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Neuro SHELF Prep > 1 > Flashcards

1 Flashcards

1
Q

Location of Lumbar Puncture

A

L3-L4 or L4-L5

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2
Q

Very low glucose in CSF

A

Tuberculosis

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3
Q

Positive EBV PCR in CSF

A

CNS Lymphoma in immunocompromised

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4
Q

T1

A

Anatomic; fluid is black

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5
Q

T2

A

Reverse anatomic: fluid is white

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6
Q

T2 FLAIR

A

Reverse anatomic; fluid is black

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7
Q

____ waves (___ Hz): posterior head regions during relaxed awake state with eyes closed

A

Alpha; 8-13

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8
Q

____ waves (___ Hz): o frontal regions during relaxed awake state with eyes closed

A

Beta; 14-30

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9
Q

____ waves (___ Hz): during drowsiness and sleep

A

Theta/Delta; less than 7

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10
Q

Absence seizures may be stimulated with _____.

A

Hyperventilation

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11
Q

Myotonic seizures may be stimulated with _____.

A

Photic stimulation

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12
Q

Central or Peripheral Nystagmus? Unidirectional

A

Peripheral

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13
Q

Central or Peripheral Nystagmus? May be purely vertical or purely horizontal

A

Central

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14
Q

Central or Peripheral Nystagmus? may be bidirectional

A

Central

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15
Q

Central or Peripheral Nystagmus? fixation inhibits nystagmus

A

Peripheral

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16
Q

Central or Peripheral Nystagmus? Tinnitus or hearing loss

A

Peripheral

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17
Q

Central or Peripheral Nystagmus? Chronic

A

Central

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18
Q

Which type of nystagmus? normal response to moving object

A

optokinetic

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19
Q

Which type of nystagmus? horizontal jerks changing direction every 2-3 minutes

A

Periodic alternating

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20
Q

Which type of nystagmus? seen in familial periodic ataxia

A

Downbeat

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21
Q

Which type of nystagmus? seen in Wernicke encephalopathy

A

Upbeat

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22
Q

Which type of nystagmus? greater amplitude than endpoint; seen in drug intoxication

A

Gaze evoked

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23
Q

Which type of nystagmus? Horizontal and rotary components

A

Vestibular

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24
Q

6 Causes of Vertigo

A

Labyrinthine concussion, infarction, perilymph fistula, vestibular neuronitis, Meniere Disease, BPPV

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25
Q

Medical treatment of orthostatic hypotension

A

Midodrine, fludrocortisone

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26
Q

Medical treatment of neurogenic syncope

A

Beta blockers

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27
Q

Which diagnosis? Ataxia in children following viral infection, complete recovery

A

Post-Infectious Cerebellitis

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28
Q

Which diagnosis? Ataxia with UE>LE and loss of reflexes, impairment of vibration/proprioception; HOCM, DM, arrhythmia

A

Friedreich Ataxia

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29
Q

Most common headache

A

Tension-type

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30
Q

Tx of tension-type HA

A

simple analgesics

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31
Q

Abortive Tx of cluster HA

A

triptans

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32
Q

Prophylactic Tx of cluster HA

A

Verapamil or lithium

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33
Q

Tx of paroxysmal hemicrania

A

indomethacin

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34
Q

The duration and frequency of Paroxysmal hemicrania compared to tension-type headache are ____ and ____, respectively

A

decreased; increased

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35
Q

Most common nerve palsy in IIH

A

CN6

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36
Q

Claudication of the Jaw and AION: think _____

A

Giant Cell Arteritis

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37
Q

Tx of trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine (and other anticonvulsants

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38
Q

Tx of postherpetic neuralgia

A

gabapentin, TCAs

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39
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles are located _____ and consist of ____

A

intracellularly; tau

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40
Q

Senile plaques are located ____ and consist of ____.

A

extracellularly; amyloid

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41
Q

Second most common cause of dementia

A

Lew Body Disease

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42
Q

Lewy bodies consist of _____.

A

alpha-synuclein

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43
Q

Which dementia? Hallucinations and sensitivity to anti-epileptics, parkinsonism

A

Lewy Body Disease

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44
Q

Which dementia? Gait ataxia/falls early in disease, extra-pyramidal rigidity

A

PSP

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45
Q

Medical tx of Huntington chorea

A

dopamine antagonists/neuroleptics

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46
Q

Which dementia? Prominent behavior/personality changes and disinhibition

A

Frontotemporal Dementia

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47
Q

Which dementia? myoclonus and periodic sharp waves on EEG

A

Prion/CJD

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48
Q

Benzodiazepines suppress ___ stage of sleep

A

N3

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49
Q

Antidepressants and alcohol suppress ___ stage of sleep

A

REM

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50
Q

What nutrient is commonly deficient in RLS

A

Iron

51
Q

Tx of narcolepsy

A

Modafinil, stimulants

52
Q

Tx of cataplexy

A

TCAs

53
Q

Cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Circle of Willis Aneurysm

54
Q

Medical tx of SAH

A

Nimodipine

55
Q

Cause of intraparenchymal hemorrhage

A

HTN

56
Q

Which epilepsy syndrome? 1-2 Hz spike and wave, associated with intellectual disability

A

Lennox-Gastaut

57
Q

Which epilepsy syndrome? Simple partial (especially mouth/face), centrotemporal spikes

A

Benign Rolandic

58
Q

Which epilepsy syndrome? 4-6 Hz polyspike and wave, often in early morning

A

Juvenile Myoclonic

59
Q

Which anti-epileptic? gingival hyperplasia, coarsening of facial features

A

Phenytoin

60
Q

Which anti-epileptic? hyponatremia, a granulocytosis

A

Carbamazepine

61
Q

Which anti-epileptic? tremor, weight gain, hair loss, hepatotoxicity

A

Valproic acid

62
Q

Which anti-epileptic? affects T-type Ca channels

A

Ethosuximide

63
Q

Which anti-epileptic? most notorious for SJS

A

Lamotrigine

64
Q

Which diagnosis? Muscle rigidity, fever, autonomic instability, altered level of consciousness

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

65
Q

Tx of akathisia

A

anticholinergics, Beta Blockers

66
Q

Tx of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

A

Antipyretics, hydration (consider dantrolene or bromocriptine)

67
Q

Tx of tardive dyskinesia

A

Reserpine or tetrabenazine

68
Q

Tx of Stiff Person Syndrome

A

Benzos, baclofen

69
Q

Tx of ET

A

Propranolol, primidone

70
Q

Tx of chorea

A

Haloperidol

71
Q

Cause of hemiballismus

A

Basal ganglia stroke

72
Q

Tx of dystonia

A

Botulinum

73
Q

Which diagnosis? Tics and/or OCD triggers by antibody response targeted against basal ganglia

A

PANDAS

74
Q

Which diagnosis? ipsilateral CN3 palsy, impaired consciousness, ipsilateral hemiplegia, progressive temporal/occipital dysfunction

A

Uncal herniation

75
Q

Ways to decrease ICP

A

Elevate head of bed, mannitol, hyperventilation, ventricular drain, barbiturates

76
Q

Which diagnosis? Pulmonary involvement, non-caveating granulomas, increased serum ACE

A

sarcoidosis

77
Q

Tx of sarcoidosis

A

Steroids

78
Q

Which diagnosis? dementia, seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, supranuclear ophthalmoplegia, oculomasticatory myorhythmia

A

Whipple Disease

79
Q

Which diagnosis? Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion; may have signs of nutritional deficiency, hypothermia, or postural hypotension

A

Wernicke Encephalopathy

80
Q

Which diagnosis? Isolated memory disturbance, confabulation

A

Korsakoff Psychosis

81
Q

Complications and tx of antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Stroke; anticoagulation

82
Q

Most common CNS tumor

A

Metastasis

83
Q

Which genetic syndrome? Associated with ependymoma

A

NF1

84
Q

Which genetic syndrome? Associated with medulloblastoma

A

Li-Fraumeni

85
Q

Which genetic syndrome? Associated with hemangioblastoma

A

VHL

86
Q

Most common primary brain tumor in adults

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme

87
Q

Imaging pattern for GBM

A

Butterfly pattern

88
Q

Which PBT? Slow growing, calcifications, fried egg cells

A

Oligodendroglioma

89
Q

Most common location for ependymoma in adults and children

A

spinal cord; 4th ventricle

90
Q

Pathologic feature of ependymoma

A

Pseudorosettes

91
Q

Tx of Schwannoma

A

Stereotactic radiosurgery

92
Q

Which tumor? cerebellar cystic lesions

A

Hemangioblastoma

93
Q

Which tumor? Calcified suprasellar cyst on imaging

A

Craniopharyngioma

94
Q

Most common metastases

A

Lung > Melanoma

95
Q

Metastases most likely to bleed

A

Melanoma, Chorio, Renal clear cell

96
Q

Which diagnosis? Painful loss of visual acuity, pain with EOM use, papilledema

A

Optic Neuritis

97
Q

Worsening of symptoms with heat

A

Uhthoff Phenomenon/MS

98
Q

Tx of MS flare

A

IV Methylprednisolone followed by oral prednisone taper

99
Q

Which diagnosis? Monophasic demyelinating illness in the CNS preceded by viral infection

A

Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis (ADEM)

100
Q

Tx of ADEM

A

corticosteroids may help; recovery usually full

101
Q

Which diagnosis? optic neuritis and transverse myelitis

A

Neuromyelitis optica

102
Q

NMO involves antibodies to ____

A

aquaporin 4

103
Q

Tx of NMO

A

Steroids

104
Q

Which diagnosis? Dementia, focal cortical dysfunction, cerebellar dysfunction; seen in context of AIDS

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

105
Q

Cause of PML

A

JC virus (infects oligodendroglial cells to cause demyelination)

106
Q

Which diagnosis? acute confusional state and cortical vision loss in context of rapidly progressive HTN or use of immunosuppressants

A

Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome (PRES)

107
Q

Which diagnosis? HA, neck stiffness, myalgias, meningismus, CN palsies

A

Lyme Disease

108
Q

Most CN palsy in Lyme Disease

A

7

109
Q

Which diagnosis? HA, fever, altered consciousness, partial seizures, memory disturbance, olfactory hallucinations

A

HSV encephalitis

110
Q

Most common fungal intracranial infection

A

Cryptococcal Meningitis

111
Q

Which diagnosis? India Ink staining and tx with amphotericin

A

Cryptococcal Meningitis

112
Q

Most common parasitic intracranial infection

A

Toxoplasmosis

113
Q

Which diagnosis? Multiple cystic lesions with surrounding edema, endemic in central and south America

A

Neurocysticercosis

114
Q

Cause of neurocysticercosis

A

Taenia solium

115
Q

Tx of neurocysticerosis

A

Albendazole, steroids/anticonvulsants

116
Q

Which diagnosis? Resembles subacute combined degeneration, but no B12 deficiency

A

Vacuolar Myelopathy (HIV-Associated)

117
Q

Which diagnosis? Antiganglioside antibodies

A

GBS

118
Q

Tx of GBS

A

Plasmapheresis, IVIG

119
Q

Which diagnosis? Sensorimotor axonal neuropathy, abdominal pain

A

Porphyria

120
Q

Most common inherited peripheral neuropathy

A

CMT

121
Q

Palpable nerve hypertrophy

A

CMT, Leprosy

122
Q

Inheritance pattern of DMD/BMD

A

X-Linked

123
Q

Inheritance of Periodic Paralysis

A

AD

124
Q

CGG trinucleotide repeat causing mental retardation

A

Fragile X

Neuro SHELF Prep (1 decks)

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