADH/VASOPRESSIN

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11
Q

Regulates sodium reabsorption:

A

ALDOSTERONE

produced by ADRENAL CORTEX

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12
Q

A condition where the kidneys are unable to excrete hydrogen ions (H*) effectively, leading to an inability to produce acidic urine:

A

REAL AULAR ACIDOSIS
**Urine pH: Alkaline
** Blood pH: Acidic

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13
Q

Renal threshold for glucose:

A

100-180 mg/dl

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14
Q

Renal threshold for sodium:

A

120 mmol/L

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15
Q

Renal threshold for water and potassium:

A

No renal threshold

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16
Q

Renal threshold for magnesium:

A

1.46-2.07 mg/dL (0.60-0.85 mmol/L)

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17
Q

Renal threshold for ketones:

A

70 mg/dl

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18
Q

Normal Renal blood flow:

A

1200 ml/min

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19
Q

Renal plasma flow:

A

600-700 ml/min

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20
Q

Major components of urine?

A

WATER

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21
Q

Major component of urine, acting as a solvent for the waste products and electrolytes:

A

WATER

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22
Q

Major organic substance in urine

A

UREA

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23
Q

Major electrolyte and principal salt in urine:

A

SODIUM

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24
Q

Major inorganic substance in urine:

A

Cl > Na > K

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25
Q

Glomerular Filtration Rate Assessment Markers (ClearanceTest)

(most common)?

A

Creatinine

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26
Q

Glomerular Filtration Rate Assessment Markers (ClearanceTest)

(gold standard/reference)-

A

Inulin

** others:
-B2-microglobulin
-Cystatin
-Radioisotopes such as 99mTc-DTPA or 1251-iothalamate

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27
Q

Glomerular Filtration Rate Assessment Markers (ClearanceTest)

(old method)?

A

Urea

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28
Q

Creatinine ClearanceTest Formula:

A

CCUV/P x 1.73m²/A

✔U-Urine creatinine (mg/dL)
✔V-Urine volume (mL/min)
✔P-Plasma creatinine
✔A-Body surface area

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29
Q

Normal GFR:

A

120 ml/minute

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30
Q

he greatest source of error in Clearance tests:

A

Improperly timed urine specimens

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31
Q

Under-collection of urine causes what?

A

Falsely Low clearance rate

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32
Q

Over-collection of urine causes what?

A

Falsely High clearance rate

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33
Q

Analytes to definitively identify an unknown body fluid as urine:

A

Urea and creatinine

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34
Q

Tubular Reabsorption (Concentration Test)

  • (Influenced by the number and density of particles)
A

Specific gravity

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35
Q

Tubular Reabsorption (Concentration Test)

(influenced by the number of particles)

A

Osmolality

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36
Q

Tubular Reabsorption (OBSOLETE Concentration Test)

(24 hours fluid deprivation, SG is measured 21.026) *12 hours ≥1.022

A

FISHBERG TEST

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37
Q

Tubular Reabsorption (OBSOLETE Concentration Test)

(compare the SG and volume of day and night urine)

A

MOSENTHAL TEST

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38
Q

Tubular Secretion and Renal Blood Flow:

A

✔p-aminohippuric acid (PAH) test

✔Phenolsulfonphthalein (PSP) test (obsolete, hard to interpret)

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39
Q

The purpose of the second container in the three-glass technique is to serve as a ____for UTI, specifically for detecting cystitis.

A

Control

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40
Q

Urine specimens should be tested within ____ collection to ensure accurate results. If testing is delayed, ____ is the most commonly used method of urine preservation and the specimen should be allowed to return to ____ before testing.

A

2 hours ; refrigeration ; RT

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41
Q

RBCs, WBCs, and casts can disintegrate or break down in what urine?

A

alkaline hypotonic urine

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42
Q

remains relatively stable in unpreserved urine because it is not as easily degraded or broken down by environmental conditions like bacteria or pH changes.

A

PROTEIN/ ALBUMIN

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43
Q

An effective preservative because it inhibits bacterial growth and the degradation of protein (including albumin) in urine:

A

THYMOL BORIC ACID

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44
Q

If a urine specimen is unlabeled, it should be

A

REJECTED

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45
Q

Urine culture should always be performed first to allow for optimal bacterial growth. Afterward, a urinalysis can be performed to examine the macroscopic and microscopic. properties of the urine. If a urine specimen is submitted for urinalysis before being sent for culture, it should typically be ___

A

REJECTED

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46
Q

if a urine specimen is not processed immediately for culture, ____ is strongly recommended to preserve the integrity of the sample.

A

REFRIGERATION

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47
Q

The major pigment responsible for the yellow color of urine.

✓Source: It is produced during the breakdown of hemoglobin in RBCs, specifically from the degradation of bilirubin.

A

*UROCHROME

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48
Q

A pink pigment in urine.

✔Source: It is found as a product of the breakdown of urates, specifically amorphous urates and uric acid crystals.

A

UROERYTHRIN

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49
Q

____in the urine lower the surface tension of the liquid, which causes the formation of white foam or bubbles.

A

PROTEIN / ALBUMIN

49
Q

A dark yellow/orange pigment in urine.

✓Source: It is a product of bilirubin degradation during the breakdown of RBCs.

50
Q

Yellow foam from urine can be caused by _____ (in cases of liver disease or bile duct obstruction) or ____ (a medication for UTIs).

A

BILIRUBIN ; PYRIDIUM

51
Q

Phenol in urine typically produces a ____ or____ color due to oxidation. This can occur from exposure to phenolic compounds in certain medications, like acetaminophen, or environmental sources.

A

GREENISH BROWN ; BROWN

52
Q

______: Causes bright yellow or fluorescent yellow urine

A

B Complex Vitamins (B2/Riboflavin)

53
Q

Can cause dark yellow to orange urine, typically associated with the intake of foods rich in this or supplements.

A

Carotene (Beta-Carotene)

54
Q

What is the most common abnormal urine color?

55
Q

Clear red urine due to intravascular hemolysis:

A

Hemoglobinuria

56
Q

Clear red or reddish-brown urine due to muscle damage (rhabdomyolysis):

A

Myoglobinuria

57
Q

Cloudy or smoky red urine due to the presence of intact RBCs:

58
Q

Tea-colored urine can be caused by the presence of

A

BILIRUBIN or MYOGLOBIN

59
Q

Port wine or burgundy/purplish-red urine is often caused by

60
Q

The following substances can cause BLACK or BROWN urine

(from alkaptonuria)?

A

Homogentisic acid

61
Q

The following substances can cause BLACK or BROWN urine

(from hemolysis or chemical exposure)?

A

Methemoglobin

62
Q

The following substances can cause BLACK or BROWN urine

(from melanoma)?

63
Q

The following substances can cause BLACK or BROWN urine

(from toxins or medications)?

64
Q

The following substances can cause BLACK or BROWN urine

(medication for hypertension)?

A

Methyldopa

65
Q

The following substances can cause BLACK or BROWN urine

(silver-based medication)?

66
Q

The following substances can cause BLACK or BROWN urine

(antibiotic)?

A

Metronidazole

67
Q

A large number of coliforms in urine, such as E. coli, can cause a ____ odor? and nitrite-positive urine

A

foul or ammoniacal odor

68
Q

Important in the identification of crystals and identification of unsatisfactory specimens:

69
Q

Normal random urine pH

A

4.5-8.0 pH

70
Q

1st morning urine pH

A

5.0-6.0 pH

71
Q

Unpreserved urine pH:

72
Q

fruit commonly associated with causing acidic urine and are often used as a home remedy for UTI or bladder infections.

A

CRANBERRIES

73
Q

CRANBERRIES contain compounds like _____ that may help prevent bacteria from adhering to the bladder wall, reducing the risk of infection.

A

proanthocyanidins

74
Q

A vegetable-based diet typically results in _____ urine. Vegetables, particularly fruits, leafy greens, and root vegetables, are rich in ___ and ___, which can help neutralize the acid in the body.

A

Alkaline;

potassium and magnesium

75
Q

Normal urine protein concentration:

A

<150 mg/day

76
Q

Protein RST indicator is sensitive to:

77
Q

A positive SSA test with a negative protein dipstick or RST result indicates presence of ____

A

NON-ALBUMIN PROTEIN.

78
Q

SSA negative, Protein positive =

A

False positive RST (Highly buffered Alkaline urine)

79
Q

The primary protein seen in the urine seen in patients Multiple Myeloma:

A

BENCE-JONES PROTEIN

80
Q

BJP- Coagulating at temperatures between____ and dissolving at ____

A

40-60°C and 100°C

81
Q

Increased renal vein pressure in the upright position is believed to cause _____ with protein leakage into urine occurring when standing (upright), but not when lying down (supine).

A

ORTHOSTATIC PROTEINURIA

82
Q

For detecting orthostatic proteinuria, the patient should:

A

EMPTY THE BLADDER BEFORE BED

*Collect a morning urine sample after waking up, before standing
*Collect another sample after standing

83
Q

A nonspecific test for reducing sugars, detecting various sugars by causing a color change through copper ion reduction:

A

Clinitest & Benedict’s test

84
Q

Causes of false POSITIVES in the copper reduction test include:

A

VITAMIN C
URIC ACID
levodopa
bilirubin
acetaminophen
tetracycline
Formalin

85
Q

Causes of false NEGATIVES in the copper reduction test include _____ the _____ phenomenon due to high glucose concentrations, improper sample handling, and excessive dilution.

A

DETERGENTS ; PASS THROUGH

86
Q

To prevent the pass-through phenomenon in the copper reduction test, it is recommended to use_____of urine. This helps ensure the test detects even low concentrations of sugars without overwhelming the reaction.

87
Q

Rubner’s test detects ____ sugar (Brick red with yellow precipitate) and ___ sugar (Brick red with red precipitate)

A

LACTOSE ; GLUCOSE

88
Q

If the glucose reagent strip test shows 4+ (high glucose levels), it is important to check other parameters, such as ____ and ____

A

ketones and protein

89
Q

What by-products are produced due to increased fat metabolism in patients on a starvation diet or with carbohydrate metabolism defects, and can be excreted in the urine?

90
Q

What is the major ketone found in urine that is not detected by the reagent strip test?

A

B-hydroxybutyric acid (78%)

91
Q

What is the parent ketone found in urine, and what percentage does it represent?

A

Acetoacetic acid (20%)

92
Q

What is the minor ketone found in urine?

A

Acetone (2%)

93
Q

What substances are commonly found in urine after crush injuries?

A

MYOGLOBIN, HEMOGLOBIN

94
Q

These substances are toxic to the renal tubular epithelium and can cause direct damage to the renal tubules, leading to acute tubular necrosis (ATN).

A

MYOGLOBIN, HEMOGLOBIN

95
Q

What drug can cause rhabdomyolysis, leading to myoglobinuria?

A

STATINS (e.g., atorvastatin, simvastatin, rosuvastatin)

✓Other drugs, such as cocaine, alcohol, and certain antipsychotics, can also contribute to this condition.

96
Q

Test used to differentiate between hemoglobin and myoglobin in urine:

A

BLONDHEIM’S TEST (AMMONIUM SULFATE TEST)

97
Q

BLONDHEIM’S TEST (AMMONIUM SULFATE TEST)

When combined with ammonium sulfate, it forms a red precipitate.

A

Hemoglobin

98
Q

BLONDHEIM’S TEST (AMMONIUM SULFATE TEST)

When combined with ammonium sulfate, it does not precipitate, leaving a red supernatant.

A

Myoglobin:

99
Q

How should a urine specimen be handled for a bilirubin test?

The urine specimen should be _____ to protect it from light, as light can degrade bilirubin, leading to inaccurate results.

A

WRAPPED IN FOIL

100
Q

What is an early indication of liver disease, significant for screening diseases like Hepatitis, Cirrhosis, and Biliary duct obstruction?

101
Q

What is a more sensitive and less interference-prone test for the determination of bilirubin?

  • A positive result is indicated by a ____ color after 60 seconds
A

ICTOTEST ; blue to purple

102
Q

What bile pigment results from hemoglobin degradation and is typically found in urine?

A

UROBILINOGEN

103
Q

It is the only analyte that is not reported as negative. The specimen for testing is usually PM urine (2-4 pm peak), and the usual amount is <1 mg/dL or Ehrlich unit.

A

UROBILINOGEN

104
Q

How can urobilinogen, porphobilinogen, and other Ehrlich-reactive substances be differentiated in urine?

A

WATSON SCHWARTZ TEST

105
Q

WATSON SCHWARTZ TEST

chloroform = SOLUBLE
butanol = SOLUBLE

A

Urobilinogen

106
Q

WATSON SCHWARTZ TEST

chloroform = INSOLUBLE
butanol = INSOLUBLE

A

Porphobilinogen

107
Q

WATSON SCHWARTZ TEST

chloroform = INSOLUBLE
butanol = SOLUBLE.

A

Other Ehrlich-reactive substances:

Indican
Methyldopa
Procaine
Sulfonamide

108
Q

What is the rapid screening test for porphobilinogen?

A

Hoesch test (Inverse Ehrlich Reaction)

109
Q

What is the rapid screening test for UTI and bacteriuria?

A

Nitrite test

110
Q

Nitrite test

The specimen typically being ____ or ____.

_____ bacteria such as Escherichia coli (E. coli), Klebsiella, Enterobacter, and Proteus typically produce a positive nitrite test, as they reduce nitrate to nitrite in the urine.

A

first morning or 4-hour urine ;

Gram-negative

111
Q

Nitrite test

To prepare for the test, it is recommended to ______ the night before, they can increase the levels of nitrite in the urine, potentially aiding in the detection of UTI.

A

EAT VEGETABLES

112
Q

NITRITE TEST

The principle of the nitrite test is based on a _____ color reaction. The azo dye in the test reacts with aromatic compounds, specifically nitrites present in the urine, resulting in a color change that indicates a positive result.

A

Greiss = pink color

113
Q

What test is good for determining UTI and inflammation, and for screening urine culture specimens?

A

Leukocyte test

114
Q

Leukocyte test

The principle of the Leukocyte esterase test is that all leukocytes, except for _______ contain leukocyte esterase, which reacts with the reagent on the test strip produce a color change, indicating the presence of leukocytes in the urine.

A

LYMPHOCYTES

115
Q

Urine specific gravity of <1.010, indicatin diluted urine.

A

Hyposthenuria

115
Q

Urine specific gravity of 1.010, indicating concentration similar to plasma.

  • Renal tubular failure
A

Isosthenuria

116
Q

Urine specific gravity of >1.010, indicating concentrated urine.

A

Hypersthenuria

116
Q

How do you calculate the actual SG of a urine specimen the SG reading after a dilution is 1.020 and the dilution factor is 1:8?

A

To calculate the actual SG, multiply the decimal portiion the SG reading by the dilution factor:

0.020 × 8 = 0.160

1 + 0.160 = 1.160

117
Q

Correction for glucose and protein:

For every 1 g/dL glucose: _____ from the SC reading

For every 1 g/dL protein: ______ from the SG

A

glucose = Subtract 0.004

protein = Subtract 0.003

117
Q

What is the relationship between urine SG and urine volume?

A

INVERSELY PROPORTION

117
Q

Key factors to consider when performing Urinometry (hydrometer)

✔Required urine volume:
✔Temperature correction:
✔For every 3°C above:
✔For every 3°C below:

A

✔Required urine volume: 10-15 mL
✔Temperature correction: (calibrated at 20°C)
✔For every 3°C above: Add 0.001 to the SG reading
✔For every 3°C below: Subtract 0.001 from the SG reading