1-4 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What is the etiology of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

A

Autoimmune disease with unknown cause

SLE is characterized by the body’s immune system attacking its own tissues.

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2
Q

List three typical signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA).

A
  • Joint pain
  • Swelling
  • Stiffness

RA primarily affects joints and can lead to joint damage if untreated.

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3
Q

What is a common diagnostic test for Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID)?

A

Newborn screening for T-cell receptor excision circles (TREC)

Early detection is crucial for effective treatment.

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4
Q

What are two possible treatments for Selective IgA Deficiency?

A
  • Immunoglobulin replacement therapy
  • Antibiotics for infections

Treatments focus on managing infections and boosting immunity.

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5
Q

Fill in the blank: DiGeorge Syndrome is characterized by a _______ in the thymus gland.

A

[hypoplasia]

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6
Q

What is a key sign of HIV infection?

A

Opportunistic infections

These occur due to the weakened immune system.

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7
Q

What are the two types of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?

A
  • B-cell ALL
  • T-cell ALL

Classification is based on the type of lymphocyte involved.

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8
Q

True or False: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) is characterized by the rapid proliferation of immature B cells.

A

False

CLL involves the accumulation of mature but dysfunctional B cells.

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9
Q

What distinguishes Hodgkin’s Lymphoma from Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells

These cells are characteristic of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.

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10
Q

What is a common symptom of anemia?

A

Fatigue

Anemia leads to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues.

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11
Q

Fill in the blank: Hemolytic Anemia is caused by the _______ of red blood cells.

A

[destruction]

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12
Q

What is the primary cause of Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Genetic mutation in hemoglobin

This mutation causes red blood cells to assume a sickle shape.

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13
Q

What condition is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells in newborns?

A

Hemolytic Disease of a Newborn

Often occurs due to Rh incompatibility.

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14
Q

What is a common cause of Iron-Deficiency Anemia?

A

Insufficient iron intake

Can also result from blood loss or absorption issues.

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15
Q

What is the primary treatment for Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)?

A

Corticosteroids

These help to reduce immune system activity.

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16
Q

What is Hemophilia?

A

A genetic disorder affecting blood clotting

It is often due to a deficiency in clotting factors.

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17
Q

What is one common symptom of Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome?

A

Acute kidney failure

It often follows a gastrointestinal infection.

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18
Q

What is the definition of Hyperlipidemia?

A

Elevated levels of lipids in the blood

It is a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases.

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19
Q

What are two risk factors for Hypertension?

A
  • Obesity
  • High salt intake

Lifestyle factors play a significant role in hypertension.

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20
Q

What is Atherosclerosis?

A

Hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to plaque buildup

It can lead to serious cardiovascular conditions.

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: An aneurysm is an abnormal _______ of a blood vessel.

A

[dilation]

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22
Q

What is Kawasaki Disease?

A

A condition that causes inflammation in blood vessels

It primarily affects children and can lead to heart complications.

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23
Q

What are the four types of hypersensitivity disorders?

A
  • Type I: Immediate hypersensitivity
  • Type II: Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity
  • Type III: Immune complex-mediated
  • Type IV: Delayed-type hypersensitivity

Each type has distinct mechanisms and clinical manifestations.

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24
Q

Define Immunodeficiency.

A

A condition where the immune system’s ability to fight infections is compromised

Can be congenital or acquired.

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25
Q

What is Autoimmunity?

A

A condition where the immune system attacks the body’s own tissues

It leads to various autoimmune diseases.

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26
Q

Fill in the blank: Anaphylaxis is a severe, potentially _______ allergic reaction.

A

[life-threatening]

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27
Q

What does Leukocytosis indicate?

A

An increase in white blood cell count

Often a response to infection or inflammation.

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28
Q

What is the meaning of Leukopenia?

A

A decrease in white blood cell count

It can increase the risk of infections.

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29
Q

What is Neutrophilia?

A

An increased number of neutrophils in the blood

It typically indicates an acute infection.

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30
Q

What are hematologic neoplasms?

A

Cancers that affect blood cells, including leukemia and lymphoma

These conditions disrupt normal hematopoiesis.

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31
Q

What is the Complete Blood Count (CBC)?

A

A blood test that measures various parameters of blood cells

It helps diagnose many conditions, including anemia and infections.

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32
Q

What does Hemostasis refer to?

A

The process of blood clotting and stopping bleeding

It is crucial for wound healing.

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33
Q

What is Thrombocytopenia?

A

A decrease in the number of platelets in the blood

It can lead to increased bleeding risk.

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34
Q

What causes Atherosclerosis?

A

Buildup of plaques in the arteries

Risk factors include high cholesterol, smoking, and hypertension.

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35
Q

What is the definition of Etiology?

A

The study of the cause or origin of a disease.

Etiology examines the factors that lead to the development of a disease.

36
Q

What does Histology refer to?

A

The study of the microscopic structure of tissues.

Histology is crucial for understanding the organization and function of different tissue types.

37
Q

What is a Biopsy?

A

A procedure to remove a sample of tissue for examination.

Biopsies are often performed to diagnose cancer or other diseases.

38
Q

Define Pathognomic Changes.

A

Changes in tissues that are characteristic of a particular disease.

Pathognomic changes help in identifying specific diseases based on observed symptoms.

39
Q

What is Atrophy?

A

The decrease in size or wasting away of a body part or tissue.

Atrophy can result from lack of use, disuse, or disease.

40
Q

Define Hypertrophy.

A

The increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to the enlargement of its cells.

Hypertrophy often occurs in muscles as a response to increased workload.

41
Q

What is Hyperplasia?

A

An increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ.

Hyperplasia can be a normal response to a stimulus or a pathological condition.

42
Q

Define Metaplasia.

A

The reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.

Metaplasia often occurs in response to chronic irritation or inflammation.

43
Q

What does Dysplasia mean?

A

The abnormal development or growth of cells, tissues, or organs.

Dysplasia can be a precursor to cancer.

44
Q

Define Neoplasia.

A

The process of new, uncontrolled growth of cells, which can be benign or malignant.

Neoplasia is commonly associated with cancer.

45
Q

What is Hypoxia?

A

A deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues.

Hypoxia can lead to tissue damage and is a critical factor in various diseases.

46
Q

Define Apoptosis.

A

The process of programmed cell death.

Apoptosis is a normal part of development and homeostasis.

47
Q

What does Necrosis refer to?

A

The death of cells or tissues through injury or disease.

Necrosis is often associated with inflammation and can lead to significant tissue damage.

48
Q

What is Infarction?

A

The obstruction of blood supply to an organ or tissue, causing cell death.

Infarction can lead to serious conditions like heart attacks or strokes.

49
Q

Define Gangrene.

A

The death of body tissue due to a lack of blood flow or a serious bacterial infection.

Gangrene often affects the extremities and can require surgical intervention.

50
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Chronic cough, lung infections, difficulty breathing, and digestive problems.

Cystic Fibrosis affects the lungs and digestive system primarily.

51
Q

What type of genetic disorder is Tay Sachs Disease?

A

Autosomal recessive genetic disorder.

Tay Sachs is characterized by the absence of an enzyme needed to break down fatty substances in the brain.

52
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Down Syndrome?

A

Characterized by distinct facial features, developmental delays, and varying degrees of intellectual disability.

Down Syndrome is caused by an extra chromosome 21.

53
Q

What is Acute inflammation?

A

A short-term inflammatory response to injury or infection.

Acute inflammation is characterized by redness, heat, swelling, and pain.

54
Q

Define Purulent exudate.

A

A thick fluid containing pus, indicating infection.

Purulent exudate is often seen in abscesses.

55
Q

What is an Abscess?

A

A localized collection of pus within a tissue.

Abscesses can be caused by bacterial infections.

56
Q

What does Transudate refer to?

A

A clear fluid that seeps out of blood vessels due to pressure changes.

Transudate is typically non-inflammatory.

57
Q

What is Effusion?

A

The escape of fluid into a body cavity.

Effusions can occur in joints, pleural spaces, or pericardial areas.

58
Q

Define Leukocytosis.

A

An increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood.

Leukocytosis often indicates an infection or inflammatory response.

59
Q

What is Chemotaxis?

A

The movement of cells toward a chemical stimulus.

Chemotaxis plays a crucial role in the immune response.

60
Q

What are Cytokines?

A

Signaling molecules that mediate and regulate immunity, inflammation, and hematopoiesis.

Cytokines are produced by various cells, including immune cells.

61
Q

What is Fibrinogen?

A

A plasma protein that is converted into fibrin during blood clotting.

Fibrinogen is crucial for wound healing and blood coagulation.

62
Q

What are White Blood Cells?

A

Cells of the immune system that defend the body against infections.

Different types of white blood cells include lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes.

63
Q

Define Pyrogens.

A

Substances that induce fever by acting on the hypothalamus.

Pyrogens are typically produced by bacteria or immune cells.

64
Q

What is Lymphadenopathy?

A

Swelling of lymph nodes due to infection, inflammation, or malignancy.

Lymphadenopathy can indicate an underlying health issue.

65
Q

What does Histamine do?

A

A chemical involved in local immune responses and regulation of physiological functions.

Histamine is released during allergic reactions and inflammatory responses.

66
Q

Define Chronic inflammation.

A

A prolonged inflammatory response that can last for months or years.

Chronic inflammation can lead to tissue damage and diseases such as cancer.

67
Q

What are the four phases of wound healing?

A

Hemostasis, Inflammation, Proliferation, and Maturation.

These phases are essential for proper wound repair.

68
Q

What is Hemostasis?

A

The process of stopping bleeding, involving blood vessel constriction and clot formation.

Hemostasis is the first phase of wound healing.

69
Q

Define Wound retraction.

A

The process by which the edges of a wound contract to reduce its size.

Wound retraction helps to close the wound as healing progresses.

70
Q

What is Primary intention in wound healing?

A

Wound healing that occurs when the edges of a wound are brought together.

Primary intention usually results in minimal scarring.

71
Q

Define Secondary intention.

A

Wound healing that occurs when the edges of a wound cannot be easily brought together.

Secondary intention often results in more scarring and takes longer to heal.

72
Q

What is Tertiary intention?

A

Wound healing that occurs when a wound is left open for a period before being closed.

Tertiary intention is often used in contaminated wounds.

73
Q

What does Eschar refer to?

A

A dry, dark scab or dead tissue that forms over a wound.

Eschar can impede healing and may require debridement.

74
Q

Define Debridement.

A

The removal of dead, damaged, or infected tissue from a wound.

Debridement is crucial for promoting healing.

75
Q

What is Wound dehiscence?

A

The reopening of a wound after it has been closed.

Wound dehiscence can occur due to infection or excessive tension on the wound.

76
Q

Define Wound evisceration.

A

The protrusion of internal organs through a wound.

Wound evisceration is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.

77
Q

What is a Keloid?

A

A raised scar that extends beyond the original wound site.

Keloids result from an overproduction of collagen during healing.

78
Q

Define Contractures.

A

The permanent shortening of muscles or tendons, leading to restricted movement.

Contractures can result from burns or prolonged immobility.

79
Q

What is Stricture?

A

An abnormal narrowing of a passage in the body.

Strictures can occur in various organs, including the esophagus and intestines.

80
Q

Define Fistula.

A

An abnormal connection between two organs or vessels.

Fistulas can result from injury, surgery, or infection.

81
Q

What is an Adhesion?

A

A band of scar tissue that forms between internal organs.

Adhesions can cause pain and may lead to complications in organ function.

82
Q

What type of pathogen causes Staphylococcal Infections?

A

Bacteria.

Staphylococcal infections can cause a range of illnesses, from minor skin infections to severe diseases.

83
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Pneumonia Infections?

A

Cough, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing.

Pneumonia can be caused by various pathogens, including bacteria and viruses.

84
Q

Define Bacterial Meningitis.

A

An infection of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.

Bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency and can be life-threatening.

85
Q

What is the type of pathogen for Herpes Simplex?

A

Virus.

Herpes Simplex can cause oral and genital infections.

86
Q

What is Malaria caused by?

A

Parasite.

Malaria is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes and can be life-threatening.