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1. Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most abundant crystalline in the lens?

A

Beta crystallin

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2
Q

What CNs are most affected by whiplash?

A

CN 4

CN 6

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3
Q

What is the most common vitamin deficiency in the US?

A

Folic acid

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4
Q

What is the most common inheritance pattern of RP?

A

AD

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5
Q

What is the most common retinal dystrophy?

A

RP

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6
Q

What is the most common hereditary macular dystrophy?

A

Stargardt’s

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of proptosis?

A

TED

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8
Q

What is the most common benign tumor in adults?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

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9
Q

What is the most common benign tumor in kids?

A

Capillary hemangioma

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10
Q

What is the most common primary malignant tumor in kids?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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11
Q

What is the most common secondary malignant tumor in kids?

A

Neuroblastoma

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12
Q

What is the most common intrinsic tumor?

A

Optic nerve glioma

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13
Q

What is the most common benign brain tumor?

A

Meningioma

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14
Q

What is the most common malignant brain tumor?

A

Glioblastoma

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15
Q

What is the most common intraocular tumor in kids?

A

Retinoblastoma

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16
Q

What is the most common intraocular tumor in adults?

A

Choroidal melanoma

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17
Q

What is the most common eyelid cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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18
Q

What is the most common precancerous lesion?

A

Actinik keratosis

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19
Q

What cancer does actinic keratosis lead to?

A

Squamous cell carconima

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20
Q

What is the most common lethal primary skin cancer?

A

Malignant melanoma

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21
Q

What is the most common upper eyelid cancer?

A

Sebaceous gland carcinoma

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of acute dacryoadenitis?

A

Staph

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic dacryoadenitis?

A

Sarccoidosis

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24
Q

What is the most common conjunctival malignancy?

A

Conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

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25
What is the most common bacterial STD?
Chlamydia
26
What is the most common viral STD?
HPV
27
What is the most common anterior scleritis?
Diffuse, non-necrotizing
28
What is the most common cause of anterior scleritis?
RA (followed by Wegener's granulomatosis)
29
What is the most common cause of episcleritis?
Idiopathic
30
What is the most common corneal finding in anterior uveitis?
KPs
31
What i the most common cause of uveitis in kids?
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)
32
What is the most common cause of posterior uveitis?
Toxoplasmosis
33
What causes toxoplasmosis?
Parasite - toxoplasmosis gondii
34
What is the leading cause of preventable blindness?
Trachoma
35
Where are the majority of the ocular findings of trachoma located?
Superiorly
36
What is the most common cause of spontaneous vitreous heme?
DM retinopathy
37
What is the most common cause if filamentary keratitis?
Dry eye
38
What is the most common anterior corneal dystrophy?
EBMD
39
What is the most common stromal dystrophy?
Lattice
40
What are the 3 stromal dystrophies?
Macular Granular Lattice
41
Which stromal dystrophy is AR inheritance?
MaculAR
42
Which herpes infection leads to pseudodendrites?
HZO
43
What is the most common cause of trichiasis?
Chronic blepharitis
44
What is the most common peripheral corneal opacity?
Arcus senilis
45
What is the most common complication of LASIK?
Epithelial ingrowth
46
What is the worst complication of LASIK?
Diffuse lamellar keratitis
47
If the lens subluxates in a patient with homocysteinuria, which direction does it typically move?
Down and in
48
What is the most common cause of secondary cataract formation?
Chronic anterior uveitis
49
Which cataract induces a hyperopic shift?
Cortical
50
Which cataract induces a myopic shift?
Nuclear
51
What is the most common area for BRVO?
Superior temporal
52
What is the typical early glaucomatous VF defect?
Para-central
53
What is the most common genetic chromosomal disorder?
Down syndrome
54
What diagnosis is most frequently associated with SLK?
Hyperthyroidism
55
What condition is most commonly associated with angioid streaks?
Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
56
What is the most common cause of hemorrhagic stroke?
Subarachnoid
57
Which analgesic is most hepatotoxic?
Acetaminophen
58
Which lens type blocks the most UVA?
Polycarbonate
59
What is vitamin B1?
Thiamine
60
What is vitamin B2?
Riboflavin
61
What if vitamin B3?
Niacin
62
What is vitamin B7?
Biotin
63
What is vitamin B6?
Pyridoxine
64
What is vitamin B9?
Folic acid
65
What is vitamin B12?
Cobalamin
66
What are the 3 types of DNA mutations?
Silent Point Frame-shift
67
What are the granulocyte WBCs?
(BEN) Basophils Eosinophils Neutrophils
68
What do eosinophils respond to?
Parasites | Alergies
69
What do neutrophils respond to?
Bacteria - 1st responder
70
Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk?
IgA
71
Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?
IgG
72
Which immunoglobulin is typically the first to the site?
IgM
73
Which immunoglobulin can be secreted as a pentamer?
IgM
74
Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant?
IgG
75
Tyrosine is the precursor for what 5 things?
``` Dopamine Epinephrine Norepinephrine T3/T3 Melanin ```
76
What does a vitamin A deficiency cause in the eye?
Xeropthatlmia Bitot spots Nyctalopia
77
What is the Kearns-Sayer triad?
1. Progressive external ophthalmoplegia 2. Salt and pepper fundus 3. 1 or more systemic complications
78
What type of syndrome is Kearns-Sayer?
Mitochondrial myopathy
79
What 3 things do omega-3s do?
Lower BP Raise HDL Decrease triglycerides
80
What are the three disaccharides?
Maltose Lactose Sucrose
81
What does a Vit A deficiency cause?
Xerophthalmia Bitot spots Nyctallopia
82
What does a vitamin B3 deficiency cause?
Pellagra
83
What does a vitamin B9 deficiency cause?
Anemia | Neural tube defects
84
What causes a vitamin B12 deficiency?
Pernicious anemia
85
What two diseases does a vitamin D deficiency cause?
Kids - Rickets | Adults - Osteomalacia
86
What bacteria can penetrate the cornea?
Corynebacteria Neisseria gonorrhoea H. Influenzae Listeria
87
Which pancreatic cells make glucagon?
Alpha cells
88
Which pancreatic cells make insulin?
Beta cells
89
Which cells secrete somatostatin?
Delta cells
90
What are the hormones of the posterior pituitary?
Oxytocin | ADH (vasopressin)
91
What are the hormones of the anterior pituitary?
``` FSH LH ACTH TSH Prolactin Endorphins GH ```
92
What is an interference filter?
Filter that only allows 1 wavelength to pass through
93
What cells make myelin in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
94
What cells make myelin in the PNS?
Schwann cells
95
Passive secretion of aqueous humor depends on what 3 factors?
IOP Oncotic pressure Capillary hydrostatic pressure
96
What things travel through the common tendinous ring?
CN 3, CN 6, V1
97
What are the branches of the Ophthalmic artery?
``` (CLMSLSE) Central retinal Lacrimal Muscular SPCA LPCA Supraorbital Ethmoid ```
98
What areas of the eye can autoregulate blood flow?
Retina | Optic nerve
99
What are the branches of the internal carotid artery?
``` (OPAAM) Ophthalmic Posterior communicating Anterior choroidal Anterior cerebral Middle cerebral ```
100
What is the order of rectus attachment to the globe, from most anterior (closest to the limbus) to most posterior?
Media Inferior Lateral Superior
101
How many rods are there in the retina?
120 million
102
How many cones are in the retina?
7 million
103
How many ganglion cells are in the retina?
1.2 million
104
What are the retinal layers in the fovea?
``` RPE PRs ELM ONl Henle's (OPL) ILM ```
105
What are the 3 things that can cause a mucous tear layer deficiency?
Ocular pemphigoid SJS Vit A deficiency
106
How long is the intraocular portion of the optic nerve?
1mm
107
How long is the intraorbital portion of the optic nerve?
30mm
108
How long is the intracanalicular portion of the optic nerve?
10mm
109
How long is the intracranial portion of the optic nerve?
16mm
110
What are the branches of V1
(Superior = NFL, Inferior = LINE) Nasociliary, frontal, lacrimal Long ciliary, infratrochlear, nasal, posterior ethmoid
111
What are the 2 branches of V2?
Infraorbital | Zygomatic
112
Which CN is the longest and most prone to damage?
CN 4
113
What are the epithelial layers of the eye, except the cornea, derived from?
Neuroectoderm
114
What does mesoderm form in the eye?
Anterior border layer Iris stroma Primary vitreous
115
What is the formation order of the ocular structures?
``` Ocular pits Ocular vesicles Ocular stalk Optic fissure Optic cup ```
116
What structures have some form of connection to the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone?
Optic nerve (optic canal) Levator Superior oblique
117
What is the only muscle that doesn't originate from the common tendinous ring?
Inferior oblique
118
What changes occur to allow for cataract formation?
``` Increased sorbitol (DM) Increased UV damage Increased Ca Decreased glutathione Decreased alpha crystalins ```
119
What 5 diseases are known to cause microphthalmia?
``` Rubella Varicella Herpes simplex Toxoplasmosis Cytomegalovirus ```
120
What 4 diseases are known to cause blue sclera?
Scleromalacia perforans Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta Turner's syndrome
121
What 2 diseases cause stallate KPs?
Fuch's | Herpes
122
What interstitial keratitis is associated with what 4 diseases?
TB Herpes Congenital syphilis Cogan's
123
Hutchinson's triad is found in what disease?
Syphilis
124
What is hutchinson's triad?
Hutchinson's teeth Deafness Interstitial keratits
125
What is the congenital toxo triad?
Chorioretinitis Cerebral calcifications Convulsions
126
What are the 3 mitochondrial abnormalities?
Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy Dominant optic atrophy Kearns-sayre syndrome
127
What 5 conditions can cause keratoconus?
``` (TDOME) Turner's Down's Osteogenesis imperfecta Marfan's Ehler's-Danlos ```
128
What 3 conditions can cause megalocornea?
Osteogenesis imperfecta Marfan's Ehler's-Danlos
129
What conditions can cause iris rebeosis?
CRVO DM Chronic RD
130
What conditions will have associated color vision loss?
Glaucoma TED Orbital cellulitis
131
Which hypersensitivity is not antibody/antigen mediated?
Type IV - T cell mediated
132
What type of hypersensitivity is ocular cicatricial pemphigoid?
Type II
133
What 4 conditions may show symblepharon?
SJS Behcet's Cicatricial pemphigoid Severe AKC
134
What are the 4 signs of TED?
Dalrymples - stare (lid retraction) Von graefe - lid lag on downgaze Stellwag - incomplete blinking Kotcher - globe lag compared to lid on upgaze
135
What 5 conditions are associated with increased risk of PVD?
``` Myopia DM Trauma Intraocular surgery Vit hemes ```
136
What are the 6 common causes of dacryoadenitis?
``` Bacterial infection Viral infection Grave's disease Idiopathic orbital inflammation Sarcoidosis TB ```
137
Which 4 conditions typically present with +PAN?
Parinauds oculoglandular syndrome Adenoviral conjunctivitis Gonococcal conjunctivitis HSV conjunctivitis
138
What 7 things primarily affect Bowman's layer?
``` Band K Pterygium Refractive surgery Reis-Buckler dystrophy Keratoconus Crocodile shagreen Ehler's-Danlos (Bowman's absent) ```
139
What are the 4 pathological findings that occur in Descemet's membrane?
Hydrops - Keratoconus and PMD Haabs striae - congenital glaucoma Hassel-Henle bodies Arcus
140
What 2 conditions will present with anterior uveitis and elevated IOP?
Posner-Schlossman syndrome | Herpes
141
What are the 4 different iron deposits?
Stocker's line - pterygium Fleisher's ring - Keratoconus Hudson-Stahli line - (inferior) senile finding Ferry's line - Filtering bleb
142
What 4 ocular conditions may be seen in persons with high cholesterol?
Xanthelasma Hollenhorst plaque Arcus Schnyder's dystrophy
143
What are the 3 locations of the blood-aqueous barrier?
NPCE of ciliary body Iris blood vessels Schlemm's canal
144
What 2 ocular conditions involve Ca deposits?
``` Band keratopathy Asteroid hyalosis (Ca soaps) ```
145
What 2 conditions may present with pseudodendrites?
HZO | Acanthamoeba
146
Band Keratopathy is associated with what 6 conditions?
``` Gout Hypercalcemia Sarcoidosis Renal failure Iritis Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) ```
147
SPK may be caused by what two pharmacological agents?
BAK | Aminoglycosides
148
SJS is what type of hypersensitivity?
Type IV
149
What are the 6 drugs/conditions that can cause whorl keratopathy?
``` (CHAI-T) Chloroquine Hydroxychloroquine Amioderone Indomethacin Tamoxifen Fabry's disease ```
150
A Kayser-Fleischer ring is made from what deposits, as seen in which disease?
Copper | Wilson's disease
151
What are the 3 drugs that are associated with NAION?
(VIAgra) Viagra Immitrex Amioderone
152
What 5 conditions have an association with episcleritis?
``` Gout Lyme Syphilis Lupus HZV ```
153
What diseases have associations with angioid streaks?
``` (PEPSI-HAAM) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum Ehler's-Danlos Paget's Sickle cell Idiopathic Acromegaly Age related senile elastosis Hemochromatosis Marfan's ```
154
What are the 4 major risk factors for conversion from dry AMD to wet?
Focal hyperpigmentation Smokin Multiple soft drusen HTN
155
What are the 6 causes of macular edema?
``` (DO-RE-MI) DM Occlusion RP Epiretinal membrane MS Idiopathic ```
156
What are the perinatal infections in utero?
``` (TORCH) Toxoplasmosis Other (HIV, syphilis) Rubella CMV Herpes simplex ```
157
What corneal findings are associated with VKC?
Trantas dots | Shield ulcer
158
What is the histoplasmosis triad?
PPA Peripheral punched out lesions Maculopathy (CNVM) (NO vitritis)
159
What 4 conditions may cause early cataracts?
DM Wilson's Myotonic dystrophy Atopic dermatitis
160
What 2 conditions are associated with infantile cataracts?
Galatosemia | Rubella
161
In what 4 conditions is leukocoria commonly seen?
Coat's disease Toxocariasis Retinoblastoma ROP
162
What are the 5 conditions that area associated with pre-retinal hemorrhages?
``` (DR VOS) DM ROP Vein occlusion OIS Sickle cell ```
163
What are the 6 conditions that are associated with CNVM formation?
``` (CHBALA) Choroidal rupture Histoplasmosis Best's disease AMD Lacquer cracks Angioid streaks ```
164
Where do angioid streaks originate?
ONH
165
Where do lacquer cracks originate?
Macula
166
What 5 conditions/drugs are associated with Bull's eye maculopathy?
``` Stargardt's Progressive cone dystrophy Chloroquine Hydroxychloroquine Thioridazine ```
167
What are the 2 primary risk factors for ROP?
Weight under 1500g | Less than 32 weeks
168
What 3 conditions can cause a cherry-red spot?
Tay-Sach's Leber's congenital amaurosis CRAO
169
Roth spots are associated with what 5 conditions?
``` Leukemia Bacterial endocarditis Anemia Malaria Lupus ```
170
In which leukemia are auer rods seen?
AML
171
Which pupil "disorder" is seen in syphilis?
Argyll-Robertson
172
Which pupil "disorder" has light/near dissociation?
Argyll-Robertson
173
What are the 3 risk factors for COPD?
Low birth weight Frequent childhood infections Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
174
Systemic scleroderma is seen in what 5 conditions?
``` (CREST) Calcinosis Raynauds Esophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia ```
175
Hyphema may be see in what 4 conditions?
Sickle cell Leukemia Thrombocytopenia Trauma
176
What 4 things are capable of causing a Horner's syndrome?
Pancoast tumor Hypothalamus lesion Carotid artery dissection Tolosa hunt syndrome
177
What 4 conditions may cause Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome?
Cat scratch Tularemia TB Syphilis
178
What 3 conditions most commonly cause SLK?
TED Dry eye CL wear
179
What 5 drugs are considered immunosuppressants?
``` Dexamethasone Prednisone Triamcinolone Cyclosporin Methotrexate ```
180
What 3 drugs/classes commonly cause subconj hemes?
NSAIDs Sildenafil Coumadin
181
What are the 4 drugs that can cause pigmentary retinopathy?
Thioridizine Indomethacin Hydroxycholorquine Chloroquine
182
What 3 drugs may cause aplastic anemia?
Chloramphenicol Trimethoprim Acetazolamide/Methazolamide
183
What antibiotics are safe in pregnancy?
(PAC) Penicillin Azithromycin Cephalosporins
184
What antibiotics are not safe in pregnancy?
``` (FAT) Fluoroquinolones Aminoglycosides Tetracyclines -Sulfonamides, in the later stages of pregnancy ```
185
Which antibiotics are broad spectrum?
Fluoroquinolones (4th gen) Aminoglycosides Tetracyclines
186
What is the MOA of the statin drugs?
HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
187
What 3 drugs/classes may cause anterior uveitis?
Rifabutin Sulfonamides Cidofovir
188
Which glaucoma med commonly causes toxic follicular reactions?
Brimonadine
189
What 4 drugs are dopamine agonists?
Dextroamphetamine Bromocriptine Amantadine Methylphenidate
190
What 2 meds are considered to be neuroprotective?
Brimonidine | Betaxolol
191
What 3 drugs can cause a myopic shift?
Pilocarpine Topiramate Acetazolamide
192
What 3 drugs work as Ca channel blockers?
Nifedipime Verapamil Diltiazem
193
Oral contraceptives can cause what 3 findings?
DVT Pseudotumor Dry eye
194
What is the common attachment point of the levator and the superior oblique?
Lesser wing of sphenoid
195
What are the 3 actions of the superior oblique?
Incyclotorsion Depression Abduction
196
Obliques do what movement, as their tertiary movement?
Abduction
197
The glands of Moll exhibit what type of secretion?
Apocrine
198
What 3 glands secrete the lipid layer of the tear film?
Meibomian Moll Zeis
199
Why does Horner's in an adult result in vasodilation of the ACAs?
Horner's is a sympathetic problem, and the sympathetic system accounts for vasoconstriction
200
What condition classically presents with circumlimbal injection?
Uveitis
201
What conditions show inferior follicles?
``` (CHAT) Chalmydia Herpes Adenovirus Toxic ```
202
What type of receptors predominate in the non-pigmented ciliary epithelium?
Beta 2
203
What are the two "neuroprotective" drugs?
Betaxolol | Brimonidine
204
Lateral conjunctiva drains into which nodes?
Pre-auricular nodes
205
Medial conjunctiva drains into which nodes?
Sub-mandibular
206
Which portion of the lacrimal gland secretes?
Orbital portion
207
The superior division of CN III innervates which structures?
Superior rectus Levator Muller
208
The inferior division of CN III innervates which non-skeletal muscle structures?
Accommodation - ciliary body | Miosis - sphincter
209
What nerves run through the common tendinous ring?
"NOA nerves" Nasociliary (V) Oculomotor (III) Abducens (VI)
210
What are the branches of V1?
(NFL) Nasociliary Frontal Lacrimal
211
What are the branches of V2?
Infraorbital | Zygomatic
212
What sits directly behind the superior orbital fissure?
Cavernous sinus
213
What are the branches off of the aorta?
``` (ABCS) Aortic arch Brachiocephalic Common carotid Subclavian ```
214
What are the branches of the ICA?
Ophthalmic Posterior communicating Anterior communicating Middle cerebral
215
What are the branches of the ophthalmic artery?
``` (CL MS LSE) Central retinal Lacrimal Muscular SPCA LPCA Supraorbital Ethmoid ```
216
Where are the vessel plexi located in the retina?
NFL | Between INL and OPL
217
What layers of the cornea scar?
Bowman's | Stroma
218
What type of collagen is present in the endothelium?
Type IV
219
What 3 conditions disrupt Bowman's?
Keratoconus Pterygium Band K
220
Where does arcus begin?
Descemet's
221
The corneal epithelial cells are joined together by what bond?
Macular adherens - leaky
222
What vessel supplies vasculature to the bulbar conj?
ACAs
223
Do recti muscles attach anterior or posterior to the equator?
Anterior
224
Do obliques attach anterior or posterior to the equator?
Posterior
225
The corneoscleral outflow route is pressure (dependent/independent)
Corneoscleral
226
Where do drusen accumulate?
Inner collagenous layer of the choroid
227
Where do exudates occur?
OPL
228
In what layer of the retina does CME occur?
OPL
229
What is the thickest area of the retina?
Parafovea
230
Which glial cells are phagocytic?
Microglia
231
Which glial cells store glycogen?
Muller
232
What area of the retina contains the most bipolar cells?
Parafovea
233
Which nerve causes head turning and shoulder shrugging?
CN XI - accessory
234
Which nerve causes the sensory portion of gagging?
CN IX - glossopharyngeal
235
Which CN causes the motor movement involved in gagging?
CN X - Vagus | Vagus will gag us
236
Taste from the anterior tongue comes via what nerve?
CN VII
237
Taste from the posterior tongue comes via what nerve?
CN IX - Glossopharyngeal
238
What is the pathway of the sympathetics to the pupil?
``` Hypothalamus Ciliospinal center of Budge Across apex of lung Superior cervical ganglion Up ICA To V1, on the long ciliary nerve ```
239
In a junctional scotoma, the lesion is always toward what side?
The side with the central defect
240
What arteries feed the occipital cortex?
Middle cerebral | Posterior cerebral
241
The occipital cortex is divided by which fissure?
Calcarine
242
What component of the tear film is capable of chelating iron?
Lactoferrin
243
How does lysozyme function?
Cleaves peptidoglycan
244
What substance, produced by the corneal epithelium, allows the mucin to adhere to the cornea?
Glycocalyx
245
What controls pursuits?
Ipsilateral parietal
246
What controls saccades?
Contralateral FEF ans superior colliculus
247
What layers of the cornea absorb the most UVC?
Epithelium and Bowman's
248
What UV range causes ptergyia?
UVB
249
In corneal deturgescence, where do the ions K, Na, and Cl get pushed?
K to Aqueous Cl to epi and endo Na into the cornea from tears
250
How does Sturge-Weber cause unilateral glaucoma?
Increases the episcleral venous pressure, causing an increase in IOP
251
In the dark, what ions are moving through the gate, which is being held open by what?
Na ions | cGMP keeps gate open
252
What accounts for the loss of the foveal light reflex in aging?
Thickening of the ILM
253
What is the only retinal layer that thickens with age?
ILM
254
What does the trigeminothalamic pathway carry?
Pain and temperature for the face
255
If something exits from the caudal medulla, to which side does it typically go?
Ipsilateral
256
What are the 6 common findings in RP?
``` Bone spicules Arteriole attenuation Optic disc pallor/drusen PPA PSC CME ```
257
The Imbert-Fick law is used in which type of tonometry?
Goldmann
258
When is IOP highest?
Early morning | Supine position
259
Fuch's heterochromic iridocyclitis is a chronic problem that can cause what 3 things?
Unilateral glaucoma Unilateral cataracts Permanent damage to the TM
260
Why does 0.125% pilocarpine cause mydriasis in Adie's pupil?
The sphincter isn't getting any ACh, so even the tiny amount in 0.125% pilo causes it to kick in
261
Adies' tonic pupil has what odd additional finding?
Loss of DTRs
262
What is the major symptom of MG?
Diplopia (vertical)
263
What class of drugs are used to treat MG?
Indirect cholinergic agonists (acetylcholinesterase inhibitors)
264
What class of drugs makes MG worse?
Beta blockers
265
Idiopathic orbital inflammation can cause what type of refractive change?
Hyperopic shift - pushing on back of the eye, shortening the axial length
266
What are 3 common findings in ocular rosacea?
Inspissated Meibomian and Zeis glands Peripheral corneal neo Inflammed ACAs
267
Sleep apnea has associations with what 2 serious systemic conditions?
NAION | NTG
268
What is the most common ocular symptoms of sleep apnea?
Floppy eyelid syndrome
269
What is the common precursor to squamous cell carcinoma?
Actinic keratosis
270
Which includes telangiectasia, basal cell, or squamous cell?
Basal cell
271
Which serotype causes EKC?
Serotype 8
272
Which serotypes can cause inclusion conjunctivitis?
D-K
273
Where does inclusion conjunctivitis begin?
Inferior conj
274
Where does trachoma begin?
Upper lid/conj
275
Arlt's line and Herbert's pits are seen in what condition?
Trachoma
276
What are Arlt's lines?
Superior follicular scarring
277
What are Herbert's pits?
Follicular scarring at the limbus
278
Phlyctenules can be caused by what systemic condition?
TB
279
Episcleritis is commonly associated with what group of conditions?
"U-CRAP"
280
Where are Koeppe nodules found?
Pupillary margin
281
What are KPs?
WBCs on the endothelium
282
What is the toxoplasmosis tagline?
"One eye, one lesion, one parasite"
283
Which causes vitritis, histo or toxo?
Toxo
284
How is toxo typically acquired?
Passed transplacentally | -Cat feces or undercooked meat
285
Which drugs are to be taken on an empty stomach?
"PAT" Penicillin Azithromycin Tetracyclines (except doxy)
286
Ethambutol is known for what ocular side effect?
Retro-bulbar optic neuritis
287
What is the typical suffix of the antifungals?
Azole
288
Which antifungal doesn't work on ergosterol?
Griseofolvin | -Works on microtubules
289
What is Foscarnet?
Anti-viral
290
How does Foscarnet work?
Attacks DNA polymerase
291
What are the Whorl K drugs?
``` (CHAI-T) Chloroquin Hydroxychloroquin Amiodarone Indomethacin Tamoxifen ```
292
Tamoxifen is known for what ocular side effect?
Crystalline retinopathy
293
Steroids are contraindicated in what 5 conditions?
``` Pregnancy Psychosis Immunosuppression Osteoprosis Gastric ulcers ```
294
Why are steroids contraindicated in osteoporosis?
Steroids inhibit osteoblasts
295
What is the one direct cholinergic agonist?
Pilocarpine
296
What is Donepizil used to treat?
Alzheimer's/dementia
297
What class of drug is Donepizil?
Cholinergic agonist - indirect (like the stigmines"
298
What are the cholinergic antagonists?
STopACH Anti-psychotics Anti-depressants Anti-histamines
299
What are the typical ocular side effects of cholinergic antagonists?
Dry eye Increased IOP Mild mydriasis Tachycardia
300
Amitryptaline and imiprimine are what kind of drugs?
TCA Anti-depressants (cholinergic antagonists)
301
The 1st generation anti-histamines all have what similar portion in their names?
"Fen"
302
Phenylzine, isocarboxazid, and selegiline are all what type of drug?
MAOI anti-depressants
303
What are the two pigmentary dispersing anti-psychotic drugs?
Chlorpormazine | Thioridazine
304
What are the 2 alpha 2 agonists?
Brimonadine | Apriclonadine
305
What is the 1 alpha 1 agonist?
Phenylephrine
306
What are the 3 beta 2 agonists?
Albuterol Terbuteline Levalbuterol
307
What are the alpha 1 antagonist drugs?
Prososin Terazosin Tamsulosin
308
The alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist drugs can cause what ocular side effect?
Floppy iris syndrome
309
What are 3 of the potential ocular side effects of steroids?
CSR Decreased wound healing Increased IOP
310
Why might albuterol increase IOP?
It is a Beta 2 agonist, causing aqueous production
311
What are the dopamine drugs?
"BAD" Bromocryptine Amantadine Dextroamphetamine
312
Alpha 1 receptors in the eye are found where?
Iris dilator
313
What are the "3 C's" of Tamoxifen?
Uterine cancer Clost Crystalline retinopathy
314
How does sumatriptan work for migraines?
Vasoconstriction via an accumulation of serotonin
315
What drugs are associated with NAION?
Viagra Immatrex Amiodarone
316
What are the major ocular side effects of topiramate?
Bilateral angle closure Ciliary body swelling - leading to angle closure Myopic shift
317
what 4 things can cause myopic shifts?
Topiramate CAIs Pilocarpine NS cataracts
318
Which DM drug is a biguanide?
Meformin
319
How do biguanides work?
Decrease glucose formation
320
What drugs are sulfonylureas?
Glipizide Chlorpropamide "glip, glide, chlorpropamide"
321
How do sulfonylureas work?
Increase insulin
322
How do thiazolidinedione drugs work?
Decrease insulin resistance
323
What is an example of a thiazolidinedione drug?
Pioglitazone
324
What does renin do?
Converts angiotensin to angiotensin I
325
Renin can be inhibited by what drug class?
Beta blockers
326
Angiotensin II is inhibited by what drugs?
"sartans"
327
Which hormones increase blood pressure?
ADH Angiotensin II Aldosterone
328
What are the Ca channel blockers?
"Knife, dizzy, verap" Nifedipine Verapamil Ditiazem
329
A break in Descemet's can occur in what 3 conditions?
Keratoconus Keratoglobus PMD
330
In what layer of the cornea do Vogt's striae appear?
Stroma
331
VKC occurs during what time of the year, and is associated with what 2 signs?
Spring Cobblestone papillae Shield ulcer
332
Reis-Buckler's affects what layer of the cornea?
Bowman's
333
Schneider's dystrophy occurs in what layer of the cornea, and is associated with what?
Stroma | High cholesterol
334
What is the number 1 risk factor for a CRVO?
HTN - forming a thrombus via the artery pressing on the vein
335
What 2 conditions may present with early PSC?
RP | High myopia
336
Muller cells provide what nutrient to the retina?
Glucose
337
What is the classic appearance of late stage Stargardt's disease?
Beaten bronze macula - bull's eye ish
338
Where is the most common area of retinoschisis?
Inferior temporal
339
Retinoschisis is more common in which refractive error?
Hyperopia
340
NAION is associated with what 3 systemic conditions?
HTN DM Sleep apnea
341
What is a normal sed rate?
Men: 0-22 Women: 0-29
342
What is normal ESR?
Men: age/2 Women: age+10 / 2
343
INO is cause by an MLF lesion that makes is so the eye can't (abduct, adduct)
Adduct
344
In MLF, is nystagmus ipsilateral or contralateral to the lesion?
Contralateral
345
What is the main cell type in acute inflammation?
PMN (neutrophil)
346
What type of necrosis is typical in the lungs?
Liquefactive
347
What type of necrosis is associated with TB?
Caseous
348
How do MSCs work?
Block Ca entry into that cell that would release histamine
349
What are the MSCs?
``` Alocril Alomide Alomast Cromlyn Cromlyn sodium ```
350
What are the systemic effects of histamine?
Vasodilation Decreased BP Tachycardia Bronchoconstriction
351
What lab is run for SLE?
ANA
352
What is the number 1 cause of uveitis in kids?
JIA
353
What is the number 1 symptom of Reactive Arthritis?
Pain on urination | "can't pee, can't see, cant climb a tree"
354
Rosacea can lead to what peripheral corneal diseases?
Peripheral sterile ulcers SEIs PUK Phlyctenules

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