1&2 Flashcards

Intro, insurance models and health plans.

1
Q

According to CoP medical records services, how long must medical records be retained in their original or legally reproduced form?

A

At least 5 years.

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2
Q

According to Medicare/Medicaid provisions, how long does a provider have to return an over payment?

A

60 days from the date the overpayment was identified or the date any corresponding cost report is due.

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3
Q

According to TILA, what makes an entity a creditor and subject to the rules of the act?

A

If they extend credit payable in more than four installments or for which a finance charge is or may be required.

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4
Q

Covered entities must provide a privacy practice notice. What steps must they take in regards to this?

A

They must supply the notice on request, make the notice available electronically (websites) and make a good faith effort to obtain written acknowledgement that the notice has been received.

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5
Q

HIPPA allows release of protected information without valid authorization in what three instances?

A
  1. Treatment of the patient. 2. Payment of claims 3. Clinical operations
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6
Q

How does CMS differentiate fraud and abuse?

A

Fraud is making false statements or misrepresenting facts. Abuse is any action that results in unnecessary costs to a federal healthcare program directly or indirectly.

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7
Q

How long should records be retained for a managed care program?

A

10 years

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8
Q

How much are violator’s of the false claims act fined?

A

$5,500 to $11,000 before inflation. As of 2023, $13,508 to $27,018 per claim.

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9
Q

How much may a realtor be awarded of a qui tam prosecution?

A

15 - 25 percent of the dollar amount received through the action increased to 15 - 30 percent if the government declines to intervene.

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10
Q

How often are MIPS payments adjusted based on performance?

A

Approximately 2 years

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11
Q

How often should the health information disclosure authorization be updated?

A

At least once a year.

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12
Q

If medical records for a patient are requested by an insurance company or other covered entity, what should be provided according to minimum necessary standard?

A

Only the information pertinent to the date and service listed in the request.

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13
Q

Individuals have the right to obtain and review copies of their PHI. What areas are excluded from this right of access?

A

Psychotherapy notes, legal proceedings and certain lab results or information held by research laboratories.

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14
Q

The Federal False Claims act allows for claims to be brought up how long after the incident?

A

7 years

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15
Q

The HIPPA security rule protects patient data that is stored or transmitted electronically. How long must these be protected?

A

6 years date of creation or date when last in effect, whichever comes first.

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16
Q

The privacy rule allows business associates to disclose PHI when they have a written contract. If this contract is breached, what is to be done?

A

Reasonable steps must be taken to cure the breach or end the violation. If not possible, the contract must be terminated and the problem reported to the HHS OCR (Office for Civil Rights)

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17
Q

Under Qui Tam, what is an individual whistleblowing on FCA violations referred to as?

A

A realtor

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18
Q

Under the Privacy Rule what are considered Covered Entities?

A

-Health plans -Healthcare clearinghouses -Any healthcare provider who transmits healthcare information in an electronic format.

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19
Q

Under TILA, what 10 information points must be disclosed to the patient for payments installments past four?

A
  1. Cash price of the service 2. he amount of any downpayment. 3. The resulting unpaid balance. 4. The total amount financed. 5. The amount of the finance charge. 6. The annual percentage rate of the finance charge. 7. The total price to be paid under the credit plan. 8. The schedule of payments including number, amount and due date of payments. 9. The sum of scheduled payments or total of payments 10. The amount or method of computing the amount of any late payment charges.
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20
Q

What 5 key provisions did the ACA instate for insurance coverage?

A
  1. No discrimination or denial of coverage for preexisting conditions. 2. Children under 26 can be included on parents insurance. 3. Lifetime limits on benefits are banned. 4. Appeal rights for denied coverage. 5. Expanded preventative health services.
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21
Q

What are exceptions to the business associate standard which do not require a written agreement to disclose PHI?

A

-Disclosures by a covered entity to a healthcare provider for treatment of an individual (scheduling surgery, sending lab specimens, transferring to a nursing home) -Disclosures to a health plan sponsor, such as an employer, by a group health plan that provides the health insurance benefits or coverage for the group health plan. -The collection and sharing of PHI by a health plan that is a public benefits plan like Medicare.

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22
Q

What are the 12 national priority purposes where PHI can be disclosed without an individuals authorization?

A
  1. Required by law (by statute, regulation or court order). 2. Public health activities (like the FDA) 3. Victims of abuse or domestic violence 4. Health oversight activities (audits and investigations for Medicare/Medicaid included in this) 5. Judicial and administrative proceedings (court order or administrative tribunal, subpoena is allowed if individual is given notice or protective order is provided). 6. Law enforcement purposes (required by law like court order, to identify a suspect or fugitive or material witness or missing person, for a victim, about a death, evidence of a crime on covered entities premises, medical emergency) 7. Decendents (medical examiners, coroners, funeral directors) 8. Cadaveric organ, eye or tissue donation 9. Research (if information is de-identified) 10. Serious threat to health or safety (personal or public) 11. Essential government functions (protecting inmates and correctional officers or the military) 12. Workers compensation
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23
Q

What are the 3 regions of TRICARE?

A

East, West and overseas

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24
Q

What are the 4 MIPS performance categories that delineate collection types?

A
  1. Quality: maximum 10 points 2. Promoting interoperability: maximum 100 points 3. Improvement Activities: maximum 40 points 4. Cost: maximum 100 points
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25
Q

What are the 4 parts of Medicare?

A

Part A: Hospital insurance Part B: Insurance for non hospital (physicians, medical supplies, etc.) Part C: Medicare Advantage plans which are private plans rub through Medicare that cover A and B. Part D: Prescription drug coverage

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26
Q

What are the 4 types of IDS?

A
  1. Physician-Hospital organization (PHO): Owned by hospitals and physician groups that work together. 2. Management Service organization (MSO): A business that provides nonclinical service to providers such as staffing, billing, IT, office space, ETC. 3. Group Practice Without Walls (GPWW): A medical practice formed to share economic risk while maintaining separate offices and finances. 4. Integrated Provider organization: A corporate umbrella for the management of diversified healthcare delivery system.
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27
Q

What are the 5 types of HMO?

A
  1. Group Model: HMO contracts with multi-specialty groups but does not pay the physicians directly. 2. Staff Model: HMO owns and runs the facilities and pays the physicians directly. 3. Network Model: HMO contracts with multiple multi-specialty groups, individual practices, etc. to form a provider network. 4. Individual/Independent Practice Association (IPA): HMO contracts with independent physicians who receive a fixed amount per patient (also called open-panel HMO). PCPs can refer out of network but coverage may be less. 5. Mixed Model: HMO combining features of individual practice association and group model. Most choices and largest coverage area.
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28
Q

What are the 6 TRICARE health plans?

A
  1. Tricare Prime 2. Tricare Select 3. Tricare for Life 4. Tricare reserve select 5. Tricare retired reserve 6. Tricare young adult
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29
Q

What are the 8 administrative requirements of the privacy rule?

A
  1. All covered entities must have written policies that comply with the privacy rule. 2. A privacy official must be designated to be responsible for developing and implementing privacy policies and be the contact point. 3. All members of the covered entities workforce must be trained on privacy policy. 4. Covered entities are required to mitigate any harmful effect that may have been caused by inappropriate use or disclosure of PHI 5. Procedures must be in place to allow an individual to complain about compliance with privacy policy. 6. Covered entities may not retaliate against a person for exercising their rights provided by the privacy rule or require an individual to waive any right to obtain healthcare services. 7. Privacy policies must be maintained for six years after last date of creation or last effective date. 8. Fully insured health group plans have only 2 obligations: refrain from retaliatory acts and waiver of individual rights, and to provide documentation for the disclosure of PHI through documentation.
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30
Q

What are the 8 transactions for EDI?

A
  1. Claims and encounter information 2. Healthcare payment and remittance advice 3. Healthcare claims status 4. Eligibility for a health plan 5. Enrollment and disenrollment in a health plan 6. Referrals and authorizations 7. Coordination of benefits 8. Health plan premium payments
31
Q

What defines health information?

A

Any information oral or recorded in any form that: 1. is created or received by a healthcare provider, health plan, public health authority, employer, life insurer, school or university, or healthcare clearing house and 2. relates to the past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition of an individual, the provision of healthcare to an individual, or the past, present or future payment of healthcare to an individual.

32
Q

What defines individually identifiable health information?

A

Any informtion including demographic information collected from an individual that: 1. is created or received by a healthcare provider, health plan, employer or healthcare clearinghouse and 2. relates to the past, present or future physical or mental health of an individual, the provision of healthcare to an individual or the past, present or future payment for the provision of healthcare to an individual and A. identifies the individual or B. with respect to which there is a reasonable basis to believe that the information can be used to identify the individual.

33
Q

What doe TILA stand for?

A

Truth in Lending Act

34
Q

What does “PAR” and “non-PAR” stand for?

A

Participating and non-participating respectively. Refers to providers willingness to participate with a particular health plan and how it is billed.

35
Q

What does CDT stand for?

A

Current dental terminology

36
Q

What does CMS stand for?

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid services

37
Q

What does CoP stand for?

A

Conditions of participation

38
Q

What does CPT stand for?

A

Current procedure terminology

39
Q

What does EDI stand for?

A

Electronic data interchange

40
Q

What does EMR stand for?

A

Electronic medical record.

41
Q

What does EPO stand for and what is it?

A

Exclusive provider organization. A healthcare service organization that pays nothing for non-emergency services that are out of network.

42
Q

What does FCA stand for?

A

False claims act

43
Q

What does HCFAC stand for?

A

Healthcare Fraud and Abuse Control Program

44
Q

What does HCPCS stand for?

A

Healthcare common procedure coding system

45
Q

What does HIPPA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

46
Q

What does HITECH stand for?

A

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health

47
Q

What does ICD 10-CM stand for?

A

International classification of diseases 10th revision clinical modification

48
Q

What does IDS stand for and what is it?

A

Integrated delivery systems. A network of affiliated facilities and providers that work together to offer services to members. There are 4 types.

49
Q

What does MCO stand for and what is it?

A

Managed care organization. An organization that combines the functions of insurance, delivery of care and administration. An umbrella term for coordinated health services such as HMOs, EPO’s, IDS’s, PPO’s, and triple option plans.

50
Q

What does MIPS stand for?

A

Merit-based Incentive Payment System

51
Q

What does MPFS stand for? What does MPFS stand for?

A

Medicare physicians fee schedule

52
Q

What does NDC stand for and what does it do?

A

National drug codes. It identifies vendor, product and package size of all drugs and biologicals recognized by the FDA.

53
Q

What does PCP stand for?

A

Primary care provider

54
Q

What does PHI stand for?

A

Protected health information

55
Q

What does PPO stand for?

A

Preferred provider organization

56
Q

What is a limited data set?

A

PHI from which certain specified direct identifiers have been removed.

57
Q

What is a self-funded ERISA group health plan?

A

A group that contracts with insurance or a third party to run the paperwork and then pays claims out of pocket rather than a fixed premium.

58
Q

What is a triple option plan?

A

An insurance plan that lets the member choose between HMO, PPO or indemnity plans.

59
Q

What is an association group health plan?

A

A group plan offered by someone other than an employer such as a credit card company offering insurance to its card holders.

60
Q

What is an exception to the Stark Law?

A

If a physician is a member of a group practice and is referring a patient for imaging so long as they provide a list of alternatives.

61
Q

What is an NPI?

A

National provider identifier, a 10 digit ID number required by HIPPA

62
Q

What is another term for deidentified health information?

A

Redacted

63
Q

What is Stark Law?

A

A law that does not allow physicians self referral when sending patients elsewhere for services. Specifically, they cannot refer to an entity in which they or a member of their immediate family has ownership or investment in or has a compensation arrangement with.

64
Q

What is the Anti-kickback law?

A

Making it a criminal offense to knowingly or willingly offer, pay, solicit or receive any renumeration to induce or reward referrals of items or services reimbursable by a federal healthcare program.

65
Q

What is the difference between a fully insured employer group and small employer group?

A

Fully insured is paid in total by the company direct to the insurance company, small group gathers several small businesses in an industry and bases their rates on those trends.

66
Q

What is the difference between an individual and a group health plan?

A

An individual plan is purchased independently and a group plan is offered through an employer.

67
Q

What is the difference between and HMO, a PPO and Indemnity insurance?

A

An HMO is the most restrictive but cheapest requiring patients to get prior approval from their stated primary care provider, PPO is the middle option that does not require gatekeeping or a PCP, Indemnity is the least restrictive letting the patient go anywhere but is the most expensive as they pay a set % of all bills.

68
Q

What is the difference between Medicare, Medicade and TRICARE?

A

Medicare is for the old, Medicade is for the poor and TRICARE is for the military.

69
Q

What is the difference between non-participating providers and providers who opt-out of Medicare?

A

Providers who opt-out cannot involve Medicare at all and must have a payment agreement with their patients directly but have no charge limit while non-participating providers can still interact with Medicare but have a charge limit.

69
Q

What is the Medicare limiting charge for non-participating providers?

A

115% of the physician fee schedule amount. (Some states vary slightly)

70
Q

What is the most severe penalty for violation of the Social Security act (Stark law, anti-kickback law, etc.)?

A

Exclusion from billing, referring, prescribing medications or ordering services for any beneficiary of a federally administered health plan.

71
Q

When can PHI be disclosed without individual authorization? (4 situations)

A
  1. Release of records to the individual who is the subject of the information. Provider may charge for printing and shipping. 2. By a covered entity for treatment, payment, and healthcare operation activities. 3. When the individual grants informal permission by being asked outright when they cannot provide a physical signature. 4. Incidental use and disclosure if the covered entity has reasonable safeguards in place to ensure the information is limited to the minimum necessary as required by the privacy rule.
72
Q

Who qualifies for Medicare part A?

A

People 65 and older and people certain disabilities and conditions like permanent kidney failure and Lou Gehrig’s disease.