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Biology > 1. Cell Biology > Flashcards

1. Cell Biology Flashcards

1
Q

State who came up with the binomial nomenclature naming system for organisms: (1)

A
  • Carolus Linnaeus (1)
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2
Q

Explain how Carl Linnaeus created the binomial nomenclature system: (5)

A
  • Everywhere he went, scientists had different ways of classifying plants. (1)
  • This made it confusing to different names of the same species of plants together. (1)
  • He used a Latin/Greek system (1)
  • He based the names on the physical features on the plant or animal, which he called morphological classification. (1)
  • If 2 species had the same traits, the names will be similar but not exactly the same. (1)
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3
Q

Describe how the two part name of the binomial nomenclature system is created: (2)

A
  • The first name is the genus name. (1)
  • The second name is the species name. (1)
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4
Q

Define the term species: (1)

A

A group of organisms that can breed and produce fertile offspring. (1)

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5
Q

Define the term classification: (2)

A
  • Placing organisms in groups based on common ancestry (1)
  • and/or shared traits. (1)
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6
Q

Describe what correct classification allows scientists to do: (5)

A
  • Accurately determine the number of known species (1)
  • Learn about the evolution of species. (1)
  • Ensure that conservation is carid out when needed. (1)
  • Carry out medical research more quickly. (1)
  • Identify and treat diseases more quickly. (1)
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7
Q

Define the term cytology: (1)

A

The branch of biology which focuses on cell theory. (1)

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8
Q

State the cell theory: (3)

A
  • All organisms are composed of one or more cells. (1)
  • Cells are the smallest units of life. (1)
  • All cells come from pre-existing cells. (1)
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9
Q

State and describe the processes of life in unicellular organisms: (16):

A
  • Metabolism (1): The sum of all the chemical reactions that occur in an organism. (1)
  • Reproduction (1): The ability to produce offspring.
  • Homeostasis (1): Maintenance of a constant internal environment. (1)
  • Growth: The development of an organism (1)
  • Response (1): As the environment changes, the organism adapts. (1)
  • Excretion (1): The ability to release materials not needed or harmful into the surrounding environment. (1)
  • Nutrition (1): The ability to acquire energy and materials needed to maintain life. (1)

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10
Q

State the structure and describe how homeostasis is maintained in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • The cell membrane (1)
  • Controls movement of materials in and out of the cell (1)
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11
Q

State the structure and describe how excretion is maintained in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • Vacuoles (1)
  • Isolate and store waste so it doesn’t harm the organism. (1)
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12
Q

State the structure and describe how response is carried out in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • Cilia/flagella (1)
  • Allow movement in response to a change in the environment. (1)
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13
Q

State the structure and describe how nutrition is carried out in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • Vacuoles (1)
  • Carry out digestion in order to provide nutrition for the organism. (1)
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14
Q

State the structure and describe how metabolism is carried out in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • Mitochondria (1)
  • Allows for energy production via respiration. (1)
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15
Q

State the structure and describe how growth is carried out in unicellular organsms: (2)

A
  • Ribosomes (1)
  • Produce proteins and allow for growth and repair. (1)
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16
Q

Describe the advantages of electron microscopy: (2)

A
  • It has a high magnification and resolution so greater detail of structures within cells can be seen. (1)
  • 3D images can be produces using an SEM.
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17
Q

State the advantage of using freeze fracture for microscopy: (1)

A
  • It reveals a plane through the sample that can be examined. (1)
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18
Q

State the advantage of cryogenic electron microscopy: (1)

A
  • Can be used to construct a 3D representation of a cells proteins on a computer. (1)
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19
Q

Explain how fluorescent stains are used in light microscopy: (2)

A
  • Stains are used to combine with specific cell structures and organelles. (1)
  • It is then exposed to UV rays which gives a detailed view of the specimen. (1)
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20
Q

Explain how immunofluorescence is used in light microscopy: (3)

A
  • Uses antibodies that have been prepared with fluorescent dyes. (1)
  • They bind to target molecules complementary to the antibody. (1)
  • This allows molecules such as virus proteins to be detected. (1)
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21
Q

Describe the functions of DNA in a cell: (2)

A
  • Stores and transfers genetic material. (1)
  • Produces enzymes and other vital proteins in the cell. (1)
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22
Q

State the function of cytoplasm in a cell: (1)

A
  • Allows the cell’s important reactions to take place. (1)
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23
Q

Describe the functions of plasma membrane in a cell: (3)

A
  • It encloses all the cell contents. (1)
  • Controls the interactions of the cells interior with exterior. (1)
  • Has proteins which recognises, communicates and transport substances in and out of the cell. (1)
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24
Q

State the size of ribosomes in: (2)

  • Prokaryotic cells (1)
  • Eukaryotic cells (1)
A
  • 70S (1)
  • 80S (1)
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25
Q

Explain the functions of the following structures in prokaryotic cells: (6)

  • Cell wall (2)
  • Naked DNA in a loop (2)
  • Ribosomes (2)
A
  • Contains peptidoglycan (1)
  • Acts as protection, shape maintenance and prevents the cell from bursting. (1)
  • Located in the nucleoid. (1)
  • In small loops called plasmids which contain genes. (1)
  • Binds and reads mRNA during translation. (1)
  • To produce proteins. (1)

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26
Q

State what you call a bacteria cell if it retains a dye called crystal violet: (1)

A
  • Gram positive (1)
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27
Q

State examples of gram positive bacteria: (2)

A
  • Bacillus (1)
  • Staphylococcus (1)
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28
Q

Describe the function of a nucleus in a eukaryotic cell: (6)

  • 1 of them has 2 points
A
  • Separated from the nuclear membrane by a nuclear envelope. (1)
  • Has nuclear pores which allow molecules to enter and exit the nucleus. (1)
  • Nuclear pores have proteins to control what substances enter and exit the cell. (1)
  • Contains chromatin where linear DNA is wound around a histone. (1)
  • Has nucleolus which is the site of ribosome production. (1)
  • The nucleus is versatile and can break down into vesicles and fuse during cell division. (1)
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29
Q

Describe the function of mitochondria in a eukaryotic cell: (7)

  • Function (1)
  • Structure (4+2)
A
  • The site of aerobic respiration. (1)
  • Surrounded by a double membrane with an inner membrane which folds to form cristae. (1)
  • Inner membrane is where oxidative phosphorylation takes place. (1)
  • It is small which allows for a larger concentration gradient. (1)
  • Cristae folds provide more surface area for oxidative phospholyration. (1)
  • Matrix contains enzymes for aerobic respiration which produces ATP. (1)
  • Has mitochondrial DNA and ribosomes in the matrix. (1)
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30
Q

State what the plasma membrane is made out of in a eukaryotic cell: (1)

A
  • Bilayer of phospholids. (1)
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31
Q

Explain the function of free ribosomes in eukaryotic cells: (4)

A
  • Ribosomes build proteins based on code from the DNA that are used in the cytoplasm
  • Found freely in the cytoplasm
  • Site of translation (1)
  • It is a complex of rRNA and proteins which is constructed in the nucleolus. (1)
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32
Q

Explain the function of Rough endoplasmic reticulum: (3)

A
  • Surface covered in 80S ribosomes. (1)
  • Has flattened membrane sacs called cisternae. (1)
  • Proteins move to the cisternae and are transported to Golgi apparatus in vesicles. (1)
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33
Q

Explain the function of Golgi apparatus: (4)

A
  • Modifies proteins and lipids by adding phosphate/sulphate groups or attach sugar chains which makes it a glycolipid molecule. (1)
  • Packages them into secretory vesicles. (1)
  • Vesicles transport the proteins and lipids through the membrane and emerges out of the cell. (1)
  • Proteins are either put into lysosomes or delivered to membrane bound organelles. !1)
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34
Q

Explain the function of lysozomes: (2)

A
  • Contains hydrolytic enzymes. (1)
  • Breaks down waste materials such as worn out organelles. (1)
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35
Q

State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have cell walls: (3)

A
  • No (1)
  • Yes (1)
  • Yes (1)
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36
Q

State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have vacuoles: (3)

A
  • Rarely (1)
  • Yes (1)
  • Rarely (1)
37
Q

State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have chloroplasts: (3)

A
  • No (1)
  • Yes (1)
  • No (1)
38
Q

State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have centrioles: (3)

A
  • Yes (1)
  • No (1)
  • No (1)
39
Q

State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have cilia and flagella (3)

A
  • Yes (1)
  • No (1)
  • No (1)
40
Q

Define the term organelles: (1)

A

Discrete subunits within cells that are adapted to perform specific functions. (1)

41
Q

State organelles: (4)

A
  • Nucleus (1)
  • Vesicles (1)
  • Ribosomes (1)
  • Cell membrane (1)
42
Q

State non organelles: (3)

A
  • Cell wall (1)
  • Cytoplasm (1)
  • Cytoskeleton (1)
43
Q

State why having a nucleus is advantageous for a cell: (1)

A
  • Protects and manages DNA housed in the nucleus. (1)
44
Q

State why protein synthesis is fast in prokaryotic cells: (3)

A
  • DNA and ribosomes are in the same space. (1)
  • So when DNA is transcribed, it can immediately be translated. (1)
  • Because the components are next to each other. (1)
45
Q

Describe one advantage of compartmentalization: (1)

A
  • Cells can carry out specific tasks in organelles without impacting the rest of the cell. (1)
46
Q

Explain the function of chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells: (7)

  • Function (2)
  • Structure (2+2+1)
A
  • Chloroplast is adapted for photosynthesis. (1)
  • Used to create glucose molecules from light energy. (1)
  • The thylokoid membrane has photosystem pigments which captures light energy for photosynthesis. (1)
  • It has a large surface area so that more light can be captured. (1)
  • The lumen has a small volume, which allows for a proton concentration gradient to be built. (1)
  • This allows for ATP synthase to function. (1)
  • The stroma houses all the components for the Calvin cycle to function. (1)
47
Q

Describe how a protein is sent elsewhere: (2)

A
  • Ribosome attaches and gets pushed into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. (1)
  • It is placed into a vesicle where it can be transported. (1)
48
Q

Explain how vesicles are created: (3)

A

A piece of a cell membrane of RER or golgi apparatus needs to be pinched off and encase the substance. (1)

  • Clathrin initiates the indenting of the membrane when multiple clathrin proteins bind to each other. (1)
  • This continues until a lattice of pentagons/hexagons forms a cage around the membrane of the vesicle. (1)
  • The clathrin structure will break off and uncoat the vesicle allowing the vesicle membrane to move to its final location. (1)
49
Q

Explain the structure and function of a cytoskeleton: (4)

  • Structure (3)
  • Function (1)
A
  • Made of tubilin to formed dimers. (1)
  • They are then joined into protofilaments. (1)
  • 13 protofilaments form a microtubule. (1)
  • Provides support and movement to the cell. (1)
50
Q

Describe the structure and function of a vesicle: (2)

  • Structure (1)
  • Function (1)
A
  • A membrane bound sac. (1)
  • For transport and storage. (1)
51
Q

Explain the structures common to all viruses: (7)

(1+1+3+2)

A
  • A small size: Contains few molecules. (1)
  • Fixed size: They don’t grow. (1)
  • Nucleic Acid: Their
    genomes are made up of DNA or RNA. (1), they can be single or double stranded, (1), nucleic acids can have linear of circular structure. (1)
  • Capsid: Made of protein (1) and has attachment proteins to allow viruses to bind and enter host cells. (1)
  • No cytoplasm
  • Very few, or no enzymes. (1)
52
Q

State something that diversifies the structure of viruses: (1)

A
  • Some viruses are enveloped in the host cell membrane and others are not. (1)
53
Q

Explain the structures and function of bacteriophage lambda: (3)

  • (1+2)
A
  • It has a double stranded DNA genome within its capsid head. (1)
  • Tails fibres allows it to attach itself to the host and inject DNA into it from the tail. (1)
  • The tail sheath contains proteins that contract, allowing the tail to move through the host cells outer membrane. (1)
54
Q

Describe the structures of coronaviruses: (4)

A
  • Spherical shape. (1)
  • Single stranded RNA as its genetic material. (1)
  • An envelope outside the capsid. (1)
  • Projections of spike proteins on the envelope, creating ‘coronas’. (1)
55
Q

Describe the structure and function of HIV: (4)

(3+1)

A
  • It has an envelope outside the capsid. (1)
  • Capsid has 2 identical single strands of RNA. (1)
  • Within the viral RNA, reverse transcriptase is encoded. (1) allowing for the production of DNA. (1)
  • Has envelope spikes made of protein and carbohydrate. (1)
56
Q

State why HIV is known as a retrovirus: (1)

A
  • It makes a DNA copy of its RNA code. (1)
57
Q

Explain the lytic cycle of bacteriophage lambda: (5)

A
  • Attachment: The phage attaches to the host cell. (1)
  • Penetration: Phage penetrates the host cell and injects its DNA. (1)
  • Biosynthesis: Phage DNA directs synthesis of viral components by the host cell. (1)
  • Maturation: Viral components are assembled into virions. (1)
  • Release: Host cells lyses and new virions are released. (1)
58
Q

Explain the lysogenic cycle in bacteriophage lambda: (5)

A
  • Attachment: The virus attaches to the host cell. (1)
  • Virus DNA/RNA is taken into host cell. (1)
  • Lysogeny: Virus DNA/RNA integrates with bacterial DNA. (1)
  • Lysogenic bacteria reproduce and divide. (1)
  • Environmental event triggers lytic pathway. (1)
59
Q

State what viruses use host cells for: (3)

A
  • Energy supply (1)
  • Nutrition (1)
  • Protein synthesis. (1)
60
Q

Describe the escape theory of the origin of viruses: (3)

A
  • Viruses arose from genetic elements like DNA and RNA. (1)
  • They gained the ability to move between cells. (1)
  • These genetic elements became surrounded by an outer boundary which forms a virus particle. (1)
61
Q

Describe the regressive theory of the origin of viruses: (2)

A
  • Viruses are remnants of cellular organisms or small cells that were parasites of large cells. (1)
  • It then shed cellular structures that were no longer needed, which left just viral structures. (1)
62
Q

Describe the virus first theory of the origin of viruses: (3)

A
  • Viruses originated before their cellular hosts. (1)
  • Viruses evolved into more complex virus particles from simple ones. (1)
  • Due to the simple nature of complex virus particles, it could indicate viruses evolved first. (1)
63
Q

State reasons why some viruses have a rapid evolution rate: (3)

A
  • High mutation rates (1)
  • Have large population sizes. (1)
  • Have short generation times. (1)
64
Q

State the type of genetic change the following viruses undergo: (2)

  • HIV (1)
  • Influenza (1)
A
  • Antigenic drift (1)
  • Antigenic shift (1)
65
Q

Describe antigenic drift: (3)

A
  • Small changes accumulate in viral genetic material over time. (1)
  • Variation in surface proteins of the virus appear slowly. (1)
  • Eventually, the host immune system cannot recognise the virus. (1)
66
Q

Describe antigenic shift: (3)

A
  • 2 or more virus types infect the same cell and combine genetic material. (1)
  • Rapid variation is produced in the surface proteins of the viruses. (1)
  • A new virus is created which isn’t recognized by the hosts immune system. (1)
67
Q

Describe the consequences of treating diseases caused by rapidly evolving viruses: (2)

A
  • Vaccines need to be changed and updated yearly so they remain effective. (1)
  • Fast evolving viruses need to be dealt with the isolation of those infected to stop the spread. (1)
68
Q

Define the term prebiotic period: (1)

A
  • The time on earth before life was present. (1)
69
Q

Describe the conditions of early earth: (4)

A
  • Warmer than present earth. (1)
  • Higher atmospheric concentrations of methane and carbon dioxide. (1)
  • Lower levels of atmospheric oxygen. (1)
  • No ozone layer so UV radiation was higher. (1)
70
Q

State why cells can be classified as the smallest unit of life: (1)

A
  • They possess characteristics that allow them to be self sustaining. (1)
  • They use energy to maintain order and structure. (1)
71
Q

State the people who tested the origin of compounds: (1)

A
  • Miller and Urey. (1)
72
Q

Explain how Miller and urey tested the origin of compounds. (4)

A
  • They took components that were thought to be on early earth like methane, ammonia, water vapour and hydrogen gas in a flask. (1)v
  • They then simulated a lighting strike using by using electrical discharges.
  • The resultant components were cooled and the process was started again. (1)
  • After repeating the experiment, they discovered that a variety of carbon compounds were produced. (1)
73
Q

Describe the hypothesis for the origin of genetic material in cells: (3)

A
  • It is hypothesized that RNA could have been the genetic material to be used in early protocells. (1)
  • This is because RNA can store information, can self-replicate and act as a catalyst. (1)
  • Because they can act as a catalyst, RNA could have played the role of carrying genetic information as well as acting as enzymes. (1)
74
Q

Describe how cell membranes and vesicle membranes are made:

A
  • They are made of phospholipids which are amphipathic molecules that have polar and non-polar ends. (1)
  • When they come together, they can arrange themselves into a spherical structure with a membrane bilayer. (1)
  • The exterior faces the exterior and interior polar solutions and the tails face each other to form the nonpolar membrane core. (1)
75
Q

Describe how scientists investigate the first origin of life: (5)

A
  • Data can be collected from rock samples, where isotope ratios can be pulled from elements found within the rocks. (1)
  • This points to to the presence of living organisms being there. (1)
  • Old rock formations have fossilized stromatolites. (1)
  • Stromatolites are formed when cyanobacteria secrete calcium carbonate that builds up. (1)
  • The presence of cyanobacteria hints at the fact that there was life back then. (1)
76
Q

State what the differences shown between genomes of 2 organisms is proportional to: (1)

A
  • The amount of time that they last shared a common ancestor. (1)
77
Q

Describe evidence that bacteria and archaea were living in hydrothermal vents: (4)

A
  • Scientists have identified multiple genes that bacteria and archaea share that might have been inherited from LUCA. (1)
  • The genes that match up were found to be important for cellular processes that includes anaerobic metabolism and fixing of nitrogen and carbon dioxide. (1)
  • This leads to the idea of their early ancestors being in environments where there are high concentrations of carbon dioxide, hydrogen and inorganic chemicals. (1)
  • This leads to the theory that the LUCA evolved in hydrothermal vents. (1)
78
Q

Define the term hydrothermal vents: (2)

A

Natural structures on the ocean floor that release geothermal heated water. (1)
That contains many inorganic chemicals. (1)

79
Q

Describe the structure of skeletal muscles: (2)

A
  • It consists of many cells that have fused. (1)
  • It is multinucleated. (1)
80
Q

Describe the structure of aseptate fungal hyphae: (Structure = 4)

A
  • They have narrow branches called hyphae. (1)
  • Hyphae have cell membranes and cell walls. (1)
  • They are multinucleated with continuous cytoplasm. (1)
  • Cells have no end walls making them appear as one cell. (1)
81
Q

Describe the structure and function of red blood cells: (3)

(2+1)

A
  • They don’t have a nucleus: (1)
  • So they can carry haemoglobin (1)
  • Biconcave disc allows for a large surface area to improve oxygen carrying capacity. (1)
82
Q

Describe the structure and function of phloem sieve tubes: (1)

(2+1)

A
  • It transports dissolved substances, such as sucrose, around the plant. (1)
  • They have no end cell wall and lack cell organelles. (1)
  • They have companion cells which sit along the sieve tube elements to maintain the cytoplasm. (1)
83
Q

Define the term endosymbiosis: (1)

A
  • Where one organism lives within another. (1)
84
Q

Explain the endosymbiotic theory: (7)

A
  • To increase the SA:V ratio, ancestral prokaryotes developed infoldings in their membrane. (1)
  • This caused the formation of the nucleus and the RER. (1)
  • The larger anaerobic cell engulfed a smaller aerobic cell. (1)
  • This gave the larger cell a competitive advantage and evolved into an heterotrophic eukayote cell with mitochondria. (1)
  • The heterotrophic eukaryote engulfs a photosynthetic prokaryote. (1)
  • This provides the cell with a competitive advantage since it can provide the cell with energy in the form of carbohydrates. (1)
  • These photosynthetic prokaryotes evolve into chloroplasts. (1)
85
Q

Describe the evidence which supports the endosymbiotic theory: (5)

A
  • Both replicate by binary fission. (1)
  • Both have their own circular, non-membrane bound DNA. (1)
  • Both transcribe mRNA from DNA. (1)
  • Both have 70S ribosomes to synthesize proteins. (1)
  • Both have double membranes. (1)
86
Q

Define the following terms: (4)

  • Obligate anaerobes: (2)
  • Facultative anaerobes: (1)
  • Obligate aerobes: (1)
A
  • Single celled organisms that can only carry out anaerobic respiration. (1)
  • And cannot tolerate oxygen. (1)
  • Organisms that mainly respire aerobically, but can switch to anaerobic respiration in the absence of oxygen. (1)
  • ## Organisms that cannot survive in the absence of oxygen. (1)
87
Q

State how the following generates energy: (3)

  • Phototrophic archaea (1)
  • Chemotrophic archaea (1)
  • Heterotrophic archaea (1)
A
  • It uses energy from light to generate ATP. (1)
  • Produces carbon compounds using chemosynthesis. (1)
  • Use carbon compounds from other organisms to generate ATP. (1)
88
Q
A

Biology (2 decks)

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