Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fire Fighter 1 And 2 > 1 > Flashcards

1 Flashcards

1
Q

When was the first fire engine purchased in colonial North America

A

1653

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

It Department type is determined by how

A

An organization is funded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of company is responsible for forcible

A

Truck company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following positions is trained and operations of Ariel devices according to the requirements of NFPA 1002

A

Fire apparatus driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following positions is responsible for monitoring operational safety according to the requirements of NFPA 1521

A

Fire department incident safety officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following positions belongs to the fire prevention division

A

Fire and arson investigator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following fire service organizational principles is described as a formal line of authority

A

Chain of command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which federal law affects hiring practices and building accessibility

A

Americans with Disability Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following organizations may be in the agency of authority having jurisdiction or privately owned

A

Emergency Medical Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following duties is the responsibility of the Public Works division

A

Providing sand for containing spills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In 2010 leading cause of fire fatalities were

A

Stress and overexertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following NFPA standards establishes the design criteria for protective clothing and equipment

A

NFPA 1977

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which NFL standard defines safe training practices and programs

A

NFPA 1403

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which NFPA standard sets requirements for care and maintenance of personal and respiratory protection equipment

A

NFPA 1851

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which NFPA standard specifies the minimum requirements for Department safety and health programs

A

NFPA 1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is a goal of the fire department safety and health programs

A

Prevent damage to Emergency Response equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Any power tool not marked double insulated should

A

Have a 3 prong plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following best explains why information is gathered for post incident report

A

Determining Trends in firefighter injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What task made telecommunication Center be assigned during a progress report

A

Providing periodic Transmissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The use of 10 codes in radio Transmissions was replaced when agencies began to adapt which of the following

A

National Incident Management System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following has a radio frequency that is dedicated to a single function

A

Conventional system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following methods may be used to confirm a dispatch transmission

A

Kingdom radio microphone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following best describes the action first taken after an alert to the station

A

Dispatching of Emergency Services responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Who is the contact person for non-emergency calls

A

Public information officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is a type of public alerting system

A

Wire Telegraph circuit box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is a type of communications center equipment

A

Two-way radios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Type 1 building construction

A

Fire resistive high-rises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type 2 building construction

A

Non combustible masonry or tilt slab walls roofs are metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Type 3 building construction

A

Ordinary Wood Walls wood roof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Type 4 building construction

A

Heavy Timber large dimensional lumber for structural members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Type 5 building construction

A

Found in many modern homes wood framed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A club zone for a type IV (4) structure should be established when

A

The structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When exposed to temperatures above what will unprotected steel expand and twist

A

1000 degrees Fahrenheit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

For which type of construction is flying glass the primary collapse Zone hazard

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following best describes where the clubs on his established

A

Adjacent to any expose exterior walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When I Collapse is eminent personalities should blank in the collapse Zone

A

Cautiously place a Staffmaster stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In what fire stage is structural class very likely

A

Decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Renovation age of the structure weather and loads are all

A

Structural collapse factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following best describes a possible construction hazard

A

The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of movable window has a side hinged sash usually installed the swing out word

A

Casement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What type of door may be required by building codes to be constructed of tempered material that resists breakage

A

Glassdoor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What types of stairs typically connects no more than two levels if not required as part of the means of egress

A

Access stairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of stairs uses a ventilation system activated by automatic fire smoke detection

A

Smoke proof enclosures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Doors are classified by the

A

They operate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of roof is used to prevent ice damming

A

Cold roof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What roof type is frequently penetrated by chimney shaft and skylight

A

Flat roof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In which roof style does the design depend on exterior walls to support its weight

A

Arched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Manufactured homes built before 1976 have less blank than those of current Construction

A

Fire resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The interior elements in what type of construction are made of solid or laminated wood with non concealed space

A

Type 5 IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Type 3 construction requires exterior walls and in structural members to be constructed of

A

Non-combustible material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following best describes who determines a structures construction classification type

A

Architect structural engineer than contractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following can be the result of rapidly cooling cast iron with water

A

Make crack or shatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Water is converted to steam at what temperature

A

212° Fahrenheit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What rapid fire development occurs as unburned fuel gases contact an ignition source

A

Smoke explosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What aspect of fire development is a result of an increase in low-level ventilation prior to upper-level ventilation

A

Backdraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following is a heat indicator of a possible flashover

A

Darken windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What common element of represents the shift from Grosse stage to fully develop

A

Transition and fire development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of Rapid Fire development happens when all the combustible materials and gases in a compartment ignite almost simultaneously

A

Flashover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The neutral plane in the growth stage is

A

Interphase of hot and cool layers at an opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In what stage is fire development largely dependent on the characteristics and configuration of fuel involved

A

Incipient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What thermal property of a compartment contains heat within the compartment causing localized increase in temperature

A

Insulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What fire development factor is based on considering how the volume of air what impact radiant heat in a fire

A

Compartment volume and ceiling height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Fuel particles become smaller as the ratio of surface

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following best describes what vapor pressure indicates

A

How easily a substance will evaporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Heat released rate is expressed in what

A

Kilowatts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following terms is the total amount of energy released when a specific amount of fuel is burned

A

Heat of combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following best describes the influence of exposed surfaces on radiant heat

A

Dark Materials in and absorb heat more effectively than lighter materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which of the following best describes kinetic energy transfer

A

Moves from high temperature to low temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What source of thermal energy is the most common source of heat in a combustion reaction

A

Chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following sources of energy is a form of oxidation

A

Self-heating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following best describes what the fire tetrahedron represents

A

And uninhibited chemical chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What type of reaction absorbs energy as it occurs

A

Endothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What type of energy releases energy in the form of heat and sometimes light

A

Exothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Any Source used to refill SCBA must provide what type of air quality

A

Type D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What piece of protective breathing apparatus has the frame check weekly for deterioration during cracks

A

Facepiece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which NFPA standard establishes inspection period for protective breathing apparatus

A

1852

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Compartment doors May interfere with what type of SCBA mount

A

Backup mount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

which NFPA standard require seat mounts he pays to be held in place by a mechanical latching device

A

1901

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Respiratory equipment must be protected from from what during storage

A

Contamination temperature change ultraviolet light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following limitations of respiratory protection is created by the way in resistance of a harness straps

A

Decreased Mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the following types of respiratory protection uses visual Estis only

A

Air purifying respirator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of the following best describes when sar are used

A

Free confined space rescue and Technical rescue incidences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the minimum overlap between coat and trousers when the where is bend over at 90 degrees

A

2 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What type of NFPA Define cleaning may be done in washing machine design for handling heavy Lowe’s

A

Advanced cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which NFPA standard outlines the specification for Wildland personnel

A

1977

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What part of Wildland personal protective equipment must meet the requirement of ansi

A

Goggles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Structural firefighting protective clothing must meet what NFPA standard

A

1971

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What type of portable fire extinguisher may be applied with either and extinguisher or a scoop

A

Dry powder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What type of weathering is mainly used for rescue application

A

Tubular webbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What type of weathering is rated for loads up to 600 pounds

A

Class 2 life safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which type of knot is used for joining two ropes of unequal diameter

A

Becket Bend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which of the following are signs of damage in laid natural fiber ropes

A

Powder between strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What survival actions include steps I can do form before committing a mayday

A

Seeking Safe Haven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Using Air Management procedures during an emergency can help increase

A

Time for escape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Lunar acronym stands for what

A

Location unit name of Simon and resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Aware stands for what

A

Air water a radio and extrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How many Rescuers may be needed to safely carry an adult

A

Two to four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When using Federal Emergency Management what does the Mark above X indicate

A

Time of completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which of the following is tied to the end of a wide-area search tether

A

Three-quarters inch steel ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When using the wide-area search method using individual tethers allows firefighters to sweep a blank Ark at the midpoint how many feet

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which of the following is the best reason firefighters should not move objects during a search

A

May disorient firefighters

102
Q

Which of the following information should be gathered as a part of situational awareness

A

Probable structural integrity

103
Q

Which of the following makes Clean Cuts when breaching a floor

A

Rotary saw

104
Q

Chain link fence should be cut quickly with a

A

Rotary saw

105
Q

Which of the following types of Windows has double strength glass

A

Awning

106
Q

When performing forcible entry on casement windows the first step is

A

Break lowest pane of glass

107
Q

Which of the following prevents glass from shattering and falling out of the frame

A

Wire glass

108
Q

Most hinges on swinging doors are mounted on blank that permits swinging in one or more

A

One side

109
Q

Which of the following provides firefighters rapid access to Edward swing latch

A

Shove knife

110
Q

Which of the following was developed to force entry on locks with collars

A

A tool

111
Q

Which of the following has a variety of types available including night latch deadbolt and vertical deadbolt

A

Rim

112
Q

Which of the following are portable or detachable locking

A

Padlocks

113
Q

Rotary blade spin at what

A

6000 RPMs

114
Q

Which song comes in a small battery-powered

A

Circular saw

115
Q

How do you lower a large victim down louder

A

Large victims are lowered by two Rescuers on ladders play side by side

116
Q

To move a tool to a roux for Upper Floor during an emergency operation of firefighter should

A

Tear the tools one hand signing the free hand under the ladder beam

117
Q

Healing and tying in are two methods of

A

Preventing movement of the ladder away from the building

118
Q

Which of the following best describes the way to carry a roof ladder when using an extension ladder to access the roof

A

Call an extension ladder shoulder the roof ladder three or four runs from the tip and carry the rest of the way to deploy on the roof pitch

119
Q

Where May ladders be mounted on aerial apparatus

A

Vertically on the left or right side of the apparatus bed

120
Q

NFPA 1932 contains requirements for

A

Ladder use care Maintenance and Service

121
Q

What characteristic of modern single-family residential construction reduces firefighter access and increases potential exposure risk

A

Smaller lot sizes

122
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of older structure Construction

A

Windows that could be open for ventilation

123
Q

Allowing natural air currents and pressure differences to move smoke and heat out of the building is natural

A

Horizontal ventilation

124
Q

Use a smoke ejector to expel smoke and draw fresh air into a structure is a use of

A

Negative pressure ventilation

125
Q

Which of the following is an advantage to using mechanical

A

Speeds the removal of contaminants

126
Q

NFPA 1901 requires that Mobile water supply apparatus on level ground can be capable dumping or filling a trace of at least What leader per minute

A

4000 liters per minute

127
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the placement of portable tanks is most accurate

A

They should be placed so that the drain is located on the downhill side

128
Q

Dry hydrants are designed to supply at least how many liters per minute

A

4000 permanent

129
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Rural Water Supply operations is most accurate

A

They require frequent practice

130
Q

Which of the following statements regarding operations of dry Barrel hydrant is most accurate

A

If not open fully the drain maybe left partially open

131
Q

Knowledge of fire hydrants is necessary in order to

A

Flow water from hydrant discharge openings to flush sediment

132
Q

Fire hydrant should be inspected and operated at least how many times a year

A

Twice

133
Q

Fire hydrant tops and discharge cap should be painted as required in

A

NFPA 291

134
Q

In high-value districts fire hydrant should not be faced more than how many feet apart

A

300 feet

135
Q

Most fire hydrants are made of

A

Cast iron

136
Q

The male threads on fire hydrant discharge I love must conform to

A

Those used by local fire departments

137
Q

Which of the following May limit the use of water treatment facilities for firefighting operations

A

Natural disasters

138
Q

Suction hose is manufactured in the minimum line specified in NFPA what

A

1901

139
Q

Which part of the female threaded coupling is the free turning ring on which the threads are cut

A

Swivel

140
Q

What guidelines should be followed for removing frozen hose

A

Perform service testing before placing thought hose back in service

141
Q

How should hose be cleaned after chemical exposure

A

Remove hose periodically and wash with plain water

142
Q

How can organic damage be prevented

A

Ventilate all areas where fire hose is kept

143
Q

Which of the following are highly resistant to corrosion

A

Brass couplings

144
Q

When should hose be inspected

A

Within 90 days before being placed in service for the first time

145
Q

What kind of Hose should be washed with clear water while scrubbed with a stiff brush

A

Woven jacket

146
Q

How should fire hose couplings be cared for

A

Inspect gaskets and replace if cracked or creased

147
Q

Which fitting is used to connect a smaller diameter hose to the end of a larger one

A

Reducer

148
Q

A hose clamp should be applied at least how many feet behind the apparatus

A

20 feet

149
Q

Which preconnected hose loads to Floyd’s from the shoulder as a firefighter advances toward the fire and is particularly well suited for narrow hose beds

A

Minuteman load

150
Q

Where might booster hose reels be mounted on the apparatus

A

In the rear compartment

151
Q

Which preconnected hose line deploys by unfolding from the top of the stack carried on the shoulder as a firefighter advances toward the fire

A

Minuteman load

152
Q

When using blank Neil on the host to Anchor as a driver operator Drive slowly toward the water source

A

Hose equipped with why applications

153
Q

Which of the following statements about vaporization and steam is most accurate

A

Steam produced in the upper layer of Hot Smoke and fire gases will cause the upper layer to contract towards the ceiling

154
Q

Which stream is created by apparatus mounted appliances

A

Master stream

155
Q

Additional Personnel will be required to safely handle Smooth Bore nozzle zap nozzle pressure is greater than

A

65 PSI

156
Q

Which of the following fire stream pattern is usually produced by a fog nozzle

A

Straight stream

157
Q

Which of the following stream patterns is used to extinguish fires in attics cock lost basements and other confined spaces

A

Broken streams

158
Q

Which of the following nozzle categories was established by NFPA 1963 standard for hose connections

A

Straight tip

159
Q

Which of the following statements about Smooth Bore nozzle is most accurate

A

Hose lines making a Smooth Bore nozzle use less pressure

160
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of nozzles designed operator pressure is less than 100 PSI

A

Produce lower-density fog patterns

161
Q

When used with a Smooth Bore nozzle and nozzle control valve that causes turbulence when partially open which can affect the quality of a fire stream is the

A

Ball valve

162
Q

Which of the following nozzle control valves also controls the discharge pattern of the fire stream

A

Rotary control valve

163
Q

Which of the following statements about slide valves is most accurate

A

Slide valves permit water to flow without creating turbulence

164
Q

Which of the following techniques are the most essential part of any ground cover operation

A

Communication

165
Q

Which of the following is required for firefighters participating in ground cover firefighting

A

Protective Footwear

166
Q

Protective clothing used for ground cover fires should meet the requirements of NFPA

A

1977

167
Q

Add fires involving stacked and piled materials firestream should be directed at the

A

Extreme edge of the fire burning

168
Q

A master stream device should enter a structure at what angle

A

Upward angle

169
Q

Which of the following may be used as interior exposure protection

A

Use of fire rated walls and doors

170
Q

Which of the following should be used to ensure that floor assemblies over the basement fires are safe for personal to work on

A

Visual inspection of floor joists

171
Q

Which of the following May provide firefighters the best access to a basement fire

A

Window well

172
Q

Hose line selection should be based on which of the following factors

A

Potential fire spread

173
Q

Nozzle selection is based upon which of the following factors

A

Available water supply

174
Q

Which of the following determines the extent that structural members of a building are weekend

A

Intensity of Fire

175
Q

Which of the following is the main advantages to using spliced water shoot as catch Al’s during lost control

A

As soon as water accumulate it can be drain to the outside

176
Q

In a pre-incident plan which of the following is a means of protecting items in a residential or business occupied structure

A

Moving items to an unaffected area

177
Q

During Salvage procedures where should the contents of the structure replace once they are removed

A

Stacked on dry surface not near where firefighters may be collecting the breeze for disposal

178
Q

Protected premises

A

Provides notification only the building occupants

179
Q

Non- coded alarm

A

No clue to where alarm was activated for small buildings

180
Q

Zone alarm

A

Give General zone of where alarm was activated

181
Q

Addressable alarm system

A

Address is exact device that was initiated

182
Q

Supervising station alarm systems

A

Remotely monitored for the purpose of reporting a supervisory trouble or alarm

183
Q

Auxiliary alarm system

A

Connected to municipal fire alarm systems transmitted over public fire telecommunication centers

184
Q

Local Energy System

A

Has its own power

185
Q

Shunt System

A

An auxiliary fire alarm system that connects the public fire alarm reporting system to initiating devices within a protected premises

186
Q

Central Station system

A

Alarm system that functions through a constantly attended location operated by an alarm company

187
Q

Remote receiving system

A

System in which alarm signals from the protected premises are transmitted over at least telephone line or by radio signal to a remote receiving station

188
Q

Fusible link

A

Connecting link device that fuses or melt when exposed to heat

189
Q

Continuous line detector

A

The text heat over linear air parallel to the device consists of a cable with a conductive metal inner core sheath with stainless steel tubing the inner core in the sheets are separated by electrical insulating semiconductor material that keeps away from touching but allows a small amount of current to flow between them

190
Q

Bimetallic detector

A

Find me talk to uses two metals that have different thermal expansion characteristics then strips of the metals are bonded together and one or both ends of the strip are attached to the alarm circuit when heated one metal expands faster than the other causing the strip to our core band disc brakes contact in the alarm circuit sending a signal to the alarm panel most reset automatically when cooled

191
Q

Rate of Rise heat detector

A

Temperature sensitive device that sounds an alarm when the temperature changes at a c preset value most of our reliable usually changes 12 degrees Fahrenheit to 15 degrees Fahrenheit in 1 minute will set it off

192
Q

Photoelectric smoke detector

A

Type of smoke detector that uses a small light source either an incandescent bulb or light emitting diode to detect Smoke by Shining Light through the detectors chamber smoke particles reflect the light on to the light sensitive device called a photocell

193
Q

Ionization smoke detector

A

Type of smoke detector that uses small amount of radioactive material to make the air within the sensing chamber conduct electricity

194
Q

Outside stem and yoke valve

A

Has a yolk on the outside with a threaded stem that opens and closes the gate inside the valve housing

195
Q

Post indicator valve

A

Hollow metal post that houses the valve stem attached to the valve stem is immovable play with the words open or shut

196
Q

Wall post indicator valve

A

Similar to post indicator valve except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the Target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building

197
Q

Post indicator valve assembly

A

Does not use a plate with words opener shot as does PIV instead use a circular disc inside a flat plate on top of the valve housing

198
Q

Alarm check valve

A

Goes off when flow of water is going through a sprinkler system

199
Q

Retard chamber

A

Slows water before alarm check valve reduces false fire alarms

200
Q

Drain valve

A

Valve that allows piping to drain when pressure is relieved in the pipe

201
Q

CheckValve

A

Automatic valve that permits liquid flow in Only One Direction

202
Q

Class 1 standpipe

A

Primarily used for suppression Personnel trained in hand line large hose two and a half inch hose connections or hose station attached to stand pipe riser

203
Q

Class 2 standpipe

A

Cost to standby systems primarily designed for easy divide building occupants who are trained in its use or by fire department personnel these systems are equipped with a 1 & a half inch hose line and nozzle stored on a hose rack system

204
Q

Class 3 standpipe system

A

Class 3 standby systems combines the features of one and two systems provide one and a half inch hose stations to supply water and oxygen to have been trained on a two and a half inch hose connection to supply a large volume of water come by fire departments both hoses you simultaneously

205
Q

Hepatitis A B C D

A

Hepatitis is from anal Hepatitis B is from bodily fluids hepatitis C from circulation drugs that may go unseen D is very rare

206
Q

Which hepatitis has a vaccine

A

A&B

207
Q

Diseases more prevalent in high-density living areas

A

Tuberculosis

208
Q

Spread through contact with infected bodily fluids weakens immune system

A

HIV and AIDS

209
Q

Communicable disease is a drug-resistant staph

A

MRSA

210
Q

Which vaccine may be recommended for fire

A

Tinnitus and diphtheria

211
Q

in what order to check patients

A

ABC Airway breathing and circulation

212
Q

If someone is unresponsive and not breathing what do you check

A

Circulation Airway and breathing

213
Q

How many compressions a minute for CPR

A

100 per minute

214
Q

General hazardous material behavioral model GEBmO

A

Stress breach release dispersion exposure harm

215
Q

Which lab is the second most common type of lab discovered

A

Explosive labs

216
Q

Which of the following is an indicator of a chemical lab

A

Underground cookbooks

217
Q

Which of the following is an indicator of a meth lab

A

Excessive trash

218
Q

Which is the most common hazards found on a meth lab

A

Flammability

219
Q

Modern and detection devices

A

Require special training

220
Q

Which of the following May indicate a chemical attack

A

Oily film on water or Surface

221
Q

Which of the following is an indication of physical action

A

Frother build-up near League

222
Q

Which single word indicates moderate hazard

A

Warning

223
Q

Which marking system is typically used in fixed storage facilities

A

NFPA 704

224
Q

Un identification numbers are provided in which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook

A

Yellow

225
Q

Which North American railroad tank car markings are stenciled on all four sides of tank

A

Initials and numbers

226
Q

Which of the following is a bull capacity fixed so he container

A

Above-ground storage tanks

227
Q

Which disposal pattern is dome-shaped

A

Hemispheric

228
Q

Which part of the reactivity triangle is a fuel source for reactions

A

Reducing agent

229
Q

In which state are hazardous materials primarily a contact hazard

A

Liquid

230
Q

Fission reaction

A

Neutron

231
Q

ERG ID number index list materials in numerical order based on their 4-Digit

A

Yellow Pages

232
Q

ERG material name index list hazardous materials by name each entry includes the materials four-digit ID

A

Blue pages

233
Q

incident levels for NFPA Hazmat 472

A

There are three levels one being the lowest that firefighters can handle two firefighters can’t handle three you need Federal help

234
Q

U.s. Nims incident types

A

There are five types one being the most severe 5 being the least severe

235
Q

Level A epa

A

Highest level of protection against vapours gases and mists

236
Q

Level b

A

Splashes and scba

237
Q

Level c

A

Apr not scba splash protection

238
Q

Level d

A

Coveralls gloves and boots

239
Q

Nfpa 1500

A

Health and safety

240
Q

Nfpa 1971

A

Structural firefighting a ensemble

241
Q

NFPA 1404

A

Respiratory

242
Q

NFPA 1981

A

Standard for open circuit SCBA

243
Q

NFPA 1851

A

Care and maintenance of structural firefighting PPE

244
Q

NFPA 1031

A

Fire prevention

245
Q

NFPA 1002

A

Apparatus operator

246
Q

NFPA 1901

A

Apparatus equipment

247
Q

NFPA 1962

A

Fire hose

248
Q

MC

A

Motor Carrier

249
Q

DOT

A

Department of Transportation

250
Q

NFPA 1991

A

Vapor protection suit

Fire Fighter 1 And 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions