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1. Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most abundant crystalline in the lens?

A

Beta crystallin

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2
Q

What CNs are most affected by whiplash?

A

CN 4

CN 6

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3
Q

What is the most common vitamin deficiency in the US?

A

Folic acid

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4
Q

What is the most common inheritance pattern of RP?

A

AD

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5
Q

What is the most common retinal dystrophy?

A

RP

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6
Q

What is the most common hereditary macular dystrophy?

A

Stargardt’s

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of proptosis?

A

TED

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8
Q

What is the most common benign tumor in adults?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

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9
Q

What is the most common benign tumor in kids?

A

Capillary hemangioma

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10
Q

What is the most common primary malignant tumor in kids?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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11
Q

What is the most common secondary malignant tumor in kids?

A

Neuroblastoma

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12
Q

What is the most common intrinsic tumor?

A

Optic nerve glioma

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13
Q

What is the most common benign brain tumor?

A

Meningioma

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14
Q

What is the most common malignant brain tumor?

A

Glioblastoma

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15
Q

What is the most common intraocular tumor in kids?

A

Retinoblastoma

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16
Q

What is the most common intraocular tumor in adults?

A

Choroidal melanoma

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17
Q

What is the most common eyelid cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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18
Q

What is the most common precancerous lesion?

A

Actinik keratosis

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19
Q

What cancer does actinic keratosis lead to?

A

Squamous cell carconima

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20
Q

What is the most common lethal primary skin cancer?

A

Malignant melanoma

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21
Q

What is the most common upper eyelid cancer?

A

Sebaceous gland carcinoma

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of acute dacryoadenitis?

A

Staph

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic dacryoadenitis?

A

Sarccoidosis

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24
Q

What is the most common conjunctival malignancy?

A

Conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

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25
Q

What is the most common bacterial STD?

A

Chlamydia

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26
Q

What is the most common viral STD?

A

HPV

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27
Q

What is the most common anterior scleritis?

A

Diffuse, non-necrotizing

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28
Q

What is the most common cause of anterior scleritis?

A

RA (followed by Wegener’s granulomatosis)

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29
Q

What is the most common cause of episcleritis?

A

Idiopathic

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30
Q

What is the most common corneal finding in anterior uveitis?

A

KPs

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31
Q

What i the most common cause of uveitis in kids?

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)

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32
Q

What is the most common cause of posterior uveitis?

A

Toxoplasmosis

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33
Q

What causes toxoplasmosis?

A

Parasite - toxoplasmosis gondii

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34
Q

What is the leading cause of preventable blindness?

A

Trachoma

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35
Q

Where are the majority of the ocular findings of trachoma located?

A

Superiorly

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36
Q

What is the most common cause of spontaneous vitreous heme?

A

DM retinopathy

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37
Q

What is the most common cause if filamentary keratitis?

A

Dry eye

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38
Q

What is the most common anterior corneal dystrophy?

A

EBMD

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39
Q

What is the most common stromal dystrophy?

A

Lattice

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40
Q

What are the 3 stromal dystrophies?

A

Macular
Granular
Lattice

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41
Q

Which stromal dystrophy is AR inheritance?

A

MaculAR

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42
Q

Which herpes infection leads to pseudodendrites?

A

HZO

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43
Q

What is the most common cause of trichiasis?

A

Chronic blepharitis

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44
Q

What is the most common peripheral corneal opacity?

A

Arcus senilis

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45
Q

What is the most common complication of LASIK?

A

Epithelial ingrowth

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46
Q

What is the worst complication of LASIK?

A

Diffuse lamellar keratitis

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47
Q

If the lens subluxates in a patient with homocysteinuria, which direction does it typically move?

A

Down and in

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48
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary cataract formation?

A

Chronic anterior uveitis

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49
Q

Which cataract induces a hyperopic shift?

A

Cortical

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50
Q

Which cataract induces a myopic shift?

A

Nuclear

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51
Q

What is the most common area for BRVO?

A

Superior temporal

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52
Q

What is the typical early glaucomatous VF defect?

A

Para-central

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53
Q

What is the most common genetic chromosomal disorder?

A

Down syndrome

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54
Q

What diagnosis is most frequently associated with SLK?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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55
Q

What condition is most commonly associated with angioid streaks?

A

Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

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56
Q

What is the most common cause of hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Subarachnoid

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57
Q

Which analgesic is most hepatotoxic?

A

Acetaminophen

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58
Q

Which lens type blocks the most UVA?

A

Polycarbonate

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59
Q

What is vitamin B1?

A

Thiamine

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60
Q

What is vitamin B2?

A

Riboflavin

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61
Q

What if vitamin B3?

A

Niacin

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62
Q

What is vitamin B7?

A

Biotin

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63
Q

What is vitamin B6?

A

Pyridoxine

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64
Q

What is vitamin B9?

A

Folic acid

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65
Q

What is vitamin B12?

A

Cobalamin

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66
Q

What are the 3 types of DNA mutations?

A

Silent
Point
Frame-shift

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67
Q

What are the granulocyte WBCs?

A

(BEN)
Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

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68
Q

What do eosinophils respond to?

A

Parasites

Alergies

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69
Q

What do neutrophils respond to?

A

Bacteria - 1st responder

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70
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk?

A

IgA

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71
Q

Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

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72
Q

Which immunoglobulin is typically the first to the site?

A

IgM

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73
Q

Which immunoglobulin can be secreted as a pentamer?

A

IgM

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74
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant?

A

IgG

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75
Q

Tyrosine is the precursor for what 5 things?

A 
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
T3/T3
Melanin
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76
Q

What does a vitamin A deficiency cause in the eye?

A

Xeropthatlmia
Bitot spots
Nyctalopia

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77
Q

What is the Kearns-Sayer triad?

A
  1. Progressive external ophthalmoplegia
  2. Salt and pepper fundus
  3. 1 or more systemic complications
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78
Q

What type of syndrome is Kearns-Sayer?

A

Mitochondrial myopathy

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79
Q

What 3 things do omega-3s do?

A

Lower BP
Raise HDL
Decrease triglycerides

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80
Q

What are the three disaccharides?

A

Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose

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81
Q

What does a Vit A deficiency cause?

A

Xerophthalmia
Bitot spots
Nyctallopia

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82
Q

What does a vitamin B3 deficiency cause?

A

Pellagra

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83
Q

What does a vitamin B9 deficiency cause?

A

Anemia

Neural tube defects

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84
Q

What causes a vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Pernicious anemia

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85
Q

What two diseases does a vitamin D deficiency cause?

A

Kids - Rickets

Adults - Osteomalacia

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86
Q

What bacteria can penetrate the cornea?

A

Corynebacteria
Neisseria gonorrhoea
H. Influenzae
Listeria

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87
Q

Which pancreatic cells make glucagon?

A

Alpha cells

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88
Q

Which pancreatic cells make insulin?

A

Beta cells

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89
Q

Which cells secrete somatostatin?

A

Delta cells

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90
Q

What are the hormones of the posterior pituitary?

A

Oxytocin

ADH (vasopressin)

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91
Q

What are the hormones of the anterior pituitary?

A 
FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
Prolactin
Endorphins
GH
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92
Q

What is an interference filter?

A

Filter that only allows 1 wavelength to pass through

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93
Q

What cells make myelin in the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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94
Q

What cells make myelin in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

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95
Q

Passive secretion of aqueous humor depends on what 3 factors?

A

IOP
Oncotic pressure
Capillary hydrostatic pressure

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96
Q

What things travel through the common tendinous ring?

A

CN 3, CN 6, V1

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97
Q

What are the branches of the Ophthalmic artery?

A 
(CLMSLSE)
Central retinal
Lacrimal
Muscular
SPCA
LPCA
Supraorbital
Ethmoid
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98
Q

What areas of the eye can autoregulate blood flow?

A

Retina

Optic nerve

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99
Q

What are the branches of the internal carotid artery?

A 
(OPAAM)
Ophthalmic
Posterior communicating
Anterior choroidal
Anterior cerebral
Middle cerebral
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100
Q

What is the order of rectus attachment to the globe, from most anterior (closest to the limbus) to most posterior?

A

Media
Inferior
Lateral
Superior

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101
Q

How many rods are there in the retina?

A

120 million

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102
Q

How many cones are in the retina?

A

7 million

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103
Q

How many ganglion cells are in the retina?

A

1.2 million

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104
Q

What are the retinal layers in the fovea?

A 
RPE
PRs
ELM
ONl
Henle's (OPL)
ILM
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105
Q

What are the 3 things that can cause a mucous tear layer deficiency?

A

Ocular pemphigoid
SJS
Vit A deficiency

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106
Q

How long is the intraocular portion of the optic nerve?

A

1mm

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107
Q

How long is the intraorbital portion of the optic nerve?

A

30mm

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108
Q

How long is the intracanalicular portion of the optic nerve?

A

10mm

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109
Q

How long is the intracranial portion of the optic nerve?

A

16mm

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110
Q

What are the branches of V1

A

(Superior = NFL, Inferior = LINE)
Nasociliary, frontal, lacrimal
Long ciliary, infratrochlear, nasal, posterior ethmoid

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111
Q

What are the 2 branches of V2?

A

Infraorbital

Zygomatic

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112
Q

Which CN is the longest and most prone to damage?

A

CN 4

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113
Q

What are the epithelial layers of the eye, except the cornea, derived from?

A

Neuroectoderm

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114
Q

What does mesoderm form in the eye?

A

Anterior border layer
Iris stroma
Primary vitreous

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115
Q

What is the formation order of the ocular structures?

A 
Ocular pits
Ocular vesicles
Ocular stalk
Optic fissure
Optic cup
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116
Q

What structures have some form of connection to the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone?

A

Optic nerve (optic canal)
Levator
Superior oblique

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117
Q

What is the only muscle that doesn’t originate from the common tendinous ring?

A

Inferior oblique

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118
Q

What changes occur to allow for cataract formation?

A 
Increased sorbitol (DM)
Increased UV damage
Increased Ca
Decreased glutathione
Decreased alpha crystalins
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119
Q

What 5 diseases are known to cause microphthalmia?

A 
Rubella
Varicella
Herpes simplex
Toxoplasmosis
Cytomegalovirus
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120
Q

What 4 diseases are known to cause blue sclera?

A

Scleromalacia perforans
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Turner’s syndrome

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121
Q

What 2 diseases cause stallate KPs?

A

Fuch’s

Herpes

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122
Q

What interstitial keratitis is associated with what 4 diseases?

A

TB
Herpes
Congenital syphilis
Cogan’s

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123
Q

Hutchinson’s triad is found in what disease?

A

Syphilis

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124
Q

What is hutchinson’s triad?

A

Hutchinson’s teeth
Deafness
Interstitial keratits

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125
Q

What is the congenital toxo triad?

A

Chorioretinitis
Cerebral calcifications
Convulsions

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126
Q

What are the 3 mitochondrial abnormalities?

A

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
Dominant optic atrophy
Kearns-sayre syndrome

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127
Q

What 5 conditions can cause keratoconus?

A 
(TDOME)
Turner's
Down's
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Marfan's
Ehler's-Danlos
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128
Q

What 3 conditions can cause megalocornea?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta
Marfan’s
Ehler’s-Danlos

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129
Q

What conditions can cause iris rebeosis?

A

CRVO
DM
Chronic RD

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130
Q

What conditions will have associated color vision loss?

A

Glaucoma
TED
Orbital cellulitis

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131
Q

Which hypersensitivity is not antibody/antigen mediated?

A

Type IV - T cell mediated

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132
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is ocular cicatricial pemphigoid?

A

Type II

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133
Q

What 4 conditions may show symblepharon?

A

SJS
Behcet’s
Cicatricial pemphigoid
Severe AKC

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134
Q

What are the 4 signs of TED?

A

Dalrymples - stare (lid retraction)
Von graefe - lid lag on downgaze
Stellwag - incomplete blinking
Kotcher - globe lag compared to lid on upgaze

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135
Q

What 5 conditions are associated with increased risk of PVD?

A 
Myopia
DM
Trauma
Intraocular surgery
Vit hemes
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136
Q

What are the 6 common causes of dacryoadenitis?

A 
Bacterial infection
Viral infection
Grave's disease
Idiopathic orbital inflammation
Sarcoidosis
TB
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137
Q

Which 4 conditions typically present with +PAN?

A

Parinauds oculoglandular syndrome
Adenoviral conjunctivitis
Gonococcal conjunctivitis
HSV conjunctivitis

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138
Q

What 7 things primarily affect Bowman’s layer?

A 
Band K
Pterygium
Refractive surgery
Reis-Buckler dystrophy
Keratoconus
Crocodile shagreen
Ehler's-Danlos (Bowman's absent)
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139
Q

What are the 4 pathological findings that occur in Descemet’s membrane?

A

Hydrops - Keratoconus and PMD
Haabs striae - congenital glaucoma
Hassel-Henle bodies
Arcus

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140
Q

What 2 conditions will present with anterior uveitis and elevated IOP?

A

Posner-Schlossman syndrome

Herpes

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141
Q

What are the 4 different iron deposits?

A

Stocker’s line - pterygium
Fleisher’s ring - Keratoconus
Hudson-Stahli line - (inferior) senile finding
Ferry’s line - Filtering bleb

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142
Q

What 4 ocular conditions may be seen in persons with high cholesterol?

A

Xanthelasma
Hollenhorst plaque
Arcus
Schnyder’s dystrophy

143
Q

What are the 3 locations of the blood-aqueous barrier?

A

NPCE of ciliary body
Iris blood vessels
Schlemm’s canal

144
Q

What 2 ocular conditions involve Ca deposits?

A 
Band keratopathy
Asteroid hyalosis (Ca soaps)
145
Q

What 2 conditions may present with pseudodendrites?

A

HZO

Acanthamoeba

146
Q

Band Keratopathy is associated with what 6 conditions?

A 
Gout
Hypercalcemia
Sarcoidosis
Renal failure
Iritis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)
147
Q

SPK may be caused by what two pharmacological agents?

A

BAK

Aminoglycosides

148
Q

SJS is what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type IV

149
Q

What are the 6 drugs/conditions that can cause whorl keratopathy?

A 
(CHAI-T)
Chloroquine
Hydroxychloroquine
Amioderone
Indomethacin
Tamoxifen
Fabry's disease
150
Q

A Kayser-Fleischer ring is made from what deposits, as seen in which disease?

A

Copper

Wilson’s disease

151
Q

What are the 3 drugs that are associated with NAION?

A

(VIAgra)
Viagra
Immitrex
Amioderone

152
Q

What 5 conditions have an association with episcleritis?

A 
Gout
Lyme
Syphilis
Lupus
HZV
153
Q

What diseases have associations with angioid streaks?

A 
(PEPSI-HAAM)
Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
Ehler's-Danlos
Paget's
Sickle cell
Idiopathic
Acromegaly
Age related senile elastosis
Hemochromatosis
Marfan's
154
Q

What are the 4 major risk factors for conversion from dry AMD to wet?

A

Focal hyperpigmentation
Smokin
Multiple soft drusen
HTN

155
Q

What are the 6 causes of macular edema?

A 
(DO-RE-MI)
DM
Occlusion
RP
Epiretinal membrane
MS
Idiopathic
156
Q

What are the perinatal infections in utero?

A 
(TORCH)
Toxoplasmosis
Other (HIV, syphilis)
Rubella
CMV
Herpes simplex
157
Q

What corneal findings are associated with VKC?

A

Trantas dots

Shield ulcer

158
Q

What is the histoplasmosis triad?

A

PPA
Peripheral punched out lesions
Maculopathy (CNVM)
(NO vitritis)

159
Q

What 4 conditions may cause early cataracts?

A

DM
Wilson’s
Myotonic dystrophy
Atopic dermatitis

160
Q

What 2 conditions are associated with infantile cataracts?

A

Galatosemia

Rubella

161
Q

In what 4 conditions is leukocoria commonly seen?

A

Coat’s disease
Toxocariasis
Retinoblastoma
ROP

162
Q

What are the 5 conditions that area associated with pre-retinal hemorrhages?

A 
(DR VOS)
DM
ROP
Vein occlusion
OIS
Sickle cell
163
Q

What are the 6 conditions that are associated with CNVM formation?

A 
(CHBALA)
Choroidal rupture
Histoplasmosis
Best's disease
AMD
Lacquer cracks
Angioid streaks
164
Q

Where do angioid streaks originate?

A

ONH

165
Q

Where do lacquer cracks originate?

A

Macula

166
Q

What 5 conditions/drugs are associated with Bull’s eye maculopathy?

A 
Stargardt's
Progressive cone dystrophy
Chloroquine
Hydroxychloroquine
Thioridazine
167
Q

What are the 2 primary risk factors for ROP?

A

Weight under 1500g

Less than 32 weeks

168
Q

What 3 conditions can cause a cherry-red spot?

A

Tay-Sach’s
Leber’s congenital amaurosis
CRAO

169
Q

Roth spots are associated with what 5 conditions?

A 
Leukemia
Bacterial endocarditis
Anemia 
Malaria
Lupus
170
Q

In which leukemia are auer rods seen?

A

AML

171
Q

Which pupil “disorder” is seen in syphilis?

A

Argyll-Robertson

172
Q

Which pupil “disorder” has light/near dissociation?

A

Argyll-Robertson

173
Q

What are the 3 risk factors for COPD?

A

Low birth weight
Frequent childhood infections
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

174
Q

Systemic scleroderma is seen in what 5 conditions?

A 
(CREST)
Calcinosis
Raynauds
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
175
Q

Hyphema may be see in what 4 conditions?

A

Sickle cell
Leukemia
Thrombocytopenia
Trauma

176
Q

What 4 things are capable of causing a Horner’s syndrome?

A

Pancoast tumor
Hypothalamus lesion
Carotid artery dissection
Tolosa hunt syndrome

177
Q

What 4 conditions may cause Parinaud’s oculoglandular syndrome?

A

Cat scratch
Tularemia
TB
Syphilis

178
Q

What 3 conditions most commonly cause SLK?

A

TED
Dry eye
CL wear

179
Q

What 5 drugs are considered immunosuppressants?

A 
Dexamethasone
Prednisone
Triamcinolone
Cyclosporin
Methotrexate
180
Q

What 3 drugs/classes commonly cause subconj hemes?

A

NSAIDs
Sildenafil
Coumadin

181
Q

What are the 4 drugs that can cause pigmentary retinopathy?

A

Thioridizine
Indomethacin
Hydroxycholorquine
Chloroquine

182
Q

What 3 drugs may cause aplastic anemia?

A

Chloramphenicol
Trimethoprim
Acetazolamide/Methazolamide

183
Q

What antibiotics are safe in pregnancy?

A

(PAC)
Penicillin
Azithromycin
Cephalosporins

184
Q

What antibiotics are not safe in pregnancy?

A 
(FAT)
Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
-Sulfonamides, in the later stages of pregnancy
185
Q

Which antibiotics are broad spectrum?

A

Fluoroquinolones (4th gen)
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines

186
Q

What is the MOA of the statin drugs?

A

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

187
Q

What 3 drugs/classes may cause anterior uveitis?

A

Rifabutin
Sulfonamides
Cidofovir

188
Q

Which glaucoma med commonly causes toxic follicular reactions?

A

Brimonadine

189
Q

What 4 drugs are dopamine agonists?

A

Dextroamphetamine
Bromocriptine
Amantadine
Methylphenidate

190
Q

What 2 meds are considered to be neuroprotective?

A

Brimonidine

Betaxolol

191
Q

What 3 drugs can cause a myopic shift?

A

Pilocarpine
Topiramate
Acetazolamide

192
Q

What 3 drugs work as Ca channel blockers?

A

Nifedipime
Verapamil
Diltiazem

193
Q

Oral contraceptives can cause what 3 findings?

A

DVT
Pseudotumor
Dry eye

194
Q

What is the common attachment point of the levator and the superior oblique?

A

Lesser wing of sphenoid

195
Q

What are the 3 actions of the superior oblique?

A

Incyclotorsion
Depression
Abduction

196
Q

Obliques do what movement, as their tertiary movement?

A

Abduction

197
Q

The glands of Moll exhibit what type of secretion?

A

Apocrine

198
Q

What 3 glands secrete the lipid layer of the tear film?

A

Meibomian
Moll
Zeis

199
Q

Why does Horner’s in an adult result in vasodilation of the ACAs?

A

Horner’s is a sympathetic problem, and the sympathetic system accounts for vasoconstriction

200
Q

What condition classically presents with circumlimbal injection?

A

Uveitis

201
Q

What conditions show inferior follicles?

A 
(CHAT)
Chalmydia
Herpes
Adenovirus
Toxic
202
Q

What type of receptors predominate in the non-pigmented ciliary epithelium?

A

Beta 2

203
Q

What are the two “neuroprotective” drugs?

A

Betaxolol

Brimonidine

204
Q

Lateral conjunctiva drains into which nodes?

A

Pre-auricular nodes

205
Q

Medial conjunctiva drains into which nodes?

A

Sub-mandibular

206
Q

Which portion of the lacrimal gland secretes?

A

Orbital portion

207
Q

The superior division of CN III innervates which structures?

A

Superior rectus
Levator
Muller

208
Q

The inferior division of CN III innervates which non-skeletal muscle structures?

A

Accommodation - ciliary body

Miosis - sphincter

209
Q

What nerves run through the common tendinous ring?

A

“NOA nerves”
Nasociliary (V)
Oculomotor (III)
Abducens (VI)

210
Q

What are the branches of V1?

A

(NFL)
Nasociliary
Frontal
Lacrimal

211
Q

What are the branches of V2?

A

Infraorbital

Zygomatic

212
Q

What sits directly behind the superior orbital fissure?

A

Cavernous sinus

213
Q

What are the branches off of the aorta?

A 
(ABCS)
Aortic arch
Brachiocephalic
Common carotid
Subclavian
214
Q

What are the branches of the ICA?

A

Ophthalmic
Posterior communicating
Anterior communicating
Middle cerebral

215
Q

What are the branches of the ophthalmic artery?

A 
(CL MS LSE)
Central retinal
Lacrimal
Muscular
SPCA
LPCA
Supraorbital
Ethmoid
216
Q

Where are the vessel plexi located in the retina?

A

NFL

Between INL and OPL

217
Q

What layers of the cornea scar?

A

Bowman’s

Stroma

218
Q

What type of collagen is present in the endothelium?

A

Type IV

219
Q

What 3 conditions disrupt Bowman’s?

A

Keratoconus
Pterygium
Band K

220
Q

Where does arcus begin?

A

Descemet’s

221
Q

The corneal epithelial cells are joined together by what bond?

A

Macular adherens - leaky

222
Q

What vessel supplies vasculature to the bulbar conj?

A

ACAs

223
Q

Do recti muscles attach anterior or posterior to the equator?

A

Anterior

224
Q

Do obliques attach anterior or posterior to the equator?

A

Posterior

225
Q

The corneoscleral outflow route is pressure (dependent/independent)

A

Corneoscleral

226
Q

Where do drusen accumulate?

A

Inner collagenous layer of the choroid

227
Q

Where do exudates occur?

A

OPL

228
Q

In what layer of the retina does CME occur?

A

OPL

229
Q

What is the thickest area of the retina?

A

Parafovea

230
Q

Which glial cells are phagocytic?

A

Microglia

231
Q

Which glial cells store glycogen?

A

Muller

232
Q

What area of the retina contains the most bipolar cells?

A

Parafovea

233
Q

Which nerve causes head turning and shoulder shrugging?

A

CN XI - accessory

234
Q

Which nerve causes the sensory portion of gagging?

A

CN IX - glossopharyngeal

235
Q

Which CN causes the motor movement involved in gagging?

A

CN X - Vagus

Vagus will gag us

236
Q

Taste from the anterior tongue comes via what nerve?

A

CN VII

237
Q

Taste from the posterior tongue comes via what nerve?

A

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

238
Q

What is the pathway of the sympathetics to the pupil?

A 
Hypothalamus
Ciliospinal center of Budge
Across apex of lung
Superior cervical ganglion
Up ICA
To V1, on the long ciliary nerve
239
Q

In a junctional scotoma, the lesion is always toward what side?

A

The side with the central defect

240
Q

What arteries feed the occipital cortex?

A

Middle cerebral

Posterior cerebral

241
Q

The occipital cortex is divided by which fissure?

A

Calcarine

242
Q

What component of the tear film is capable of chelating iron?

A

Lactoferrin

243
Q

How does lysozyme function?

A

Cleaves peptidoglycan

244
Q

What substance, produced by the corneal epithelium, allows the mucin to adhere to the cornea?

A

Glycocalyx

245
Q

What controls pursuits?

A

Ipsilateral parietal

246
Q

What controls saccades?

A

Contralateral FEF ans superior colliculus

247
Q

What layers of the cornea absorb the most UVC?

A

Epithelium and Bowman’s

248
Q

What UV range causes ptergyia?

A

UVB

249
Q

In corneal deturgescence, where do the ions K, Na, and Cl get pushed?

A

K to Aqueous
Cl to epi and endo
Na into the cornea from tears

250
Q

How does Sturge-Weber cause unilateral glaucoma?

A

Increases the episcleral venous pressure, causing an increase in IOP

251
Q

In the dark, what ions are moving through the gate, which is being held open by what?

A

Na ions

cGMP keeps gate open

252
Q

What accounts for the loss of the foveal light reflex in aging?

A

Thickening of the ILM

253
Q

What is the only retinal layer that thickens with age?

A

ILM

254
Q

What does the trigeminothalamic pathway carry?

A

Pain and temperature for the face

255
Q

If something exits from the caudal medulla, to which side does it typically go?

A

Ipsilateral

256
Q

What are the 6 common findings in RP?

A 
Bone spicules
Arteriole attenuation
Optic disc pallor/drusen
PPA
PSC
CME
257
Q

The Imbert-Fick law is used in which type of tonometry?

A

Goldmann

258
Q

When is IOP highest?

A

Early morning

Supine position

259
Q

Fuch’s heterochromic iridocyclitis is a chronic problem that can cause what 3 things?

A

Unilateral glaucoma
Unilateral cataracts
Permanent damage to the TM

260
Q

Why does 0.125% pilocarpine cause mydriasis in Adie’s pupil?

A

The sphincter isn’t getting any ACh, so even the tiny amount in 0.125% pilo causes it to kick in

261
Q

Adies’ tonic pupil has what odd additional finding?

A

Loss of DTRs

262
Q

What is the major symptom of MG?

A

Diplopia (vertical)

263
Q

What class of drugs are used to treat MG?

A

Indirect cholinergic agonists (acetylcholinesterase inhibitors)

264
Q

What class of drugs makes MG worse?

A

Beta blockers

265
Q

Idiopathic orbital inflammation can cause what type of refractive change?

A

Hyperopic shift - pushing on back of the eye, shortening the axial length

266
Q

What are 3 common findings in ocular rosacea?

A

Inspissated Meibomian and Zeis glands
Peripheral corneal neo
Inflammed ACAs

267
Q

Sleep apnea has associations with what 2 serious systemic conditions?

A

NAION

NTG

268
Q

What is the most common ocular symptoms of sleep apnea?

A

Floppy eyelid syndrome

269
Q

What is the common precursor to squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Actinic keratosis

270
Q

Which includes telangiectasia, basal cell, or squamous cell?

A

Basal cell

271
Q

Which serotype causes EKC?

A

Serotype 8

272
Q

Which serotypes can cause inclusion conjunctivitis?

A

D-K

273
Q

Where does inclusion conjunctivitis begin?

A

Inferior conj

274
Q

Where does trachoma begin?

A

Upper lid/conj

275
Q

Arlt’s line and Herbert’s pits are seen in what condition?

A

Trachoma

276
Q

What are Arlt’s lines?

A

Superior follicular scarring

277
Q

What are Herbert’s pits?

A

Follicular scarring at the limbus

278
Q

Phlyctenules can be caused by what systemic condition?

A

TB

279
Q

Episcleritis is commonly associated with what group of conditions?

A

“U-CRAP”

280
Q

Where are Koeppe nodules found?

A

Pupillary margin

281
Q

What are KPs?

A

WBCs on the endothelium

282
Q

What is the toxoplasmosis tagline?

A

“One eye, one lesion, one parasite”

283
Q

Which causes vitritis, histo or toxo?

A

Toxo

284
Q

How is toxo typically acquired?

A

Passed transplacentally

-Cat feces or undercooked meat

285
Q

Which drugs are to be taken on an empty stomach?

A

“PAT”
Penicillin
Azithromycin
Tetracyclines (except doxy)

286
Q

Ethambutol is known for what ocular side effect?

A

Retro-bulbar optic neuritis

287
Q

What is the typical suffix of the antifungals?

A

Azole

288
Q

Which antifungal doesn’t work on ergosterol?

A

Griseofolvin

-Works on microtubules

289
Q

What is Foscarnet?

A

Anti-viral

290
Q

How does Foscarnet work?

A

Attacks DNA polymerase

291
Q

What are the Whorl K drugs?

A 
(CHAI-T)
Chloroquin
Hydroxychloroquin
Amiodarone
Indomethacin
Tamoxifen
292
Q

Tamoxifen is known for what ocular side effect?

A

Crystalline retinopathy

293
Q

Steroids are contraindicated in what 5 conditions?

A 
Pregnancy
Psychosis
Immunosuppression
Osteoprosis
Gastric ulcers
294
Q

Why are steroids contraindicated in osteoporosis?

A

Steroids inhibit osteoblasts

295
Q

What is the one direct cholinergic agonist?

A

Pilocarpine

296
Q

What is Donepizil used to treat?

A

Alzheimer’s/dementia

297
Q

What class of drug is Donepizil?

A

Cholinergic agonist - indirect (like the stigmines”

298
Q

What are the cholinergic antagonists?

A

STopACH
Anti-psychotics
Anti-depressants
Anti-histamines

299
Q

What are the typical ocular side effects of cholinergic antagonists?

A

Dry eye
Increased IOP
Mild mydriasis
Tachycardia

300
Q

Amitryptaline and imiprimine are what kind of drugs?

A

TCA Anti-depressants (cholinergic antagonists)

301
Q

The 1st generation anti-histamines all have what similar portion in their names?

A

“Fen”

302
Q

Phenylzine, isocarboxazid, and selegiline are all what type of drug?

A

MAOI anti-depressants

303
Q

What are the two pigmentary dispersing anti-psychotic drugs?

A

Chlorpormazine

Thioridazine

304
Q

What are the 2 alpha 2 agonists?

A

Brimonadine

Apriclonadine

305
Q

What is the 1 alpha 1 agonist?

A

Phenylephrine

306
Q

What are the 3 beta 2 agonists?

A

Albuterol
Terbuteline
Levalbuterol

307
Q

What are the alpha 1 antagonist drugs?

A

Prososin
Terazosin
Tamsulosin

308
Q

The alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist drugs can cause what ocular side effect?

A

Floppy iris syndrome

309
Q

What are 3 of the potential ocular side effects of steroids?

A

CSR
Decreased wound healing
Increased IOP

310
Q

Why might albuterol increase IOP?

A

It is a Beta 2 agonist, causing aqueous production

311
Q

What are the dopamine drugs?

A

“BAD”
Bromocryptine
Amantadine
Dextroamphetamine

312
Q

Alpha 1 receptors in the eye are found where?

A

Iris dilator

313
Q

What are the “3 C’s” of Tamoxifen?

A

Uterine cancer
Clost
Crystalline retinopathy

314
Q

How does sumatriptan work for migraines?

A

Vasoconstriction via an accumulation of serotonin

315
Q

What drugs are associated with NAION?

A

Viagra
Immatrex
Amiodarone

316
Q

What are the major ocular side effects of topiramate?

A

Bilateral angle closure
Ciliary body swelling - leading to angle closure
Myopic shift

317
Q

what 4 things can cause myopic shifts?

A

Topiramate
CAIs
Pilocarpine
NS cataracts

318
Q

Which DM drug is a biguanide?

A

Meformin

319
Q

How do biguanides work?

A

Decrease glucose formation

320
Q

What drugs are sulfonylureas?

A

Glipizide
Chlorpropamide
“glip, glide, chlorpropamide”

321
Q

How do sulfonylureas work?

A

Increase insulin

322
Q

How do thiazolidinedione drugs work?

A

Decrease insulin resistance

323
Q

What is an example of a thiazolidinedione drug?

A

Pioglitazone

324
Q

What does renin do?

A

Converts angiotensin to angiotensin I

325
Q

Renin can be inhibited by what drug class?

A

Beta blockers

326
Q

Angiotensin II is inhibited by what drugs?

A

“sartans”

327
Q

Which hormones increase blood pressure?

A

ADH
Angiotensin II
Aldosterone

328
Q

What are the Ca channel blockers?

A

“Knife, dizzy, verap”
Nifedipine
Verapamil
Ditiazem

329
Q

A break in Descemet’s can occur in what 3 conditions?

A

Keratoconus
Keratoglobus
PMD

330
Q

In what layer of the cornea do Vogt’s striae appear?

A

Stroma

331
Q

VKC occurs during what time of the year, and is associated with what 2 signs?

A

Spring
Cobblestone papillae
Shield ulcer

332
Q

Reis-Buckler’s affects what layer of the cornea?

A

Bowman’s

333
Q

Schneider’s dystrophy occurs in what layer of the cornea, and is associated with what?

A

Stroma

High cholesterol

334
Q

What is the number 1 risk factor for a CRVO?

A

HTN - forming a thrombus via the artery pressing on the vein

335
Q

What 2 conditions may present with early PSC?

A

RP

High myopia

336
Q

Muller cells provide what nutrient to the retina?

A

Glucose

337
Q

What is the classic appearance of late stage Stargardt’s disease?

A

Beaten bronze macula - bull’s eye ish

338
Q

Where is the most common area of retinoschisis?

A

Inferior temporal

339
Q

Retinoschisis is more common in which refractive error?

A

Hyperopia

340
Q

NAION is associated with what 3 systemic conditions?

A

HTN
DM
Sleep apnea

341
Q

What is a normal sed rate?

A

Men: 0-22
Women: 0-29

342
Q

What is normal ESR?

A

Men: age/2
Women: age+10 / 2

343
Q

INO is cause by an MLF lesion that makes is so the eye can’t (abduct, adduct)

A

Adduct

344
Q

In MLF, is nystagmus ipsilateral or contralateral to the lesion?

A

Contralateral

345
Q

What is the main cell type in acute inflammation?

A

PMN (neutrophil)

346
Q

What type of necrosis is typical in the lungs?

A

Liquefactive

347
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with TB?

A

Caseous

348
Q

How do MSCs work?

A

Block Ca entry into that cell that would release histamine

349
Q

What are the MSCs?

A 
Alocril
Alomide
Alomast
Cromlyn
Cromlyn sodium
350
Q

What are the systemic effects of histamine?

A

Vasodilation
Decreased BP
Tachycardia
Bronchoconstriction

351
Q

What lab is run for SLE?

A

ANA

352
Q

What is the number 1 cause of uveitis in kids?

A

JIA

353
Q

What is the number 1 symptom of Reactive Arthritis?

A

Pain on urination

“can’t pee, can’t see, cant climb a tree”

354
Q

Rosacea can lead to what peripheral corneal diseases?

A

Peripheral sterile ulcers
SEIs
PUK
Phlyctenules

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