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1
Q

Most common cause of post-operative hematoma in patients with no personal or family history of easy bleeding or bruising?

A

Insufficient hemostasis

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2
Q

Presentation - chronic or fluctuating conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and intermittent jaundice

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

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3
Q

Cause of Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

Benign, hereditary defect in hepatic excretion of conjugated bilirubin

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4
Q

Positive urine bilirubin reflects a build-up of conjugated bilirubin - explain.

A

Conjugated bilirubin is water soluble and readily excreted in urine. Normally, conjugated bilirubin is degraded in the intestines. If levels rise, some will be excreted in urine.

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5
Q

Positive urobilinogen reflects a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin - explain.

A

Unconjugated bilirubin is highly insoluble and cannot be excreted in urine. Excess undergoes metabolism to form urobilinogen, which is excreted in feces and urine.

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6
Q

What causes Gilbert syndrome?

A

Decreased bilirubin glucuronidation

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7
Q

Differentiate between Rotor and Dubin-Johnson syndromes?

A

Histology - black, pigmented liver in DJ, normal in Rotor

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8
Q

Presentation of disseminated gonococcal infection?

A

Purulent monoarthritis without systemic symptoms

OR

Triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and migratory polyarthralgia

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9
Q

Rx disseminated gonococcal infection

A

3rd generation cephalosporin IV AND oral azithromycin

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10
Q

Dx disseminated gonococcal infection?

A

Culture or PCR of blood, synovial fluid, potentially infected mucosal sites

Gram stain and culture are highly specific but insensitive, as >50% have negative culture

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11
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta:

  • Inheritance pattern
  • Mutation
A

Autosomal dominant

Mutations in type 1 collagen

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12
Q

5 U/S findings of type II osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  1. Multiple fractures
  2. Short femur
  3. Hypoplastic thoracic cavity
  4. Fetal growth restriction
  5. Intrauterine demise
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13
Q

Features of achondroplasia?

A
  1. Macrocephaly
  2. Frontal bossing
  3. Midface hypoplasia
  4. Rhizomelia (shortened limbs, especially proximally)
  5. Trident hand
  6. Genu varum (bowing of the tibia)
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14
Q

Features of amniotic band sequence?

A 
Limb defects (eg, amputation, hand defects, clubfoot)
Craniofacial defects
Abdominal wall defects
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15
Q

Features of Potter sequence?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia
Limb deformities (eg, clubfoot, hip dislocation)
Oligohydramnios
Most commonly caused by urinary tract abnormalities

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16
Q

Diagnose menopause?

A

Clinical symptoms

Increased FSH

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17
Q

Presentation - glazed, erythematous vulvar erosions bordered by white striae +/- associated vaginal and oral lesions

A

Vulvar lichen planus

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18
Q

Rx vulvar lichen planus?

A

High-potency topical corticosteroids

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19
Q

Dx vulvar lichen planus?

A

Biopsy (excludes cancer)

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20
Q

What is Todd paralysis?

A

Transient, focal neurologic deficit, typically manifested by hemiparesis that occurs after either a focal or generalized seizure

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21
Q

What is spondylolisthesis and how does it present?

A

Anterior slippage of a vertebral body due to bilateral defects of the pars interarticularis (spondylolysis), classically presents in an adolescent with LBP exacerbated by lumbar extension

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22
Q

Rx initial episode of C. difficile?

A

Vancomycin PO or fidaxomicin

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23
Q

Rx first recurrence of C. difficile?

A

Vancomycin PO in a prolonged pulse/taper course or fidaxomicin if vancomycin was used in initial episode

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24
Q

Rx multiple recurrences of C. difficile?

A

Vancomycin PO followed by rifaximin or fecal transplant

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25
Q

Rx fulminant C. difficile (hypotension, shock, ileus, megacolon)?

A

Metronidazole IV + high-dose vancomycin PO (or PR if ileus present)

Surgical evaluation

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26
Q

Why is IV vancomycin not effective against C. difficile?

A

It is not excreted into the colon

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27
Q

Diagnostic criteria for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A

1 of 3:

  • Persistent symptoms for 10+ days without improvement
  • Severe onset (fever 39+ with drainage) for 3+ days
  • Worsening symptoms following initial improvement
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28
Q

Rx acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin +/- clavulanate

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29
Q

Most common causes of acute bacterial rhinosinuisitis?

A

Non-typeable H. influenzae
S. pneumoniae
M. catarrhalis

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30
Q

Most common risk factor for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis? Second most common?

A

Viral URI; allergic rhinitis

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31
Q

Classic lab findings in infantile hyeprtrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

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32
Q

Why should electrolytes be normalized and alkalosis corrected prior to surgery in hypetrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

Decreases the risk of post-operative apnea, improves overall outcomes

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33
Q

Cause of Reye syndrome?

A

Pediatric aspirin use during influenza or varicella infection

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34
Q

Clinical features of Reye syndrome?

A

Acute liver failure and encephalopathy

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35
Q

When should you stop Pap testing?

A

Age 65 or hysterectomy PLUS no history of CIN2 or higher AND 3 consecutive negative Pap tests OR 2 consecutive negative co-testing results

Consider if there are risk factors for cervical cancer.

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36
Q

Frequency of Pap tests?

A

Begin at age 21 without co-testing every 3 years

At age 30, Pap with co-testing may be done and repeated every 5 years if negative

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37
Q

Features of mild hypothermia?

A

32-35 C (90-95 F)
Tachycardia, tachypnea
Ataxia, dysarthria, increased shivering

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38
Q

Features of moderate hypothermia?

A

28-32 C (82-90 F)

Bradycardia, lethargy, hypoventilation, DECREASED SHIVERING, atrial arrhythmias

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39
Q

Features of severe hypothermia?

A

<28 C (82 F)

Coma, CV collapse, ventricular arrhythmias

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40
Q

General treatment for hypothermia?

A

Warmed (42 C) crystalloid for hypotension

Endotracheal intubation in comatose patients

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41
Q

Rewarming techniques by classification of hypothermia?

A

Mild: passive external (remove wet clothes, cover with blankets)
Moderate: active external (warm blankets, heating pads, warm baths)
Severe: active internal (warmed pleural or peritoneal irrigation, warmed humidified oxygen)

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42
Q

Why is the bradycardia associated with hypothermia often refractory to treatment with atropine and cardiac pacing?

A

Due to decreased reactivity of the pacemaker cells

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43
Q

Presentation - rash after amoxicillin?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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44
Q

Lab findings in infectious mononucleosis?

A

Positive heterophile antibody (Monospot) test -> 25% false-negative rate during 1st week of illness

Atypical lymphocytosis

Transient hepatitis

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45
Q

Cause of hemineglect syndrome?

A

Non-dominant parietal lobe (R lobe in R-handed individuals)

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46
Q

Most common middle ear pathology in patients with AIDS?

A

Serous otitis media

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47
Q

Cause of serous otitis media in patients with AIDS?

A

Auditory tube dysfunction from lymphadenopathy or obstructing lymphoma

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48
Q

Characteristic feature of serous otitis media?

A

Midle ear effusion without evidence of an acute infection

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49
Q

Presentation of serous otitis media?

A

Conductive hearing loss

Dull tympanic membrane that is hypomobile on pneumatic otoscopy

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50
Q

4 lab findings of lactose intolerance?

A
  1. Positive hydrogen breath test
  2. Negative stool test for reducing substances
  3. Low stool pH (due to fermentation products)
  4. Increased stool osmotic gap (due to unmetabolized lactose and organic acids)

NO steatorrhea

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51
Q

Calculate stool osmotic gap?

A

290 - [2 (stool Na + stool K)]

> 50 in all forms of osmotic diarrhea

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52
Q

3 dietary recommendations for patients with renal calculi?

A
  1. Increase fluid intake
  2. Decrease sodium intake
  3. Normal dietary calcium intake
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53
Q

Manage acute low back pain?

A

Maintain moderate activity
NSAIDs or acetaminophen
Consider muscle relaxants, spinal manipulation, brief course of opioids

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54
Q

Manage chronic low back pain?

A

Intermittent use of NSAIDs or acetaminophen
PT
Consider TCAs, duloxetine

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55
Q

Common side effect of treatment with dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (eg, amlodipine)?

A

Peripheral edema (due to vasodilatory effects on peripheral blood vessels)

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56
Q

What is the purpose of tuberculin skin testing?

A

Identify asymptomatic patients with prior exposure to M. tuberculosis and latent TB infection

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57
Q

When the PPD induration is 15+ mm, who is treated?

A

Everyone

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58
Q

When the PPD induration is 10+ mm, who is treated?

A
  • Recent immigrants (<5 years) from TB-endemic areas
  • Injection drug users
  • Residents and employees of high-risk settings
  • Mycobacteriology lab personnel
  • Higher risk for TB reactivation (immunosupressed)
  • Children <4, those exposed to adults in high-risk categories
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59
Q

When the PPD induration is 5+ mm, who is treated?

A
  • HIV-positive patients
  • Recent contacts of known TB case
  • Nodular or fibrotic changes on CXR consistent with previously healed TB
  • Organ transplant recipients and other immunosuppressed patients
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60
Q

Rx latent TB?

A
  • Insoniazid + rifapentine weekly for 3 months under direct observation (not recommended in HIV)
  • Isoniazid monotherapy for 6-9 months
  • Rifampin for 4 months

Add pyridoxine to prevent neuropathies in patients taking isoniazid who have DM, uremia, alcoholism, malnutrition, HIV, pregnancy, epilepsy

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61
Q

Rx active pulmonary TB?

A

RIPE for 8 weeks, then isoniazid and rifampin for another 4 months

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62
Q

Presentation of AD PCKD?

A

Asymptomatic until age 30-40
HTN (early finding)
Hematuria, flank pain, nephrolithiasis, UTIs
May have elevated Hgb due to increased EPO
Palpable abdominal masses usually bilateral
CKD

63
Q

List 5 extrarenal features of AD PCKD?

A
  1. Cerebral aneurysms
  2. Hepatic and pancreatic cysts
  3. MV prolapse and aortic regurgitation
  4. Colonic diverticulosis
  5. Ventral and inguinal hernias
64
Q

___ should be suspected in patients who have hemolytic anemia, cytopenias, and hypercoagulable states (intra-abdominal or cerebral venous thrombosis).

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

65
Q

Dx PNH?

A

Flow cytometry to assess for absence of CD55 and CD59 proteins on RBC surface

66
Q

Lab findings in PNH?

A
  1. Hypoplastic/aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia leukopenia
  2. Elevated LDH, low haptoglobin (hemolysis)
  3. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia
  4. Hemoglobinuria
67
Q

Rx PNH?

A

Iron and folate supplementation

Eculizumab (MAB that inhibits complement activation)

68
Q

Relative risk can be calculated in ___ studies by comparing the risk (incidence) of disease among exposed individuals to the risk among unexposed individuals.

A

Cohort

69
Q

Why can relative risk not be directly calculated in case-control studies?

A

They do not follow patients over time or measure disease incidence

70
Q

When can OR generally approximate RR in a case-control study?

A

If the disease is rare (low disease prevalence) -> disease incidence is typically low

71
Q

RR = ?

A

(a/a+b)/(c/c+d)

72
Q

OR = ?

A

ad/bc

73
Q

7 clinical features of Cushing syndrome (hypercortisolism)?

A
  1. Central obesity
  2. Skin atrophy and wide purple striae
  3. Proximal muscle weakness
  4. HTN
  5. Glucose intolerance
  6. Skin hyperpigmentation (due to ACTH excess)
  7. Depression, anxiety
74
Q

Possible causes of Cushing syndrome?

A

Exogenous glucocorticoids (most common)
ACTH-producing pituitary tumor (Cushing disease)
Ectopic ACTH production (eg, small cell lung cancer)
Primary adrenal disease

75
Q

Initial step in evaluation of Cushing syndrome?

A

Confirm hypercortisolism with a late-night salivary cortisol essay, 24-hour urine free cortisol measurement, and/or overnight low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (2 should be abnormal to diagnose)

If confirmed, ACTH levels measured

76
Q

Compare clinical features of nephrotic syndrome vs. nephritic syndrome.

A

Nephrotic: edema, fatigue, proteinuria, NO hematuria, hypoalbuminemia

Nephritic: HTN, oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, casts

77
Q

Pediatric etiologies of nephrotic syndrome vs. nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephrotic: minimal change disease

Nephritic: PSGN, HUS

78
Q

Adult etiologies of nephrotic syndrome vs. nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephrotic: FSGS, membranous nephropathy, membranoproliferative GN

Nephritic: IgA nephropathy, Membranoproliferative GN, crescentic GN

79
Q

Significant risk factor for membranous nephropathy?

A

Hepatitis B infection

80
Q

Infection most commonly associated with FSGS?

A

HIV

81
Q

Features of beta blocker overdose?

A 
Bradycardia
AV block
Hypotension
Diffuse wheezing
Hypoglycemia
Neurologic dysfunction
82
Q

Intoxication with CCBs, digoxin, and cholinergic agents cause symptoms similar to beta blocker intoxication - which feature is specific for beta blockers?

A

Wheezing

83
Q

Management of beta blocker OD?

A
  1. Secure airway and give isotonic fluid boluses with IV atropine for initial treatment of hypotension and bradycardia
  2. If refractory or profound hypotension -> IV glucagon

May also use IV calcium, vasopressors, (epi/norepi), high-dose insulin and glucose, and IV lipid emulsion therapy

84
Q

Features of digoxin toxicity?

A

Life-threatening arrhythmias
Anorexia, N/V, abdominal pain
Fatigue, confusion, weakness, COLOR VISION ALTERATIONS

85
Q

Risk factors for intestinal atresia in neonates?

A
  • Poor fetal gut perfusion from maternal use of vasoconstrictors (medications, cocaine, tobacco, etc.)
  • Chromosomal abnormalities (duodenal only)
86
Q

Triple bubble sign + gasless colon?

A

Jejunal atresia

87
Q

Double bubble sign + gasless colon?

A

Duodenal atresia

88
Q

Cause of hypoxemia due to pneumonia?

A

Inflammatory exudate fills alveoli -> marked impairment of alveolar ventilation

R to L intrapulmonary shunting (extreme form of VQ mismatch)

89
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure reflects what?

A

L atrial pressure

90
Q

Presentation - bilateral symmetric macules on sun-exposed areas of the face during pregnancy (other risk factors include darker skin color, thyroid dysfunction, medications, cosmetic use)

A

Melasma (acquired hyperpigmentation disorder)

91
Q

Rx superficial infantile hemangioma?

A

Observation

If ulcerated, disabling, life-threatening, or in cosmetically sensitive areas -> topical beta blocker

92
Q

3 characteristic biochemical abnormalities of secondary hyperparathyroidism in chronic renal failure?

A

Hypocalcemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Increased PTH levels

93
Q

Presentation - continuous, painless leakage of urine, pooling clear fluid in the vagina, raised red granulation tissue or a vaginal defect

A

Vesicovaginal fistula

94
Q

Causes and timing of vesicovaginal fistula development?

A

Immediately: intraoperative bladder injury (C-section, hysterectomy, etc.)

Weeks or months: tissue necrosis and sloughing (surgery, childbirth, etc.)

Years: radiation-induced microvascular injury and progressive tissue ischemia and breakdown (pelvic radiotherapy, etc.)

95
Q

What can be used to identify a small vesicovaginal fistula?

A

Bladder dye test

96
Q

Rx transient synovitis in young children?

A

Rest and NSAIDs

97
Q

What develops abnormally in Mullerian agenesis?

A

Uterus, cervix, upper 1/3 of vagina

98
Q

Presentation of mullerian agenesis?

A 
Primary amenorrhea
Normal female external genitalia
Blind vaginal pouch
Absent or rudimentary uterus
Bilateral functioning ovaries -> normal FSH, estrogen, secondary sexual characteristics
99
Q

Management of mullerian agenesis?

A

Vaginal dilation

Renal U/S to assess for renal system abnormalities

100
Q

Most common cause of myocarditis in children?

A

Viral infection (Coxsackievirus B, adenovirus)

101
Q

Presentation of viral myocarditis?

A

Viral prodrome
Chest pain and respiratory distress from acute L heart failure and pulmonary edema
Dilated cardiomyoapthy with mitral regurgitation -> S3 gallop and holosystolic murmur
Hepatomegaly

102
Q

Diagnostic criteria of Kawasaki disease?

A

5+ days of fever and 4+ clinical criteria (rash, LAD >1.5 cm, conjunctivitis, mucosal changes, extremity changes)

103
Q

Rx moderate to severe dehydration in children?

A

IV bolus of isotonic fluid

104
Q

Method of assessing dehydration in children?

A
  1. Mild dehydration (3-5% volume loss): decreased intake or increased fluid loss with minimal or no clinical symptoms
  2. Moderate dehydration (6-9% volume loss): decreased skin turgor, dry mucus membranes, tachycardia, irritability, delayed capillary refill (2-3 seconds), decreased urine output
  3. Severe dehydration (10-15% volume loss): cool, clammy skin, delayed capillary refill (>3 seconds), cracked lips, dry mucus membranes, sunken eyes/fontanelle, tachycardia, lethargy, minimal or no urine output
105
Q

Rx mild to moderate dehydration in children?

A

Oral rehydration

106
Q

What is tinea versicolor?

A

Superficial fungal skin infection caused by Malassezia species

107
Q

Characteristic features of tinea versicolor?

A

Salmon-colored, hyper- or hypopigmented macules that are sometimes covered by fine scales, most commonly on the upper trunk and extremities

108
Q

Dx tinea versicolor?

A

KOH preparation showing large, blunt hyphae and thick-walled budding yeast (spaghetti and meatballs appearance)

109
Q

Rx tinea versicolor?

A

Selenium sulfide or ketoconazole

110
Q

Rx patient with AFib w/RVR who also has WPW syndrome?

A

Cardioversion (hemodynamically unstable) or antiarrhythmics such as procainamide (stable patients)

111
Q

Why should AV node blockers like BBs, CCBs (especially verapamil), digoxin, and adenosine by avoided in patients with WPW?

A

Increase conduction through the accessory pathway

112
Q

Unilateral (L-sided) varicoceles that fail to empty when a patient is recumbent raise suspicion for what?

A

Underlying mass pathology such as RCC that obstructs venous flow

113
Q

Compare syncope due to arrhythmia vs. vasovagal or neurocardiogenic.

A

Arrhythmia: underlying structural heart disease, may not have prodromal symptoms

Vasovagal/neurocardiogenic: prodrome with nausea, pallor, diaphoresis, generalized sense of warmth

114
Q

Most common cause of acquired angioedema?

A

ACE inhibitors (note - can occur ANYTIME, not just within weeks of starting the medication)

115
Q

Common AE of beta-blockers?

A

Bradycardia, AV block, bronchoconstriction (significant in patients with asthma and COPD), male sexual dysfunction

116
Q

Common AE of nitrates?

A

HA, hypotension, tolerance with continued use

117
Q

Common AE of clopidogrel?

A

Uncommonly - TTP

118
Q

Common AE of aspirin and NSAIDs?

A

Allergic angioedema

119
Q

Common AE of statins?

A

Hepatotoxicity and myopathy

120
Q

Common AE of ACEIs?

A

Angioedema, cough, hyperkalemia, precipitation of acute renal failure if bilateral renal artery stenosis

121
Q

Necrotizing (malignant) otitis externa represents osteomyelitis of the skull base and is most commonly caused by ___. What is the classic presentation?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Severe ear pain and ear drainage, possible granulation tissue in ear canal, cranial neuropathies (7, 10, 11) with progression

122
Q

3 risk factors for necrotizing otitis externa?

A
  1. Elderly (>60)
  2. DM
  3. Aural irrigation (cerumen removal)
123
Q

Rx necrotizing otitis externa?

A

Prolonged IV anti-pseudomonal ABX (eg, ciprofloxacin)

+/- debridement

124
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Herpes zoster infection in the ear

125
Q

Cause of blindness leading to distortion of straight lines

A

Macular degeneration

126
Q

Ophthalmologic exam finding of macular degeneration?

A

Drusen deposits in the macula

127
Q

Cause of lens opacification?

A

Cataracts

128
Q

Management of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol and tobacco cessation
Rx DM if present
Pancreatic enzyme supplementation (lipase, protease, amylase) - helps with pain as well as exocrine insufficiency
May consider TCAs or pregabalin for pain

129
Q

3 treatment options for Graves’ disease?

A

Anti-thyroid drugs (thionamides)
Radioactive iodine ablation therapy
Thyroidectomy

130
Q

AE of anti-thyroid drugs?

A

Agranulocytosis
If methimazole - T1 teratogen, cholestasis
If propylthiouracil - hepatic failure, ANCA-associated vasculitis

131
Q

AE of radioiodine ablation?

A

Permanent hypothyroidism
Worsening of ophthalmopathy
Possible radiation AE

132
Q

AE of thyroidectomy?

A

Permanent hypothyroidism

Risk of recurrent laryngeal nerve damage, hypoparathyroidism

133
Q

Tournique test?

A

Dx dengue fever

134
Q

Babesiosis is a tick-borne protozoal illness found primarily in the ___ US. Labs usually show what findings? Dx?

A

Northeastern
Anemia, thrombocytopenia, signs of intravascular hemolysis

Peripheral smear (Maltese cross)

135
Q

Rx Baesiosis

A

7-10 days atovaquone + azithromycin OR quinine + clindamycin

136
Q

Goal rate of warming in treating hypothermia?

A

1-2 C/hr

137
Q

Features of cardiac sarcoidosis?

A

Complete AV block (most common)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy early, dilated cardiomyopathy late, valvular dysfunction, heart failure, sudden cardiac death

138
Q

Management of stress fracture?

A

Reduced weight bearing for 4-6 weeks, referral to ortho surgeon for fracture at high risk for malunion (eg, anterior tibial cortex, 5th metarsal)

139
Q

Pain between 3rd and 4th toes on the plantar surface, clicking sensation when palpating and squeezing the metatarsal joints?

A

Morton neuroma

140
Q

___ can occur after head trauma and result in episodic vertigo with nystagmus triggered by sudden pressure changes or loud noises.

A

Perilymphatic fistula

141
Q

Patients receiving solid organ transplantations require high-dose immunosuppressive medication to prevent organ rjection. This results in systemic immunosuppression, which puts them at risk for opportunistic infections, most notably which 2?

A

Pneumocystis penumonia (PCP)

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

142
Q

Prophylaxis for PCP and CMV?

A

TMP-SMX and valganciclovir, respectively

143
Q

Symptoms of tissue-invasive CMV disease?

A

Pneumonitis, gastroenteritis, hepatitis

144
Q

What is a urethral diverticulum and how does it present?

A

Abnormal localized outpouching of the urethral mucosa that can collect urine and cause inflammation in the surrounding tissue

Dysuria, post-void dribbling, dyspareunia, tender anterior vaginal wall mass that expresses a purulent or bloody urethral discharge

145
Q

Dx urethral diverticulum?

A

UA, urine Cx, MRI of the pelvis*, TVUS

146
Q

Cause of S3 heart sound?

A

Results when inflow from the L atrium strikes blood that is already in the L ventricle, causing reverberation of blood between the walls

Normal in young people and well-trained athletes

Sign of LV failure in older people

147
Q

Hexagonal crystals, recurrent kidney stones since childhood, family history?

A

Cystinuria

148
Q

Cause of cystinuria?

A

Impaired transport of cystine and dibasic amino acids (ornithine, lysine, arginine) by brush borders of renal tubular and intestinal epithelial cells -> decreased reabsorption (increased urinary excretion) or cystine, poorly soluble in water -> stones (radiolucent)

149
Q

Dx cystinuria?

A

Cyanide-nitroprusside test

150
Q

Dx myasthenia?

A

Edrophonium (tensilon) test, ice pack test

ACh receptor Ab (highly specific); if negative, check for muscle-specific tyrosine kinase Ab

CT scan for thymoma

151
Q

Rx MG?

A

ACh-esterase inhibitors (eg, pyridostigmine)
+/- immunotherapy (eg, corticosteroids, azathioprine)
Thymectomy

152
Q

Slit lamp exam?

A

Evaluate for abnormalities of anterior segment of eye (conjunctiva, cornea, anterior chamber, iris)

153
Q

CHF due to LV systolic dysfunction is characterized by ___ cardiac output/index, ___ SVR, ___ LVEDV.

A

Decreased; increased; increased

Dedicated - Step 2 (22 decks)

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