1 - Basic Concepts & Financial Statements Flashcards
1
Q
Financial reporting frameworks (FRFs) may be what 2 types of frameworks? (GS)
A
- General purpose frameworks
2. Special purpose frameworks
2
Q
Publicly held entities are required to submit their Financial Statement (F/S) in accordance with what type of framework?
A
General purpose framework, either GAAP or IFRS
3
Q
Nonpublic entities are required to submit their Financial Statement (F/S) in accordance with what type of framework?
A
Any framework that fairly balances needs of their F/S users and the cost of providing information (GAAP, IFRS, special purpose framework)
4
Q
What are the four criteria included in a financial reporting framework? (RMPD)
A
- Recognition criteria to determine what appears on F/S and when it will appear
- Measurement criteria to determine the amount at which to be reported
- Presentation criteria to determine where it will appear on the F/S
- Disclosure criteria to determine what and how much information to provide
5
Q
What are the two general purpose frameworks? (GI)
A
- GAAP
2. IFRS
6
Q
Statements prepared under a special purpose framework must have modified titles showing ______
A
Basis of accounting (e.g., “Consolidated Statements of Assets, Liabilities and Equity (FRF for SMEs Basis)”)
7
Q
What are some major special purpose frameworks? (5) (CTCRF)
A
- Cash Basis
- Tax Basis
- Contractual Basis
- Regulatory Basis
- FRF for SMEs (Financial Reporting Framework for Small- and Medium-Sized Entities)
8
Q
What is a Cash Basis (special purpose framework) (4) (REFM)?
A
- Revenues recognized when received, regardless when they are earned
- Expenses recognized when paid, regardless of when they are incurred
- Fixed assets are expensed and not capitalized
- Modified cash basis is a hybrid approach between cash and accrual (assets may be capitalized, tax & inventory may accrue)
9
Q
What is a Tax Basis (special purpose framework) (2) (RT)?
A
- Revenues and expenses recognized for financial reporting purposes in the same period and same amount as they are recognized when preparing income tax return
- Tax basis could be cash- or accrual-basis
10
Q
What is a Contractual Basis (special purpose framework) (MG) (2)?
A
- May be required to be used by a party to a contract
2. Generally designed to assist users to determine whether or not terms/requirements are being followed
11
Q
What is a Regulatory Basis (special purpose framework)?
A
May be imposed by government agency to whom reporting is required
12
Q
Generally, what basis of accounting do purpose frameworks apply?
A
Accrual basis of accounting
13
Q
Under accrual basis, revenues are recognized in _____
A
Periods in which they are earned, regardless of when they are received (expenses recognized when incurred, regardless of when paid)
14
Q
What are the objectives of financial reporting? (6) (PICFFC)
A
- Primary objective - Provide information useful to existing and potential investors, lenders, and creditors in making decisions about providing resources
- Information on the entity’s economic resources (Balance Sheet (B/S))
- Changes in economic resources and claims
- Financial performance (w/ accrual accounting) (Income Statement (I/S))
- Financial performance reflected by past cash flow (S of Cash Flow)
- Changes in economic resources/claims NOT resulting from financial performance (e.g., issuing additional stock) (Statement of Changes in Owners’ Equity)
15
Q
Primary qualitative characteristics make information useful when they have _____
A
Relevance and faithful representation
16
Q
Relevance is ____
Information is relevant when it has ____ (PC)
A
Information capable of making a difference in a user’s decision-making process if it has:
- Predictive value - Helps decision makers predict or forecast future results
- Confirmatory value (Feedback value) - Confirms/corrects prior predictions
17
Q
Faithful representation is comprised of: (3) (FNC)
A
- Free from Error - No errors/omissions in the information
- Neutrality (w/o bias) - Information is free from bias
- Completeness - Adequate or full disclosure of all necessary information
18
Q
What are some enhancing qualitative characteristics for relevance/faithful representation? (CUTV)
A
- Comparability - Same principles used in similar industry
- Understandability - Same accounting methods in different periods
- Timeliness - Information is available to a decision maker when it is useful to make the decision
- Verifiability - Different sources agree on an amount through direct/indirect verification
19
Q
Some constraints that override usefulness of information are: (2) (CM)
A
- Cost/benefit - Cost of obtaining/presenting information shouldn’t exist benefits
- Materiality - Capable of making a difference in the user’s decision-making process if omitted or misstated (auditor’s judgment)
20
Q
How many statements are in a full set of financial statements? (4) (PECC)
A
- Statement of Position (Balance Sheet)
- Statement of Earnings Financial & Comprehensive Income (Income Statement)
- Statement of Cash Flows
- Statement of Changes in Owners’ Equity (Statement of Investments by and Distributions to Owners)
21
Q
F/S elements must be _____
A
Useful
22
Q
What are the key elements are in all F/S?
A
- Assets
- Liabilities
- Equity
- Investments by owners
- Distributions to owners (dividends)
- Comprehensive income
- Revenues
- Expenses
- Gains
- Losses
23
Q
What are the 3 basic elements of all F/S?
A
- Assets
- Liabilities
- Equity or Net Assets
24
Q
An asset is an _____
A
Economic resource with probable future benefit, one can obtain the benefit, and the transaction creating the benefit has already occurred
25
A Liability is an _____
Economic obligation that one needs to use or transfer an asset, it can't be avoided and the transaction has already occurred
26
Equity or net assets are _____
Assets left over after deducting liabilities
27
What are the 3 elements of equity? (IDC)
1. Investment by owners (i.e.,
contributions)
2. Distribution to owners (i.e., dividends)
3. Comprehensive income - All changes in equity other than "owner" sources
28
What are the four elements of a comprehensive income? (REGL)
1. Revenues - Inflows from entity's primary operations
2. Expenses - Outflows due to an entity's primary operations
3. Gains - Increases in equity from incidental transactions
4. Losses - Decreases in equity from incidental transactions
29
Comprehensive income may be separated into what two categories on the income statement? (NO)
1. Net income
| 2. Other comprehensive income (DENT)
30
What are some "other comprehensive income?" (DENT)
1. Derivative cash flow hedges
2. Excess adjustments of Pension PBO and FV of plan assets at year end
3. Net unrealized gains or losses on "available-for-sale" securities
4. Translation adjustments for foreign currency
31
What must be considered to decide what will be included in come?
Capital maintenance concept being used
32
The 2 types of capital maintenance concepts are: (PF)
1. Physical capital maintenance concept - Only recognize an event when an asset is sold or a liability is settled (measures the effects of price changes in nominal or constant dollars)
2. Financial capital maintenance concept - Recognizes an event as a change in the value of an asset or liability occurs (recognize holding gains and losses - current GAAP)
33
Current accounting methods emphasize ______ approach with ____ (not adjusted to MV), but emphasize ______ approach with most ______ (generally reported MV).
Why? (2)
Physical capital; Fixed assets; Financial capital; Marketable securities
1. Market values of fixed assets are difficult to verify; adjustments based on management estimates subject to bias
2. Active market for investment securities provides VERIFIABLE numbers and not subject to bias
34
What are 8 accounting rules/concepts that go with key elements? (CCCMAFRR)
1. Consistency
2. Conservatism
3. Cost/Benefit
4. Matching
5. Allocation
6. Full Disclosure
7. Recognition
8. Realization
35
Consistency is ____
Same principle each year
36
Conservatism is ____
Considering all risks inherent in the business (accruing a contingent loss)
37
Cost/benefit is ______
Costs don't exceed benefits to be derived
38
Matching is _____
Recognizing cost as expense in the same period as the benefit (usually a revenue) is recognized
39
Allocation is _____
Spreading cost over more than one period
40
Full disclosure is ______
Providing all useful info in F/S
41
Recognition is ______
Booking an item in F/S
42
Realization is ______
Converting non-cash resources into cash/claim to cash
43
When do you recognize elements as valid in a F/S? (DMRR)
1. Meets Definition of an element (asset, liability, etc.)
2. Measurable in monetary terms
3. Relevant of making a difference in user decisions
4. Reliable and verifiable
44
How are elements measured in monetary terms? (HRFNP)
1. Historical cost - Amount paid
2. Replacement (current cost) - Cost to replace an item
3. Fair Value (FV) - Price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction at the measurement date
4. Net Realizable Value (NRV) - Amount expected to be converted into
5. Present Value (PV)- Discounted cash flows due to time value of money
45
When is present value of future cash flows is an appropriate means of measuring transactions? (SFAC7)
When assets/services are exchanged for future cash
46
What are the factors for prevent value calculations under SFAC7? (RTIA)
1. Risk - Probability that cash will actually be paid/received
2. Timing - Periods in which payments are expected to be received
3. Interest - Interests rates (credit standing) that would be appropriate
4. Amount of cash flows
47
What are the two approaches to cash flows? (TE)
1. Traditional - Use most likely cash flow amounts (most likely to collect)
2. Expected approach - Use weighted average of different possibilities
48
When measuring liability, one must look at the ____
Credit standing of the entity who owes the money
49
What is an ASC 820? (3)
1. Defines the term "fair value (FV)" for financial reporting purposes
2. Describes various methods by which fair value can be measured for an asset and for a liability
3. Indicates disclosures that are required to be provided when items are reported at fair value on the F/S
50
What items are required to be reported at Fair Value? (MEAID)
1. Marketable debt securities investments that are classified as either trading securities or available-for-sale (AFS) securities
2. Equity securities investments
3. Assets/liabilities in a business combination (initially recognized at FV, but NOT adjusted to FV in subsequent periods unless required) (e.g., M&A, consolidations)
4. Impairment losses
4. All Derivatives (except for interest rate swaps that are hedges when alternative accounting approach available to non-public entities is elected)
51
(ASC 820) Fair value is the ____
Price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an "orderly transaction" between market participants at the measurement date"
- "Orderly" - Not a forced transaction
52
"Market participants" are parties that are ____ (IRIV)
1. Independent of the entity
2. Reasonably knowledgeable about asset/liability
3. In a position to acquire asset or assume liability
4. Voluntarily willing to acquire assets or assume liability
53
It is assumed that a transaction will occur in a _____
Principal market in which the asset/liability would most frequently be traded (i.e., value)
54
If there is no principal market, then values are based on the assumption that transactions would occur in the _____
Most advantageous market (i.e., market that maximizes the price)
55
What are the 3 valuation techniques? (MIC)
1. Market approach
2. Income approach
3. Cost approach
56
Market approach involves ____
Using information generated by market transactions that involve identical/comparable assets or liabilities
57
Income approach involves _____
Analyzing future amounts in the form of revenues, cost savings, earnings, or some other item (i.e., present value technique)
58
Cost approach involves _____
Measuring the cost that would be incurred to replace the benefit derived from an asset (i.e., cost of acquiring the asset)
59
What are the 3 levels of inputs?
1. Level 1 (Most reliable) - Observable data from actual market transactions
2. Level 2 - Observable data, but either transactions did not occur in active market or related (not identical) assets/liabilities
3. Level 3 (Least reliable) - Unobservable data and largely based on management's judgment
60
What are the 6 steps to Fair Value measurement? (IPVAIC)
1. Identify assets/liability to be measured
2. Determine principal or most advantageous market (highest & best use)
3. Determine valuation premise (i.e., more value by use or exchange?)
4. Determine appropriate valuation technique (i.e., market, income, cost approach)
5. Obtain inputs for valuation (i.e., which level)
6. Calculate the fair value of the asset
61
What must disclosures provide F/S users to ensure better information? (VUE)
1. Valuation techniques used to measure the fair value, including judgments and assumptions made
2. Uncertainty in the fair value measurements as of the reporting date
3. Effect of changes in fair value measurements on entity performance and cash flows
62
(ASC 820) What are required disclosures for increased consistency and comparability? (ILVD)
1. Identification of items reported at fair value and where they can be found in the F/S
2. Level of inputs applied
3. Valuation technique applied (market/income/cost)
4. Disposition of changes in fair value (income or comprehensive income)
63
ASC 825 allows an entity to ____
Elect to report some/all of its financial instruments at their fair values
64
"Financial instrument" is defined as ____
1. Cash
2. Evidence of ownership interest in an entity (e.g., stock)
3. Contract that imposes obligations or conveys contractual right to third party
65
What are some items that are measured at fair value, but do not qualify for the "fair value option" election? (PLFS)
1. Pension plan, post-retirement, post-employment benefits
2. Leases (ASC 842)
3. Financial instruments that are components of equity
4. Share-based payments and stock options
66
When fair value option is elected, _______ are reported in ______
Unrealized gains and losses; Income
67
ASC 326 specifies the reporting for ____
Declines in value of financial assets that result from expected inability of the debtor to make all payments
68
What are the 2 types of assets subject to the recognition of credit losses under ASC 326? (AA)
1. Assets measured at amortized cost
| 2. Available-for-sale (AFS) debt securities
69
"Amortized cost" is the ____
Amount at which a financial asset originates or is acquired, adjusted for accrued interest, accretion, amortization, collections, write-offs, and other accounting adjustments
70
What assets (measured at amortized cost) are subject to the recognition of credit losses? (AFHF)
1. Accounts receivables resulting from recognizing revenue
2. Financing receivables (contractual right to receive)
3. Held-to-maturity debt securities
4. Financial assets addressed in ASC 860
71
"Financing receivables" is defined as _____
Contractual right to receive money on demand or on fixed or determinable dates (and recognized in balance sheet)
72
What are some financial assets that are excluded/not subject to credit losses? (FLLLPO)
1. Financial assets measured at fair value
2. Loans by defined contribution employee benefit plans
3. Loans of an insurance entity made to the policy owners
4. Loans/receivables between entities under common control
5. Promises to give recognized by a non-profit entity
6. Operating lease receivables
73
"Allowance for Credit Losses" allow ____ to accumulate in a ____
Credit losses; Contra-asset account
74
Increases in the allowance are reported in a ______ account
Credit Loss Expense
75
Decreases in the allowance are reported in a ______ account
Reversal of Credit Loss Expense
76
Pooling assets are financial assets that have _____, and are evaluated for _____
Similar risk characteristics; Credit losses on a collective basis
77
What are some methods to evaluate credit losses? (DLRPA)
1. Discounted cash flow
2. Loss-rate
3. Roll-rate
4. Probability-of-default
5. Aging
78
Discounted cash flow method evaluates ____
Losses by determining the present value of expected future cash flows
79
Loss-rate method evaluates ______
Losses as a percentage of total exposure
80
Roll-rate method evaluates _____
Losses on the basis of time required for the conversion cycle, the period required for instruments to be realized (e.g., using historical trends, credit indicators)
81
Probability-of-default evaluates
Losses by multiplying a likelihood that an instruments will be defaulted upon by the balance of the instrument
82
Aging method evaluates
Instruments that are stratified and different percentages are applied to each stratum
83
Under discounted cash flow method, expected future receipts are required to be discounted using the _____
Effective interest rate of the financial instrument being evaluated
84
Off-balance sheet risk is risk ______
Not associated with a financial asset/other items that are reported on the balance sheet
85
Financial assets are required to be written off in the period in which it is determined that they are _____
Uncollectible
86
What does PCD stand for?
Purchased financial assets with Credit Deterioration
87
In the balance sheet, off-balance-sheet credit risk exposures are to be reported as ________ in the liability section
Expected credit losses
88
Under _____ basis of accounting, revenues/expenses are recognized in the period _________
Accrual; Earned/Incurred (regardless when paid)
89
When recognizing "expenses," what are the 3 ways to recognize?
1. Cause and effect (CGS)
2. Systematic and rational allocation (depreciation)
3. Immediate recognition (monthly salaries, administrative expenses)
90
"Financial instrument" that both:
1. Imposes contractual _____ either to deliver/exchange _____ to second entity
2. Conveys a contractual ____ either to receive/exchange _____
1. Obligation; Cash/financial instruments
| 2. Right; Cash/financial instrument
91
What are some examples of financial assets/liabilities that qualify for the fair value option?
1. Most investments that do not already require FV measurements (e.g., investments accounted for under the equity method)
2. Firm commitments involving financial instruments (e.g., forward exchange contracts to purchase foreign currency)
92
ASC 326 is also referred to as _______ Method. It is ______
Current Expected Credit Loss (CECL)
Forward-looking (for risks)
93
Under CECL, we estimate _______ over the _____ lifetime
Expected credit loss; Entire
94
Some entities reduce exposure to credit losses by using _______, such as requiring a guarantorr.
Credit enhancements
95
If the asset is a PCD asset (i.e., more than an ______ amount), it will likely be purchased at a _____ because of the potential for ______.
Insignificant; Larger discount; Credit Loss
96
What are 4 types of footnotes in the back of F/S? (SSO)
1. Summary of Significant Accounting Policies (e.g., inventory costing method) - Includes:
- Basis for consolidation
- Depreciation methods
- Amortization of intangibles
- Recognition of revenue from contracts/leases
2. Summary of Significant Assumptions - Assumptions used to estimate future amounts
3. Other Notes to the Financial Statements (e.g., contingent liabilities/obligations, significant changes in account balances)
97
"Monetary" means it is _____ in dollar value
Fixed
98
"Monetary" items are: (CABPA)
1. Cash
2. Accounts/notes receivable
3. Bond investments held to maturity
4. Prepaid expenses
5. Accounts/notes/bonds payable
6. Bad debt expenses
99
"Non-monetary" items are: (IPIM)
1. Inventory
2. PPE
3. Intangible
4. Marketable securities
100
If there is INFLATION:
1. Monetary ASSET- Purchasing power _____
2. Monetary LIABILITY - Purchasing power _____
Loss; Gain
101
Under ASC 275, the four areas of disclosure are: (NUCC)
1. Nature of operations - How entity generates revenue (e.g., major products, services, etc.)
2. Use of estimates (i.e., preparation in accordance with GAAP, frameworks)
3. Certain significant estimates (disclosure of reasonably possible material changes)
4. Current vulnerability associated with certain concentrations (i.e., lack of diversification)
102
Many consider IFRS to be ______-based, but GAAP is considered to be more ____-based.
Principle/concept; Rule
103
Under IASB, financial information is prepared under the assumption that the entity is a _____.
Going concern
104
Under IASB, the 5 elements of financial reporting are:
Financial position elements:
1. Assets
2. Liabilities
3. Equity
Performance elements:
4. Income
5. Expenses
105
Under IASB, an asset is a _______.
Present economic resource.
Economic resource is a right that has the potential to produce economic benefits
106
Under IASB, "Income" includes both ____ and ____
Revenues; Gains
Income may be realized or unrealized
107
Under IASB, "Expenses" are ______
Decreases in economic benefits during the accounting period. It includes both expenses and losses.
108
________ results from revaluation or restatement of assets/liabilities that cause changes in equity, but not from income or expenses
Capital maintenance adjustments
109
(Derecognition) Assets/Liabilities that have been recognized should generally be removed when the entity:
1. Loses control of all or part of an asset
| 2. No longer has a present obligation for all or part of a liability
110
(Revenue recognition) Under IASB, revenue is recognized from all transactions, including:
1. Sale of goods
2. Rendering of services
3. Use of assets to earn interest, royalties, and dividends
111
(Revenue recognition) Revenue is measured at the ___________
Fair value of consideration received
112
(Revenue recognition) Revenues from the sale of goods occur when 5 criteria have been met:
1. Significant risks and rewards of ownership transferred
2. Selling entity does not retain managerial involvement of the asset
3. Amount can be reliably measured
4. Economic benefits are likely to flow to the entity
5. Costs can be reliably measured
113
(Revenue recognition) For transactions involving "rendering of services", revenue is recognized when:
1. Outcome can be reliably estimated, revenue is recognized based on stage of completion)
2. Outcome cannot be reliably estimated, revenue is recognized to the extent of recoverable expenses recognized (cost recovery)
114
(Revenue recognition) Revenues from "interest, royalties, and dividends" are recognized as:
1. Interest - Apply the effective interest method
2. Royalties - Apply accrual basis
3. Dividends - Recognized when shareholders' right to receive payment is established
115
Disclosures must include:
1. Accounting policies for revenue recognition
2. Amount of recognized revenue in each significant category
- Sale of goods
- Rendering of services
- Interest
- Royalties
- Dividends
3. Amount of revenue from exchange of goods/services
116
Cash equivalents must meet the following criteria:
1. Easily convertible into a known amount of cash (highly liquid)
2. Has an original maturity of 3 months or less from the date of purchase
117
What are items that are EXCLUDED from "cash"? (CPORP)
1. Compensating balances - Legally restricted deposits
2. Postdated checks or NSF - Considered as "receivables"
3. Overdraft protection (same bank - net; different banks - no net)
4. Restricted cash
5. Postage stamps (prepaid expense as supplies)
118
(GAAP Income Statement) ON-TIDe-N-OC
1. (O) Operating Income
2. (N) Other Income (Non-operating)
3. (T) Provision for Income Tax
4. (I) Income from continuing operations
5. (De) Discontinued component unit
6. (N) Net income
7. (O) OCI, DENT (net of tax)
8. (C) Comprehensive income
119
(IFRS) An asset is classified as "current" when:
1. Entity expects to realize the asset or to consume or sell it within 12 months of the normal operating cycle, or
2. Entity holds the asset primarily for the purpose of trading
120
(IFRS) A liability is classified as "current" when:
1. Entity expects the settle the liability within normal operating cycle or 12 months after reporting period
2. Entity holds the liability for purpose of trading
121
Financial assets are measured at amortized cost ONLY if 2 conditions are met:
** All other financial assets are measured at ____
1. Entity's business model is to hold the asset to collect scheduled cash flows
2. Terms of the instrument call for cash flows that are exclusively payments of principal and interest on specified dates
** Fair value
122
Common ratios used to determine the ____________ are:
Ability of the company to cover its upcoming bills
1. Current ratio
2. Quick (acid test) ratio
123
Current ratio is _________ at the balance sheet date.
Current assets / Current liabilities
124
Quick ratio is ________
Quick assets / Current liabilities
125
Quick assets are: (CMA)
1. Cash
2. Marketable securities
3. Accounts receivable
126
What are the 2 ratios used to measure the "efficient use of inventory"?
1. Inventory turnover ratio
| 2. Number of days' sales in average inventory
127
Inventory turnover ratio is calculated by:
Cost of sales / Average inventory
128
Number of days' sales in average inventory is calculated by:
Average inventory / Daily cost of sales
129
If the exam doesn't provide CGS, it must be calculated by:
Beginning inventory + Purchases - Ending inventory
130
If "beginning inventory" is not given, then it is calculated by:
(Beginning inventory + Ending inventory) / 2
131
What are the 2 ratios to measure the "efficiency of receivables"?
1. Receivables turnover ratio
| 2. Number of days' sales in average receivables
132
Receivables turnover ratio is calculated by:
Credit sales / Average receivables
133
Number of days' sales in average receivables is calculated by:
Average receivables / Daily credit sales
