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1. Cell Biology Flashcards

1
Q

State who came up with the binomial nomenclature naming system for organisms: (1)

A
  • Carolus Linnaeus (1)
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2
Q

Explain how Carl Linnaeus created the binomial nomenclature system: (5)

A
  • Everywhere he went, scientists had different ways of classifying plants. (1)
  • This made it confusing to different names of the same species of plants together. (1)
  • He used a Latin/Greek system (1)
  • He based the names on the physical features on the plant or animal, which he called morphological classification. (1)
  • If 2 species had the same traits, the names will be similar but not exactly the same. (1)
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3
Q

Describe how the two part name of the binomial nomenclature system is created: (2)

A
  • The first name is the genus name. (1)
  • The second name is the species name. (1)
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4
Q

Define the term species: (1)

A

A group of organisms that can breed and produce fertile offspring. (1)

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5
Q

Define the term classification: (2)

A
  • Placing organisms in groups based on common ancestry (1)
  • and/or shared traits. (1)
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6
Q

Describe what correct classification allows scientists to do: (5)

A
  • Accurately determine the number of known species (1)
  • Learn about the evolution of species. (1)
  • Ensure that conservation is carid out when needed. (1)
  • Carry out medical research more quickly. (1)
  • Identify and treat diseases more quickly. (1)
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7
Q

Define the term cytology: (1)

A

The branch of biology which focuses on cell theory. (1)

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8
Q

State the cell theory: (3)

A
  • All organisms are composed of one or more cells. (1)
  • Cells are the smallest units of life. (1)
  • All cells come from pre-existing cells. (1)
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9
Q

State and describe the processes of life in unicellular organisms: (16):

A
  • Metabolism (1): The sum of all the chemical reactions that occur in an organism. (1)
  • Reproduction (1): The ability to produce offspring.
  • Homeostasis (1): Maintenance of a constant internal environment. (1)
  • Growth: The development of an organism (1)
  • Response (1): As the environment changes, the organism adapts. (1)
  • Excretion (1): The ability to release materials not needed or harmful into the surrounding environment. (1)
  • Nutrition (1): The ability to acquire energy and materials needed to maintain life. (1)

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10
Q

State the structure and describe how homeostasis is maintained in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • The cell membrane (1)
  • Controls movement of materials in and out of the cell (1)
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11
Q

State the structure and describe how excretion is maintained in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • Vacuoles (1)
  • Isolate and store waste so it doesn’t harm the organism. (1)
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12
Q

State the structure and describe how response is carried out in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • Cilia/flagella (1)
  • Allow movement in response to a change in the environment. (1)
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13
Q

State the structure and describe how nutrition is carried out in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • Vacuoles (1)
  • Carry out digestion in order to provide nutrition for the organism. (1)
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14
Q

State the structure and describe how metabolism is carried out in unicellular organisms: (2)

A
  • Mitochondria (1)
  • Allows for energy production via respiration. (1)
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15
Q

State the structure and describe how growth is carried out in unicellular organsms: (2)

A
  • Ribosomes (1)
  • Produce proteins and allow for growth and repair. (1)
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16
Q

Describe the advantages of electron microscopy: (2)

A
  • It has a high magnification and resolution so greater detail of structures within cells can be seen. (1)
  • 3D images can be produces using an SEM.
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17
Q

State the advantage of using freeze fracture for microscopy: (1)

A
  • It reveals a plane through the sample that can be examined. (1)
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18
Q

State the advantage of cryogenic electron microscopy: (1)

A
  • Can be used to construct a 3D representation of a cells proteins on a computer. (1)
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19
Q

Explain how fluorescent stains are used in light microscopy: (2)

A
  • Stains are used to combine with specific cell structures and organelles. (1)
  • It is then exposed to UV rays which gives a detailed view of the specimen. (1)
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20
Q

Explain how immunofluorescence is used in light microscopy: (3)

A
  • Uses antibodies that have been prepared with fluorescent dyes. (1)
  • They bind to target molecules complementary to the antibody. (1)
  • This allows molecules such as virus proteins to be detected. (1)
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21
Q

Describe the functions of DNA in a cell: (2)

A
  • Stores and transfers genetic material. (1)
  • Produces enzymes and other vital proteins in the cell. (1)
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22
Q

State the function of cytoplasm in a cell: (1)

A
  • Allows the cell’s important reactions to take place. (1)
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23
Q

Describe the functions of plasma membrane in a cell: (3)

A
  • It encloses all the cell contents. (1)
  • Controls the interactions of the cells interior with exterior. (1)
  • Has proteins which recognises, communicates and transport substances in and out of the cell. (1)
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24
Q

State the size of ribosomes in: (2)

  • Prokaryotic cells (1)
  • Eukaryotic cells (1)
A
  • 70S (1)
  • 80S (1)
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25
Explain the functions of the following structures in prokaryotic cells: (6) - Cell wall (2) - Naked DNA in a loop (2) - Ribosomes (2)
- Contains peptidoglycan (1) - Acts as protection, shape maintenance and prevents the cell from bursting. (1) - Located in the nucleoid. (1) - In small loops called plasmids which contain genes. (1) - Binds and reads mRNA during translation. (1) - To produce proteins. (1) -
26
State what you call a bacteria cell if it retains a dye called crystal violet: (1)
- Gram positive (1)
27
State examples of gram positive bacteria: (2)
- Bacillus (1) - Staphylococcus (1)
28
Describe the function of a nucleus in a eukaryotic cell: (6) - 1 of them has 2 points
- Separated from the nuclear membrane by a nuclear envelope. (1) - Has nuclear pores which allow molecules to enter and exit the nucleus. (1) - Nuclear pores have proteins to control what substances enter and exit the cell. (1) - Contains chromatin where linear DNA is wound around a histone. (1) - Has nucleolus which is the site of ribosome production. (1) - The nucleus is versatile and can break down into vesicles and fuse during cell division. (1)
29
Describe the function of mitochondria in a eukaryotic cell: (7) - Function (1) - Structure (4+2)
- The site of aerobic respiration. (1) - Surrounded by a double membrane with an inner membrane which folds to form cristae. (1) - Inner membrane is where oxidative phosphorylation takes place. (1) - It is small which allows for a larger concentration gradient. (1) - Cristae folds provide more surface area for oxidative phospholyration. (1) - Matrix contains enzymes for aerobic respiration which produces ATP. (1) - Has mitochondrial DNA and ribosomes in the matrix. (1)
30
State what the plasma membrane is made out of in a eukaryotic cell: (1)
- Bilayer of phospholids. (1)
31
Explain the function of free ribosomes in eukaryotic cells: (4)
- Ribosomes build proteins based on code from the DNA that are used in the cytoplasm - Found freely in the cytoplasm - Site of translation (1) - It is a complex of rRNA and proteins which is constructed in the nucleolus. (1)
32
Explain the function of Rough endoplasmic reticulum: (3)
- Surface covered in 80S ribosomes. (1) - Has flattened membrane sacs called cisternae. (1) - Proteins move to the cisternae and are transported to Golgi apparatus in vesicles. (1)
33
Explain the function of Golgi apparatus: (4)
- Modifies proteins and lipids by adding phosphate/sulphate groups or attach sugar chains which makes it a glycolipid molecule. (1) - Packages them into secretory vesicles. (1) - Vesicles transport the proteins and lipids through the membrane and emerges out of the cell. (1) - Proteins are either put into lysosomes or delivered to membrane bound organelles. !1)
34
Explain the function of lysozomes: (2)
- Contains hydrolytic enzymes. (1) - Breaks down waste materials such as worn out organelles. (1)
35
State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have cell walls: (3)
- No (1) - Yes (1) - Yes (1)
36
State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have vacuoles: (3)
- Rarely (1) - Yes (1) - Rarely (1)
37
State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have chloroplasts: (3)
- No (1) - Yes (1) - No (1)
38
State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have centrioles: (3)
- Yes (1) - No (1) - No (1)
39
State whether animal, plant and fungal cells have cilia and flagella (3)
- Yes (1) - No (1) - No (1)
40
Define the term organelles: (1)
Discrete subunits within cells that are adapted to perform specific functions. (1)
41
State organelles: (4)
- Nucleus (1) - Vesicles (1) - Ribosomes (1) - Cell membrane (1)
42
State non organelles: (3)
- Cell wall (1) - Cytoplasm (1) - Cytoskeleton (1)
43
State why having a nucleus is advantageous for a cell: (1)
- Protects and manages DNA housed in the nucleus. (1)
44
State why protein synthesis is fast in prokaryotic cells: (3)
- DNA and ribosomes are in the same space. (1) - So when DNA is transcribed, it can immediately be translated. (1) - Because the components are next to each other. (1)
45
Describe one advantage of compartmentalization: (1)
- Cells can carry out specific tasks in organelles without impacting the rest of the cell. (1)
46
Explain the function of chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells: (7) - Function (2) - Structure (2+2+1)
- Chloroplast is adapted for photosynthesis. (1) - Used to create glucose molecules from light energy. (1) - The thylokoid membrane has photosystem pigments which captures light energy for photosynthesis. (1) - It has a large surface area so that more light can be captured. (1) - The lumen has a small volume, which allows for a proton concentration gradient to be built. (1) - This allows for ATP synthase to function. (1) - The stroma houses all the components for the Calvin cycle to function. (1)
47
Describe how a protein is sent elsewhere: (2)
- Ribosome attaches and gets pushed into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. (1) - It is placed into a vesicle where it can be transported. (1)
48
Explain how vesicles are created: (3)
A piece of a cell membrane of RER or golgi apparatus needs to be pinched off and encase the substance. (1) - Clathrin initiates the indenting of the membrane when multiple clathrin proteins bind to each other. (1) - This continues until a lattice of pentagons/hexagons forms a cage around the membrane of the vesicle. (1) - The clathrin structure will break off and uncoat the vesicle allowing the vesicle membrane to move to its final location. (1)
49
Explain the structure and function of a cytoskeleton: (4) - Structure (3) - Function (1)
- Made of tubilin to formed dimers. (1) - They are then joined into protofilaments. (1) - 13 protofilaments form a microtubule. (1) - Provides support and movement to the cell. (1)
50
Describe the structure and function of a vesicle: (2) - Structure (1) - Function (1)
- A membrane bound sac. (1) - For transport and storage. (1)
51
Explain the structures common to all viruses: (7) (1+1+3+2)
- A small size: Contains few molecules. (1) - Fixed size: They don't grow. (1) - Nucleic Acid: Their genomes are made up of DNA or RNA. (1), they can be single or double stranded, (1), nucleic acids can have linear of circular structure. (1) - Capsid: Made of protein (1) and has attachment proteins to allow viruses to bind and enter host cells. (1) - No cytoplasm - Very few, or no enzymes. (1)
52
State something that diversifies the structure of viruses: (1)
- Some viruses are enveloped in the host cell membrane and others are not. (1)
53
Explain the structures and function of bacteriophage lambda: (3) - (1+2)
- It has a double stranded DNA genome within its capsid head. (1) - Tails fibres allows it to attach itself to the host and inject DNA into it from the tail. (1) - The tail sheath contains proteins that contract, allowing the tail to move through the host cells outer membrane. (1)
54
Describe the structures of coronaviruses: (4)
- Spherical shape. (1) - Single stranded RNA as its genetic material. (1) - An envelope outside the capsid. (1) - Projections of spike proteins on the envelope, creating 'coronas'. (1)
55
Describe the structure and function of HIV: (4) (3+1)
- It has an envelope outside the capsid. (1) - Capsid has 2 identical single strands of RNA. (1) - Within the viral RNA, reverse transcriptase is encoded. (1) allowing for the production of DNA. (1) - Has envelope spikes made of protein and carbohydrate. (1)
56
State why HIV is known as a retrovirus: (1)
- It makes a DNA copy of its RNA code. (1)
57
Explain the lytic cycle of bacteriophage lambda: (5)
- Attachment: The phage attaches to the host cell. (1) - Penetration: Phage penetrates the host cell and injects its DNA. (1) - Biosynthesis: Phage DNA directs synthesis of viral components by the host cell. (1) - Maturation: Viral components are assembled into virions. (1) - Release: Host cells lyses and new virions are released. (1)
58
Explain the lysogenic cycle in bacteriophage lambda: (5)
- Attachment: The virus attaches to the host cell. (1) - Virus DNA/RNA is taken into host cell. (1) - Lysogeny: Virus DNA/RNA integrates with bacterial DNA. (1) - Lysogenic bacteria reproduce and divide. (1) - Environmental event triggers lytic pathway. (1)
59
State what viruses use host cells for: (3)
- Energy supply (1) - Nutrition (1) - Protein synthesis. (1)
60
Describe the escape theory of the origin of viruses: (3)
- Viruses arose from genetic elements like DNA and RNA. (1) - They gained the ability to move between cells. (1) - These genetic elements became surrounded by an outer boundary which forms a virus particle. (1)
61
Describe the regressive theory of the origin of viruses: (2)
- Viruses are remnants of cellular organisms or small cells that were parasites of large cells. (1) - It then shed cellular structures that were no longer needed, which left just viral structures. (1)
62
Describe the virus first theory of the origin of viruses: (3)
- Viruses originated before their cellular hosts. (1) - Viruses evolved into more complex virus particles from simple ones. (1) - Due to the simple nature of complex virus particles, it could indicate viruses evolved first. (1)
63
State reasons why some viruses have a rapid evolution rate: (3)
- High mutation rates (1) - Have large population sizes. (1) - Have short generation times. (1)
64
State the type of genetic change the following viruses undergo: (2) - HIV (1) - Influenza (1)
- Antigenic drift (1) - Antigenic shift (1)
65
Describe antigenic drift: (3)
- Small changes accumulate in viral genetic material over time. (1) - Variation in surface proteins of the virus appear slowly. (1) - Eventually, the host immune system cannot recognise the virus. (1)
66
Describe antigenic shift: (3)
- 2 or more virus types infect the same cell and combine genetic material. (1) - Rapid variation is produced in the surface proteins of the viruses. (1) - A new virus is created which isn't recognized by the hosts immune system. (1)
67
Describe the consequences of treating diseases caused by rapidly evolving viruses: (2)
- Vaccines need to be changed and updated yearly so they remain effective. (1) - Fast evolving viruses need to be dealt with the isolation of those infected to stop the spread. (1)
68
Define the term prebiotic period: (1)
- The time on earth before life was present. (1)
69
Describe the conditions of early earth: (4)
- Warmer than present earth. (1) - Higher atmospheric concentrations of methane and carbon dioxide. (1) - Lower levels of atmospheric oxygen. (1) - No ozone layer so UV radiation was higher. (1)
70
State why cells can be classified as the smallest unit of life: (1)
- They possess characteristics that allow them to be self sustaining. (1) - They use energy to maintain order and structure. (1)
71
State the people who tested the origin of compounds: (1)
- Miller and Urey. (1)
72
Explain how Miller and urey tested the origin of compounds. (4)
- They took components that were thought to be on early earth like methane, ammonia, water vapour and hydrogen gas in a flask. (1)v - They then simulated a lighting strike using by using electrical discharges. - The resultant components were cooled and the process was started again. (1) - After repeating the experiment, they discovered that a variety of carbon compounds were produced. (1)
73
Describe the hypothesis for the origin of genetic material in cells: (3)
- It is hypothesized that RNA could have been the genetic material to be used in early protocells. (1) - This is because RNA can store information, can self-replicate and act as a catalyst. (1) - Because they can act as a catalyst, RNA could have played the role of carrying genetic information as well as acting as enzymes. (1)
74
Describe how cell membranes and vesicle membranes are made:
- They are made of phospholipids which are amphipathic molecules that have polar and non-polar ends. (1) - When they come together, they can arrange themselves into a spherical structure with a membrane bilayer. (1) - The exterior faces the exterior and interior polar solutions and the tails face each other to form the nonpolar membrane core. (1)
75
Describe how scientists investigate the first origin of life: (5)
- Data can be collected from rock samples, where isotope ratios can be pulled from elements found within the rocks. (1) - This points to to the presence of living organisms being there. (1) - Old rock formations have fossilized stromatolites. (1) - Stromatolites are formed when cyanobacteria secrete calcium carbonate that builds up. (1) - The presence of cyanobacteria hints at the fact that there was life back then. (1)
76
State what the differences shown between genomes of 2 organisms is proportional to: (1)
- The amount of time that they last shared a common ancestor. (1)
77
Describe evidence that bacteria and archaea were living in hydrothermal vents: (4)
- Scientists have identified multiple genes that bacteria and archaea share that might have been inherited from LUCA. (1) - The genes that match up were found to be important for cellular processes that includes anaerobic metabolism and fixing of nitrogen and carbon dioxide. (1) - This leads to the idea of their early ancestors being in environments where there are high concentrations of carbon dioxide, hydrogen and inorganic chemicals. (1) - This leads to the theory that the LUCA evolved in hydrothermal vents. (1)
78
Define the term hydrothermal vents: (2)
Natural structures on the ocean floor that release geothermal heated water. (1) That contains many inorganic chemicals. (1)
79
Describe the structure of skeletal muscles: (2)
- It consists of many cells that have fused. (1) - It is multinucleated. (1)
80
Describe the structure of aseptate fungal hyphae: (Structure = 4)
- They have narrow branches called hyphae. (1) - Hyphae have cell membranes and cell walls. (1) - They are multinucleated with continuous cytoplasm. (1) - Cells have no end walls making them appear as one cell. (1)
81
Describe the structure and function of red blood cells: (3) (2+1)
- They don't have a nucleus: (1) - So they can carry haemoglobin (1) - Biconcave disc allows for a large surface area to improve oxygen carrying capacity. (1)
82
Describe the structure and function of phloem sieve tubes: (1) (2+1)
- It transports dissolved substances, such as sucrose, around the plant. (1) - They have no end cell wall and lack cell organelles. (1) - They have companion cells which sit along the sieve tube elements to maintain the cytoplasm. (1)
83
Define the term endosymbiosis: (1)
- Where one organism lives within another. (1)
84
Explain the endosymbiotic theory: (7)
- To increase the SA:V ratio, ancestral prokaryotes developed infoldings in their membrane. (1) - This caused the formation of the nucleus and the RER. (1) - The larger anaerobic cell engulfed a smaller aerobic cell. (1) - This gave the larger cell a competitive advantage and evolved into an heterotrophic eukayote cell with mitochondria. (1) - The heterotrophic eukaryote engulfs a photosynthetic prokaryote. (1) - This provides the cell with a competitive advantage since it can provide the cell with energy in the form of carbohydrates. (1) - These photosynthetic prokaryotes evolve into chloroplasts. (1)
85
Describe the evidence which supports the endosymbiotic theory: (5)
- Both replicate by binary fission. (1) - Both have their own circular, non-membrane bound DNA. (1) - Both transcribe mRNA from DNA. (1) - Both have 70S ribosomes to synthesize proteins. (1) - Both have double membranes. (1)
86
Define the following terms: (4) - Obligate anaerobes: (2) - Facultative anaerobes: (1) - Obligate aerobes: (1)
- Single celled organisms that can only carry out anaerobic respiration. (1) - And cannot tolerate oxygen. (1) - Organisms that mainly respire aerobically, but can switch to anaerobic respiration in the absence of oxygen. (1) - Organisms that cannot survive in the absence of oxygen. (1) -
87
State how the following generates energy: (3) - Phototrophic archaea (1) - Chemotrophic archaea (1) - Heterotrophic archaea (1)
- It uses energy from light to generate ATP. (1) - Produces carbon compounds using chemosynthesis. (1) - Use carbon compounds from other organisms to generate ATP. (1)
88

Biology (2 decks)

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