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1 Flashcards

1
Q

Explosive operations involving only demolition explosives requires what medical time frames

A
  • Medical support within 30 min

- Trauma facility within 60 min via ground or air

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2
Q

Explosive operations involving only practice munitions that include expl/fire hazards requires what medical respond times

A
  • EMT-P (paramedic) on site or within 30 min
  • Trauma care within 30 min
  • definitive care within 60 min via ground or air
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3
Q

Exp operations involving live munitions (other than demo exp) requires what medical resp times

A
  • EMT-P on site
  • Trauma care within 30 min
  • definitive care within 60 min via ground or air
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4
Q

Do not take non-DOD toxic or hazardous materials to military installations for storage or disposal unless

A
  • the situation is clearly an emergency or lifesaving operation
  • formal agreement exists with other federal agencies
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5
Q

What are the two levels of EOD response and what is the difference

A

Level 1 - immediate response
Level 2 - imminent and substantial endangerment

A level 2 response can be delayed without compromising safety or increasing risk to property, health or the environment

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6
Q

Who can determine if a situation requires a level 1, level 2 or no EOD emergency response

A

On scene EOD team leader

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7
Q

Who can determine when a response action is complete?

A

Only the on scene EOD team leader

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8
Q

What are level 1 responses exempt from?

A
  • RCRA permitting

- Department of Transportation manifesting for moving to a safe disposal area

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9
Q

EOD can not conduct what types of munitions responses?

A

Planned munition responses, but they can response to munition responses that occur during planned responses

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10
Q

What are EOD response times?

A
  • normal duty hours- enroute to site within 30 minutes of call, or approval from Wing CC
  • off duty- resounding to scene within 60 minutes
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11
Q

What are the 9 mission sets

A
  • Aerospace Systems/Vehicles and Conventional Munitions
  • Counter IED
  • Combatting WMD
  • Nuclear Weapon Response
  • UXO recovery operations
  • Operation Range Clearance
  • Defense Support to Civil Authorities
  • Irregular Warfare
  • VIPP Support
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12
Q

Guidelines for working Counter IED

A
  • EOD teams do not search in support of bomb threats
  • Use diagnostics and remote procedures first: hand entry is last resort
  • EOD teams are not responsible for the custody of explosive material during criminal investigations
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13
Q

What types of emergency munition support other than operational range activities should EOD teams respond to?

A
  • to ensure public safety
  • to identify unknown munitions
  • when there are possible chemical munitions involved
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14
Q

Can EOD teams assist in the investigation of subsurface anomalies identified by geological equipment?

A

No, even if at a munitions response site

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15
Q

According to TO 00-5-3 EOD units performing munitions test and eval support must receive rsp procedures how many days prior to scheduled delivery?

A

60 days

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16
Q

Incident reports must be submitted in what time frame on EODIMS?

A

Normal Response- 5 working days

DSCA - 72 hours

Range Clearance - 15 working days

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17
Q

Minimum hours of EOD proficiency training per week

A

16 hours in a 5 day work week not including PT/TDY/Range Clearance/Deployed/On leave

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18
Q

Explosive locally written instructions follow what rules

A
  • approved by sq commander
  • coordinated with weapons safety office and all involved organizations
  • available at the work site
  • written in language workers understand
  • briefed to all work workers prior to operations

91-201

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19
Q

Are locally written instructions required for EOD emergency operations?

A

No, for level 1 emergencies

91-201

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20
Q

What is required to be in locally written explosive instructions?

A
  • personell Limits
  • explosive limits
  • exact locations operations can be done
  • safety requirements
  • step by step procedures
  • emergency actions

91-201

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21
Q

Casuals are what

A

Persons not normally part of explosive operations but have duties that require their presence (QA, safety, inspection personnel)

91-201

22
Q

Visitors are what

A

Non essential personnel with limited access. Stop operations when present

91-201

23
Q

When cleaning explosive residue avoid what compounds on conductive floors and surfaces

A

Wax or oil compounds

24
Q

When cleaning explosive residue avoid what cleaning agents

A

Any that include caustic alkalis

Abrasive or volatile compounds. Close cup flash point must not be less than 230 degrees F

25
Q

How is static electricity created

A

When two different materials come in contact and then are separated again

91-201

26
Q

Do cargo aircraft require grounding during engine running onload/offload?

A

No

91-201

27
Q

Methods of static grounding

A
  • wrist straps connected to facility ground
  • conductive footwear on conductive floors
  • ground equipment to facility ground
  • conductive tabletops

91-101

28
Q

Best material for non static clothing

A

Cotton or cotton synthetic blend

91-201

29
Q

When can you modify, test, or disassemble explosive itemss

A
  • when authorized by TO
  • when MAJCOM and Weapons Systems program manager grant approval
  • when performing RSP, tech intel gathering, or authorized special projects
30
Q

Can Active duty AF or on duty AF civilians take part in the transportation, storage, or setup of commercial fireworks for an on base display

A

No

31
Q

Requirements for storing commercial explosives on base

A
  • must have approved SDS, DOT or other federal certification
  • in original packaging
  • must be separate from DOD explosives by a minimum of IMD
  • only moved or touched by contracted company
32
Q

Distance from crowds to air show display detonations?

A

1250 ft

33
Q

When must annual range clearance plan be finalized?

A

6 months prior to first clearance activity

AFMAN 12-212

34
Q

What is the minimum a range clearance operation plan must include?

A
  • number of personal involved
  • types of ordnance
  • expected levels of contamination
  • support requirements

AFMAN 13-212

35
Q

All range scheduling and EOD RST support must be finalized when?

A

45 days before the start of clearance operations

AFMAN 13-212

36
Q

What range records must be kept as permanent records?

A
  • All expenditures per target
  • All mishaps attributed to UXO
  • All EOD incidents and range clearance operations conducted on ranges
  • All areas known or suspected to contain UXOs

AFMAN 13-212

37
Q

EOD personnel or UXO qualified personnel will only perform subsurface UXO removal when and where?

A

Current or former hazard areas as required for construction activities

AFMAN 13-212

38
Q

When must low angle strafe targets be cleared?

A
  • Hand policed daily when used
  • Cleared after 15,000 scored rounds or 12 use days

AFMAN 13-212

39
Q

Human activity for tracking consists of what two key areas?

A

Human presence and Human patterns

L-1-1-43

40
Q

What is Spoor in reference to tracking?

A

Visual indicators

L-1-1-43

41
Q

What is ground spoor in reference to tracking?

A

Marks and impressions on ground surfaces (foot prints on dew)

L-1-1-43

42
Q

What is aerial spoor in reference to tracking?

A

Damage and disturbance to vegetation created by the passage of enemy through it from foot to head height

L-1-1-43

43
Q

What is sign or ground sign in reference to tracking?

A

Include any indicator other than ground or aerial spoor. But also can be used synonymously with spoor.

L-1-1-43

44
Q

What is the golden rule of tracking ground sign?

A

Place the tracks between the tracker and the sun

L-1-1-43

45
Q

Most effective times for proper viewing angles for tracking is when?

A

From first light until 1030 hours and 1530 hours until sunset

46
Q

What is the BRU-68/A load limit and main safety feature?

A

2000lbs

The reversible in flight locking mechanism (RIFL) that provides electrical, mechanical and arming commands

47
Q

What does the BRU-61 carry

A

4 GBU-39 series small diameter bombs that can be dropped individually

48
Q

When encountering an unknown fuze that has multiple firing systems develop an RSP how?

A

The the most sensation or hazardous attribute keeping stored energy in mind

49
Q

BD fuzes are typically found in what ordnance?

A

AP projectiles, antitank rockets, and rifle grenades

50
Q

BD fuzes associate with maintaining attitude of ordnance during handling after RSP why?

A

Usually free floating firing pins, creep spring retained or graze sensitive

SKT (1 decks)

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