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Final exam for Pharm, exams 1-3 > 1,2,3 > Flashcards

1,2,3 Flashcards

1
Q

This drug used to treat triglycerides causes cutaneous flushing

a. thymine
b. niacin
c. riboflavin
d. gemifibrozil

A

b. niacin

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2
Q

The actions of the pans and sans are antagonistic to eachother

A

true

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3
Q

neurotransmitters are released in response to nerve action potentials.

A

true

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4
Q

curare blocks the action of ACH at the post ganglionic endings

A

false

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5
Q

anticholinergic agents do not prevent the release of ACH but competitively block the receptor site

A

true

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6
Q

nicotine when placed on the skin will lead to rash

A

false

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7
Q

the major neurotransmitters affecting the SANS are norepinephrine and epinephrine

A

true

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8
Q

adrenergic agents generally decreasee blood pressure

A

false

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9
Q

beta blocking drugs generic names in olol

A

true

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10
Q

amides are metabolized in the blood plasma

A

false

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11
Q

esters are metabolized in the liver

A

false

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12
Q

the rate of absorption of an anesthetic depends on the vascularity of the adjacent tissues

A

true

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13
Q

both amides and esters are excreted by the liver

A

false

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14
Q

children and the elderly are more susceptible to adverse reactions to local anesthethic use

A

true

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15
Q

a usual dose of local anesthetic given to nursing mothers will not harm the infant

A

true

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16
Q

the faster the rate of injection the greater chance the local anesthisa will occur

A

false

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17
Q

an increase in saliva is termed?

a. sialism
b. sialycism
c. sialoth
d. sianosis

A

b. sialism

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18
Q

this term is known as dry socket

A

alveolar osteititis

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19
Q

the most commonly used systemic steroid is

a. hydrocortisone
b. triamcinolone
c. prednisone
d. clobetasol

A

c.prednisone

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20
Q

which of the following drugs is used to decrease salivary flow?

a. atropine
b. pilocarpine
c. chlorine
d. fluorine

A

a.atropine

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21
Q

which of the following is not an ultra short acting barbituate

a. penthothal
b. brevital
c. surital
d. versed

A

d. versed

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22
Q

all of the following are cardiovascular diseases except

a. angina
b. CHF
c. hypotension
d. stroke

A

hypotension

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23
Q

the most commonly used drug for the treatment of CHF is

a. losartan
b. digoxin
c. cardura
d. lopid

A

b. digoxin

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24
Q

mydriasis

A

dialation of the pupil

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25
Q

lidocane

A

xylocaine

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26
Q

mepivacane

A

carbocaine

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27
Q

prilocaine

A

citanest

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28
Q

bupivicaine

A

marcaine

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29
Q

benzocaine

A

sunburn

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30
Q

chloral hydrate

A

pre op sedation of children

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31
Q

diazepam

A

status epilepticus

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32
Q

fioricet

A

migraines

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33
Q

miosis

A

constriction of the pupil

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34
Q

b adrenergic blockers

A

suffix olol

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35
Q

CCB’s

A

suffix dipine

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36
Q

ace inhibitors

A

suffix pril

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37
Q

HMG Coa reductase

A

statins

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38
Q

name 3 categories of flaggs anesthesia

A

induction
maintence
recovery

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39
Q

3 drugs that can cause gingival enlargement

A

CCB
Dilantin
Cyclosporine

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40
Q

name 4 properties of an ideal anesthetic

A

long shelf life
satisfactory duration
easy metablized
rapid onset

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41
Q

this is the dose of a drug required to produce a specific effect in 50 percent of the subjects taking it

a. LD50
b. ED50
c. half life

A

ed50

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42
Q

This is a function of the amount of drug required to produce an effect.

a. potency
b. effiacy
c. half life

A

a. potency

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43
Q

which of the following antagonists bind to receptor site that is different from the binding site for the agonist?

a. competitive antagonist
b. non comp antagonist
c. physiologic antagonist

A

non comp ant.

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44
Q

which of the following is not an advantage of a parenteral route of administration

a. cheap
b. fast
c. rapid on set
d. predictable response

A

cheap

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45
Q

which layer of a transdermal patch is the closest to the skin

a. impenetrable membrane
b. drug reservoir
c. adhesive
d. membrane

A

adhesive

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46
Q 
which route is the most rapid absorption of a drug into the systemic circulation
a. IH
b. SQ
C. topical
d. SL
A

Sublingual

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47
Q

which type of drug easily penetrates the blood brain barrier

a. a low lipid soluble ionized drug
b. highly lip soluble non ionized drug
c. a drug with a short half life
d. a drug with a long half life

A

b. highly lipid soluble non ionized drug

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48
Q

name three types of adrenergic receptors in the SANS

A

a, b1, b2

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49
Q

name 3 advantages of the use of nitrous oxide

A

rapid onset
patient acceptance (children)
easy to use

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50
Q

name 3 uses for vasoconstrictor in a local anesthetic

A

bleeding
system toxicity
increase bp

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51
Q

name 3 benzodiazpeines that are classified as minor tranquilizers

A

diazepam
midazolam
triazolam

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52
Q

HCTZ

A

diruetic and anti hypertensive

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53
Q

dilantin

A

anticonvulsant

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54
Q

calan

A

CCB

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55
Q

vasotec

A

anti hypertinsive

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56
Q

procardia

A

CCB

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57
Q

zestril

A

antihypertensive

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58
Q

lipitor

A

anti hyerlipidemic

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59
Q

cardizem

A

CCB

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60
Q

niacin

A

anti herlipedemic

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61
Q

lasix

A

diuretic

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62
Q

synase of preganglionic nerves in the pans have this as the neurotransmitter

a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. acetycholine

A

acetycholine

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63
Q

between the postganglionic nerves and the effector tissues of the pans is a location termed

a. nicotinc cholingeric
b. muscarinic cholingeric

A

muscarnic

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64
Q

the drug group mimics the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system

a. cholingeric
b. antichloingergic
c. adrengeric
d. adregeric blocking agents

A

cholingeric

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65
Q 
this drug group blocks the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
a. cholinergic
b anticholinergic
c. adrenergic
d. adrenergic blocking agents
A

adrenergic blocking agents

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66
Q

this component of local anesthtic is used to prolong its shelf life

a. vasoconstrictor
b. sodium hydroxide
c. antioxidant
d. methy paraben

A

antioxidant

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67
Q

this anesthetic provides 60-90 minutes of pupil anesthesia and 3-5 hours of soft tissue anesthesia

a. benzocaine
b. bupivicane
c. ponticaine
d. lidocaine

A

lidocaine

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68
Q

the most common antiviral used to treat herpes simplex is

a. peniclovir
b. acyclovir
c. ritonavir
d. saquinavir

A

acyclovir

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69
Q

the most common drug used to treat aids is

a. azt
b. zdv
c. arc
d. inh

A

azt

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70
Q

this is the most common agent used to treat hep c and MS

a. chloramphenicol
b. isoniazid
c. amantadine
d. interferron

A

d. interferron

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71
Q

this term means that two ABCS have been combined to produce more effect than if there individual effects were added together

a. suprainfection
b. antagonism
c. syngerism
d. spectrum

A

syngergism

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72
Q

the means by which the body is made urgently aware of the presence of tissue damage

A

pain

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73
Q

is an inert substance made to look like a study medicine that has no pharmacologic effects upon the body only psychological

A

placebo

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74
Q

what is another name for acetyisalicylic acid

A

aspirin

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75
Q

this is an inheritied disease in men that affects the big toe or knee and can be treated with colchicine

A

gout

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76
Q

this medicine is used to manage dental pain in patient whom nsaids are contraindicted

A

opoid

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77
Q

people going from md to dmd looking for pain medicine are

A

shoppers

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78
Q

the microorganism that primarily causes caries is

a. steptococcus pyogenes
b. streptococcus viridans
c. streptococcus mutans
d. steptococcus aureus

A

streptococcus mutans

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79
Q

this term describes a substance that destroys or supresses the growth or multiplication of bacteria

a. antibacterial
b. antimicrobial
c. bactericidal
d. anti infective

A

a. antibacterial

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80
Q

this term means to have the ability to kill bacteria and is irrerverisble

a. bacteriostatic
b. antibacterial
c. bactericidal
d. antibiotic

A

bacteriacidal

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81
Q

which of the following allergic reactions is most common to penicillin

a. anaphylactic shock
b. rash
c. delayed serum thickness
d. pruritis

A

rash

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82
Q

which antibiotic is used for the treatment of gonoccal infections

a. pen vk
b. amoxicillin
c. erythromycin
d. ampicilin

A

ampicillin

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83
Q

what antibiotic is created with amoxicillin and clavulanic acid are mixed

a. flagyl
b. augmentin
c. biaxin
d. keflex

A

augmentin

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84
Q

non opoids include all of the following except

a. salicylates
b. nsaids
c. codeine
d. acetaminophen

A

codeine

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85
Q

this term means to reduce fever

a. synergism
b. salicylism
c. pruritis
d. antipyretic

A

antipyretic

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86
Q

what is the LD50 of aspirin for children

a. 10-30
b. 4
c. 12
d. 325

in grams

A

4 gms

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87
Q

which drug is contraindicted with aspirin because it causes excess bleeding

a. zomax
b. probencid
c. warfarin
d. methotrexate

A

warfarin

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88
Q

which drug is the most useful drug for treatment of dental pain

a. acetominphen
b. aspirin
c. codeine
d. nsaid

A

nsaid

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89
Q

which of the following drugs require the least amount of dosing for pain
(amount of time between doses)
a. ibuprofen (advil)
b.naproxen/naproxen sodium (naprosyn/anaprox)
c. codiene with tyenol #3
d. bromfenac (duracet)

A

Naproxen

90
Q

with stereoisomerism a polarizing light turns the mixture right and left. this is called _______ when turned to the right and ______ when turned to the left

A

dexorotomery

leverotomery

91
Q

bid means

A

twice a day

92
Q

prn means

A

as needed

93
Q

po means

A

by mouth

94
Q

tid means

A

3 times per day

95
Q

q means

A

every

96
Q

quid means

A

4 times per day

97
Q

disp means

A

dispense

98
Q

h means

A

hours

99
Q

valium is a

A

schedule four drug

100
Q

tyenol # 3 is a

A

schedule three drug

101
Q

heroin is a

A

schedule one drug

102
Q

morphine is a

A

schedule two drug

103
Q

inscription is the

A

name of the drug, dose form, amount

104
Q

subscription is the

A

directions to the pharmacist

105
Q

transcription is

A

directions to the patient

106
Q

on childrens dosing, weight (lb) times adult dose / 150 is which formula

a. frieds rule
b. youngs rule
c. clarks rule
d. cowlings rule

A

clarks rule

107
Q

this type of hypersensitivity reaction is considered a delayed type and is mediated by t lympocytes

A

type 4

108
Q 
most drugs are excreted from the body via
a. glomerular filtration
b. active tubular secretion
c passive tubular secretion
d billary excretion
A

billary excretion

109
Q 
which of the following is not associated with phase one metabolism
a. oxidation
b. reduction
c hydrolysis
d. depolarization
A

depolarization

110
Q 
which chemical bond is the most effective force in attracting a drug molecule to a receptor
a. covalent bond
b. van del waals forces
c. ionic bonds
d hydrogen bonds
A

ionic bonds

111
Q

this second messenger is involved in conduction of smell and sight

a. cGMP
b. cAMPP
c. fast 5 ion channel
d. slow 7g protein

A

cAMP

112
Q

this is the study of drugs

a. hyptology
b. toxicology
c. pharmacokinetics
d. pharmacology

A

pharmacology

113
Q

the maximum safe does of epinephrine for a cardiac patient is

a. 2 mg
b. .2 mg
c. 4 mg
d. .04

A

.04

114
Q

the maximum safe dose of epinephrine for a healthy patient is

a. .2 mg
b. 2mg
c. .04 m
d. 4 mg

A

.2

115
Q

a patient presents to the office to have her third molars removed. it took 8 carpules of 2 percent lidocaine with 1:100,000 epi to anestheize her. How much of each did she recieve?

a. 72 mg lido with .036 mg epi
b. 288 mg lido with .144 mg epi
c. 360 mg lido with .180 epi
d. 216 mg lido w/ .108 mg epi

A

b. 288

116
Q

sedative hypnotics are also known as

a. antianxiety agents
b. anticonvulsant agents
c. anesthetic agents
d. antiarryhymatic agents

A

antianxiety agents

117
Q

the term is used to describe the twitching of the eye

a. miosis
b. nystagumus
c. mydrasis
d. niosis

A

nystagumus

118
Q

this is the strongest centrally acting muscle relaxant

a. methocarbamon (robaxin)
b. carisprodol (soma)
c. cyclobenzapine (flexeril)
d. busiprone (BuSpar)

A

cyclobenzapine (flexeril)

119
Q 
in which guedel's stage or plane of anesthesia causes a  patient to lose control of their bodily functions 
a. stage 1
b stage 2
c stage 3
d. stage 4
A

stage 2

120
Q

all of the following are used to treat gout except

a. codiene
b. colchicine
c. allopurinol
d. probencid

A

codiene

121
Q

all of the following are opoid receptors except

a. mu
b. kappa
c. beta
d. delta

A

beta

122
Q

which of the following opoids is the strongest?

a. hyrocodone
b. morphine
c. oxycodone
d. codiene

A

morphine

123
Q

what is another term for pin point pupils which indicates and addict?

a. myositis
b. myosis
c. mydraisis
d. photosis

A

myosis

124
Q

which opioid is recommened for the majority of dental patients?

a. meperdine (demerol)
b. codeiene with APAP (tylenol #3)
c. oxycodone with APAP (perocect)
d. hydrocodone with APAP (vicodin)

A

hydrocodone with apap vicodin

125
Q

which of the following is the drug of choice for abuse by medical personnal?

a. methadone (dolophine)
b. meperdine (demerol)
c. hydromorphone (dilaudid)
d. propoxyphene (darvocet)

A

meperdine (demerol)

126
Q

which drug is the drug of choice for treating opiod overdose

a. naloxone (narcan)
b. tramadol (ultram)
c. naproxene (naprosyn)
d. pentazocine (talwin)

A

naloxone (narcan)

127
Q

substances that act against or destroy infection are known as

A

antiinfective

128
Q

is the natural or acquired ability of an organism to be immune to or to resist the effects of an antiinfective agent

A

resistance

129
Q

is the range of activity of drug

A

broad spectrum

130
Q

is the agent of choice for the prophylaxis of infective endocarditis

A

amoxicillian

131
Q

a combo of metronidazole (flagyl) and amoxicillian is known as

A

ppi

132
Q

the combo of INH, rifamipin , and pyrazinamideis used to treat

A

tb

133
Q

aspirin is more effective against stabbing pain than trobbing pain

A

false

134
Q

asthmatic are more like to have hypersensitivy reaction to ASA

A

true

135
Q

ibuprofien is the drug of choice for treating a nursing woman

A

true

136
Q

nsaids can be shown to be statisticaly better than codiene alone or aspirin or acetaminophen

A

true

137
Q

opoids are referred to as non narcotics

A

false

138
Q

it is safe to use opiods in patients who have head injurries

A

false

139
Q

morphine is the prototype opoid that all others are measured against

A

true

140
Q

abc prophylaxis is required for a history of functional heart murmer

A

false

141
Q 
this antibotic is commonly used for the treatment of acne, travelers diarahea and anug
a. clindmycin
b. amoxicillin
c tetra
d. penicillin
A

tetra

142
Q

keflex is a _______ cephalosporin

a. first generation
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

A

first

143
Q

stage 3 dental infection is predominately

a. aerobic
b. anerobic
c. mixed aerobic/anerobic

A

anerobic

144
Q

which group of antimicrobials is toxic to cranial nerve 8 leading to a loss of equillibrium

a. sulfonamides
b. quinolones
c. aminoglycosides
d. interferons

A

aminoglycosides

145
Q

which of the following is a sulfa drug

a. pen vk
b. amoxicillin
c. bactrim
d. neosporin

A

bactrim

146
Q

neosporins consists of

a. isonizaid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide
b. neomycin polymixin and bactracin
c. amoxxicilan and metorndiazole
d. indianvir, amphotercin b and neomycin

A

neomycin polymixin and bactracin

147
Q

the following antifungal is used in shampoo to treat dandruff

a. fuconazole (difucan)
b. ketocanzole (nizoral)
c. itraconazole (sporaox)
d. clotrimazole (myceiex)

A

ketoconazole (nizoral)

148
Q

the maximum intensity of effect or responce produced from a drug

a. efficacy
b. potency
c. lethal dose
d. duration

A

efficacy

149
Q

all of the following can write a rx for a controlled substance except

a. md
b. dmd
c. dvm
d. fnp
e. all the above

A

fnp

150
Q

which category of adverse drug reactions is the extension of the pharmacologic effecs results from a drug effect on the target organ

a. drug allergy
b. side effect
c. idosynatric reaction
d. toxic reaction

A

toxic

151
Q

which of the following factors influence the moement of a drug is the bodies way of changing a drug so that it can be better used and removed by the kidneys

a. absorption
b. distribution
c. metabolism
d. excretion

A

metabolism

152
Q

the assymetric carbon in a racemic mixtureis called a

A

chiral center

153
Q 
which of the following is not one of the most important neurotranmitters
a. endotoxin
b. histamine
c non epin/epin
d. camp
A

camp

154
Q

on a dose effected curve a drug that is more potent will be

A

closer to y axis

155
Q

name three groups of endogenous substances that have opioid like action

A

enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins

156
Q

name two conditions that most definitely requires ABC pre med

A

ventricular hydra stunts

renal stunts

157
Q

name three things caused by tinea infections

A

tinea capitus
tinea corporus
tinea pedis

158
Q

name 2 contraindictions for the use of opoids

A

risk of addiction and lack of efficancy

159
Q

aspirin

A

reyes syndrome

160
Q

cipro

A

sunburn

161
Q

perococet

A

oxycodone and aceaminophen

162
Q

vicoden

A

hydrocodone and apap

163
Q

fioricet

A

codiene and apap and caffiene and butilbiliti

164
Q

chloramephenicol

A

bacteriostatic

165
Q

penicillin

A

bactericidal

166
Q

sporanox

A

toenail fungus

167
Q

tyenol number 3

A

codeine and apap

168
Q

fentanyl

A

used for iv sedation

169
Q

what causes thrombophetitis?

a. ketalar
b. proplene glycol
c. methyl paraben
d. thiamyl sodium

A

propylene glycol

170
Q

which general anesthetic is chemically related to pcp

a. valium
b. ketamine
c. brevital
d. morphine

A

ketamine

171
Q

which of the following halogeneated hydrocarbon is safe for asthmatics?

a. enflurane
b. halothane
c. isoflurane
d. desflurane

A

halothane

172
Q

upon complete of n20-02 use failure to use all recovery period could produce

a. malignant hyperthemia
b. neuropathy
c. diffusion hyposis
d. dissociative anesthia

A

diffusion hyposis

173
Q

the following are components of halogenated hydro carbon except

a. flurine
b. bromine
c. chlorine
d. salame

A

salame

174
Q

in which guedls stage of anestheisa can nitrous oxide maintain?

a. stage 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

stage 1

175
Q 
in which guedels stage of anesthia can regulatory paralysis occur
a stage one
b 2
c 3 
d 4
A

4

176
Q

benzodapines are classified as minor tranquilizers

A

true

177
Q

chronic long term use of barbituates can lead to dependence

A

true

178
Q

volatile liquid inhalation anesthethics evaporate easily at room temp

A

true

179
Q

nitrous oxide tanks are greenand oxygen blue

A

false

180
Q

the max amount of n20a patient recieveswith the fail safe system is 70 percent

A

true

181
Q

n20 is safely used on all resp patients including copd and asthma patients

A

false

182
Q

the 2 most common used benzodapines used with conscious sedation are valium and versed

A

true

183
Q

piolcarpin is used to increase saliva flow

A

true

184
Q

rophryl is the date rape drug

A

true

185
Q

benzodapines are safe to given to nursing mothers

A

false

186
Q

cardivascular disease is the leading causing of death in us

A

true

187
Q

when the left side of the heart fails you get pulmonary edema

A

true

188
Q

when the right side of the heart fails you get peripheal edema

A

true

189
Q

nitroglycmia is a vengus dilator

A

true

190
Q

nitroglycerin is degraded by heat moisture and light

A

false

191
Q

hypertension is known as a silent killer

A

true

192
Q

loop diruetics act on the descending limbs of the loop of henle

A

false

193
Q

this condition occurs when the coronal arteries do not carry a sufficent amout of 02 to the myocardium for its current work

A

angina

194
Q

the most frequent drug used for actue angina

A

nitroglycerin

195
Q

hypertension is defined as bp greater than

A

140/90

196
Q

the most commonly used thiazide for treatment of hypertensions is

a. hctz
b. laxis
c. diazide
d. zetril

A

hctz

197
Q

this means to have a loss of potassium in the body

A

hypokalecima

198
Q

this CCB is used to treat trigeminal neuralgia

a. lasix
b. tegretol
c. diazide
d. hctz

A

tegreto

199
Q

this means altered sense of taste

a. dygeuia
b. tic dolouroux
c. glossitis
d. tasbunditis

A

dygeuia

200
Q

a chologineric receptor found in skeletal muscle is an example of

A

ligand ion channel receptors

201
Q

if drug a has a half life of 2 hours how long i it before its out of the system

A

8-10 hours

202
Q

a therapuetically useful drug is one with 11 of

A

10.0

203
Q

name four stages of absorption of an orally administered drug

A

disruption
disintegration
dispersion
dissoloution

204
Q

pregnancy categories

A

ABCD X
a list risky
x most risky

205
Q

name 3 of 4 drug contraindicted in pregnancy

A

tetra
nsaids
birth control
benzoapines

206
Q

one tablespoon is equal to

A

15mg

207
Q

this agency regulate the manufacture and distrubtion of substances

A

DEA

208
Q

this is the production of a compound by the combo of two like molecules

A

demerilization

209
Q

have a effect on fetus

A

tetraogenic

210
Q

which scheduled drug can be purchased over the counter

A

5

211
Q

caution federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription

A

dirhum humprey law

212
Q

a schedule one drug can be purchase otc

A

false

213
Q

schedule four drugs can be refilled up to five times in 6 months

A

true

214
Q

the lupic used for measurement of weight is the miligrams

A

false

215
Q

the therapeutic indiex is figured by dividing the ed50 by the id50

A

false

216
Q

most drugs are eliminated via feces

A

false

217
Q

iv route is the most rapid drug reponce

A

true

218
Q

this type of drug placement occurs when the drug is placed directly into the oral or rectal routes

A

enteral

219
Q

drugs placed by im route must be placed in the

A

glutes or deltoid

220
Q

administration of topical steroids over a large portion can result into

A

cushings

221
Q

dosage of aspirin

A

adult is 650mg
arthritis is 3-6
myocardial infection-less than 300 mg a day

222
Q

dosage for actemipnophen for

A

adult 400 mg per 6 hours

max dose in 24 hours 4 grams

Final exam for Pharm, exams 1-3 (1 decks)

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