Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NSCA CPT > 1 > Flashcards

1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

Anaerobic or Lactate threshold

A

the instant when the body must switch from forming energy through the aerobic system and must begin to use the anaerobic pathways to create energy. Increases as person becomes more fit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximal oxygen uptake

A

VO2 max - the most oxygen a person uses when he or she is exercising as hard as possible. Measures the ability of the obdy to make ATP through the aerobic system. As a perosn becomes more fit, he or she will be able to take in and use more oxygen and thus make mor ATP aerobically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

EPOC

A

excess post - excersie oxygen consumption is how much oxygen is breathed in jsut after strenusous activity is finished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

One Met

A

3.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute. 1 met is the rate at which the average person uses oxygen when not exerting himself per pound of bodyweight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hepatic portal system

A

blood draining the slimentary tract (intestines), pancreas, spleen, and gall bladder does not return directly to the systemic cirulation, but is relatyed by the heaptic portal system of veins to and through the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lining of the heart

A

Endocardium (lining coat) Myocardium (middle coat) Epicardium (external coat of visceral layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Average blood volume

A

5 or 6 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Growth hormone

A

Induces precuror cells to differentiate and secrete insulin-like growht factor 1 which stimulates cell division, stimulates protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Insulin

A

stimulates fetal growth, stimulates protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cortisol

A

inhibits growth, stimulates protein catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HDLs

A

High density lipoproteins considered good cholesterol, these lipoproteins help to clean the walls of the blood vessels and thus prevent atherosclerosis. Optimal level is more than 160 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

LDLs

A

low density lipoprotiens, bad cholesterol. deposits form on the walls of the blood vessels and thus increase the risk of atherosclerosis. Optimal level is less than 100 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NSCA water intake

A
  1. drink 1 half-liter of water two hours before each workout (500 ml or 17 fl oz)
  2. drink plenty of room temperature water during the workout
  3. someone doing endurance activites that last more than an hour should drink fluids that have added carbohydrates and electrolytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Carbohydrate loading

A

For 3 days before an athletic event, eat a diet composed of 60-70% carbohydrates. After a workout, eat 50 gram sof low fat carbs with a high GI number immediately after fininshined. Then eat another 50 grams of similar GI level food 2 hours later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fats can only be used for energy when?

A

in the presence of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Thermic effect of food

A

approximately 10% of the food’s calorie count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal production of water in a human

A

2500-2700 ml per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the average adult is composed of how much percent water?

A

55-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many liters of water per day?

A

2-3 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Amino acids?

A

At least 9 amino acids must be found in your diet and cannot be made by your body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Complete protein

A

Contains all 8 amino acids; meat cheese and poultrt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

incomplete protein

A

plants, nuts, grains, and legumes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

enzymes involved in protein digestion

A

chymotrypsin, tryspins, carboxypeptidase, and pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

NSCA protein intake

A

15% of calories to be protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

byproducts of protein breakdown?

A

uric acid, nitrogen, and hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Water Soluble Vitamins

A

Vitamin c - helps w/ uptake of iron and cell membrane
Vitamin b1 - thiamine helps with muscle recovery and nerve function
vitamin b2 - riboflavin
vitamin b6, b12, folic acid, and niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Fat soluble vitamins

A

vitamin a d e k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Transtheoretical model of change

A

Stage 1 - precontemplation stage, person is not interested at all in exercise
stage 2 - contemplation stage, person is a little interested in exercise
stage 3 - preparation phase, person is preparing to give exercise a try
stage 4 - action phase person is trying exercise, this is the vulnerable stage, for the first 6 months
stage 5 - maintenance stage - person has made the activity a habit and continues it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

SMART goals

A 
Goals that are
Specific
Measurable
action - oriented
realistic and relevant
timed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Anabolic steroids

A

chemicals in a lab that resemble testosterone, they can make muscles bigger and stronger but can lead to increased anger, larger breasts in men, smaller breasts in women, heart problems, cancer, and infertility.
Other side effects - liver tumors, jaundice, fluid retention, high blood pressure, severe acne, and trembling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Human Growth Hormone

A

a natural chemical made by the body that lowers fat and makes muscle, used in large quantities, it can result in the feet, hands and face getting larger, skin getting thicker retaining fluids, inefficient use of insulin, and high blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Caffeine

A

the most important effect of caffeine may be in mobilising fatty acids, which can then be used as a fuel, sparing the glycogen stores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does ATP do?

A
  1. Aids in ATP resynthesis
  2. maintains ATP/ADP ratios
  3. In combination with phosphorous buffers the accumulation of H+ (lactate acid)during periods of intense exercise
  4. facilitates high energy phosphate transport from the mitochondria to the contractile proteins of skeletal muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Scapular retraction

A

also called scapular adduction. the shoulder girdle moves backwards and the scapulae are pulled together. Uses the middle trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

scapular protraction

A

also called scapular abduction, the shoulder girdle is moved forward and the scapulae are pulled apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Scapular upward rotation

A

the scapula turns upward as the clavicles are elevated (arms lifted in front of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Rhomboids

A

are under the trapezius and are involved in scapular retraction, downward rotation and shoulder shrugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

4 rotator cuff muscles

A

sits
supraspinatus - shoulder abduction
infraspinatus - shoulder external rotation
teres minor - shoulder external rotation
subscapularis - shoulder internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Brachialis

A

under the bicps brachii involved in elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

anconeus

A

lies behine the elbow and is involved in elbow extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pronator quadratus and pronator teres in the forearm

A

involved in radioulnar pronation (rotating forearm to palm down position)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Linear Momemtum

A

the larger the body and the faster it is moving, the greater its momentum. Calculated as mass x velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Angular momentum

A

Moment of Inertia (I) x angular velocity
The magnitude of the moment of inertia depends on 2 factors
1. body mass
2. distribution of the mass relative to the axis of rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you change momentum?

A

a mechanical impulse must be applied. Impulseis the product of force x time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Torque

A

Angular motion, aka moment of force (M). The effect of a force that tends to cause rotation or twisting about an axis. So torque refers to the twisting action of a force
torque = force x movement arm
T = F x d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Moment arm

A

the perpendicular distance from the fulcrum (axis) to the line of force action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lever

A

a rigid structure, fixed at a single point (fulcruum or axis) to which two forces are applied. A bone moving about its axis of rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

1st class lever

A

the fulcrum is located between 2 forces. Ex. extending the elbow against resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

2nd class lever

A

the foot during plantar flexion against resistance as when someone is standing on the toes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3rd class lever

A

the forearm during the arm curl exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Work

A

force x distance
W = F x d
unit is joule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Power

A

Power = W/t
for example 1 shoulder press that last 1 second versus a shoulder press than last 3 seconds. The work is the same but the power is different
unit is watt = J/s
Powerlifting is a strength sport and not a power sport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Energy

A

the ability or capacity to perform mechanical work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Constant- resistance machines

A

Pulleys, conuterbalance machines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Accommodating-resistance machines

A

isokinetic dynamometers, flywheels, pneumatic equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Spinal flexion

A

where the spine curves forward with the neck moving toward the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

erector spinae

A

3 muscle pairs, the iliocostalis, longissimus, and the spinalis. spinal extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lowering the thigh

A

hip extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hamstrings

A

3 muscles the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Double progressive program

A

The number of times the activity is repeated is increased over time until the person can do 12 reps. Then the weight is increased and the process starts over.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Closed Kinetic Chain exercise

A

Activities that are similar to actions performed in the life of an average human. Usually done with the feet on the floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Open Kinetic Chain exercises

A

Activies that segregate muscle groups that usually doesn’t resemble daily life. Usually for athletes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Blitz system

A

similar to split training. each session focuses on one particular part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

PNF stretching

A

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
A way of stretching that uses the muscles’ reesponse to lengthening and tightness. When contracting a muscle very tightly, the golgi tendon organs will relax the muscle. The muscle can then be moved into a new position. There are three common versions of the PNF
1. Hold-relax
2. contract-relax
3 contract relax, antagonist contract

65
Q

Bench Press Facts

A

Muscles used: pec major, anterior deltoid, and coracobrachialis pec minor, and serratus anterior
‘As the elbows straighten, do not allow them to over extend past 180 degrees. Breathe out when lifting up and breathe in when lowering the weight. Bench press for less fit people or someone with back probs put the feet higher than the floor so that the back is straighter and pressed to the bench. ppl with shoulder issue - bring the hands closer together on the bar so that the elbows are closer to the body instead of straight out to the side.

66
Q

Incline press and decline press facts

A

Muscles used for incline pec major, anterior deltoid, medial deltoid and the coracobrachialis. Muscles used for decline: lats, teres major, and sternal part of the pecs. Fit people may use the pec minor and serratus anterior to move the shoulder blades apart (protraction) at the peak of the lift.

67
Q

Dumbbell Fly facts

A

Similar to the bench press muscles used: pec major, coracobrachialsi, and anterior deltoid work to perform the action of the upper arms and shoulders moving closer to the chest. Also the same for fit people, the pec minor and serratus anterior can be used to move the shoulder blades apart (protraction) at the peak of the lift. The trainer should hold her hands near the wrist and forearms. Only shoulder joints should be moving the arms. Wrist should be strightn and the shoulder blades should be still

68
Q

Bilateral cable cross-over exercise facts

A

Muscles used: anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis and pec major. A common problem is using too much weight and having the pulleys yank the arms apart too quickly. If the weight is too high the person may pull the torso back when pulling the arms in or forward when letting the arms return out. The trainer should stand behind the person and mover her arms near the upper arms as the activity is performed. The persons shoulders should be lowerd. Only the shoulder joint should move.

69
Q

Push ups facts

A

Muscles used: anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, pec major The trainer should sit near the person and may place a hand under the abdominal muscles to remind the person to tighten them, or hold the hands at the hips to avoid tilting the hips upward. Persons fingers should point forward, arms slightly widers than the shoulders. Chest should be 3-5 inches above the floor at the lowest point.

70
Q

Reverse Fly facts

A

Muscles used: posterior delts, infraspinatus, and teres minor move the upper arms and shoulders to the side away from the chest(horizontal abduction). The trapezius 3 and the rhomboids move the shoulder blades together (retraction or adduction)The trainer should be near the person head with her arms closely following the movement of the persons arms as they lift. If the person is standing the trainer should stand behind the person occasionally touching the shoulder blades to remind the person to pull them together.

71
Q

Z disk

A

The union of 2 actin heads, it demarcates the sarcomere, there is no mysoin.

72
Q

A Band

A

The distance of 1 thick filament , consisting of 2 myosin filaments

73
Q

I band

A

The distance from the end of one thick filament to the beginning of the next thick filament. During contraction the i band becomes shorter. It consists entirely of actin. The I band marks the margins of 2 adjacent sarcomeres, Each I band technically lies within 2 sarcomers.

74
Q

H zone

A

the distanc from the end of 1 thin filament to the beginning of the next thin filament. during contraction the h zone becomes shorter, consists entirely of myosin. Lies completely within the sarcomere, near the center of the sarcomere

75
Q

In a myofibril, in cross section

A

6 actins can interact with each myosin. Actins are in a hexagonal array
3 myosins can interact, in triangular fashion with each actin

76
Q

What role does myosin play?

A

The ATPase Actin-Binding Motor protein

77
Q

What happens when myosin is bound to actin?

A

ATP is bound to the myosin head. And since the ATP is bound, mysoin can then detach from the actin thin filament.. Once it is detached, it is free to hydrolyze the bound ATP to ADP + P. It hydrolyzes the ATP, and the ADP + P remain attached to the myosin head. The myosin then reattaches to the thin filament. Reattchment leads to the release of the Pi group, which in turn strengthens the interaction between the actin and myosin. Power Stroke: With the ATP gone, the myosin head undergoes a congormational change, causing the actin and myosin to move relative to each other. Then the myosin head releases the ADP. Then another ATP must bind to the myosin, in order for the myosin to release from the actin to start another cross-bridge.

78
Q

Explain the relaxed state of the muscle

A

Tropomyosin is bound to the thin filament around its major groove, in the absense of Calcium. The troponin complex is periodically bound to the thin filament such that it blocks the interaction between actin and myosin

79
Q

Explain the contracted state of the muscle

A

Calcium bins to the troponin comples, causing a conformational change in Troponin-C. Troponin Comple (troponin plus tropomyosin) removes itself from the thin filament as a result, such that myosin can bind

80
Q

Next note card

A

page 78 or page 99

81
Q

Horizontal Seated row facts

A

Muscles used: Posterior Delts, infraspinatus, and teres minor are used for moving the upper arms out tot eh side from the front (horizontal abduction). The trapezius 3 and the rhomboids are sued to pull the shoulder blades together (retraction). The biceps, brachialis, and brachioradialis are used to bend the elbows. You should not lean the torso back to pull, or shrug your shoulders. The trainer should stand behind the person touching the arms and shoulder blades as they move backward so as to direct them backwards and remind the person to pull the shoulder blades together. The persons hands should face downward, elbows should begin straight .

82
Q

Shoulder Shrugs Facts

A

The trapezius 1 and 2 and rhomboids and levator scapulae are used to move the shoulder girdle up.

83
Q

Scapular depression dips facts

A

The trapezius 4 and pectoralis minor move the shoulder blades downward. The trainer should stand behind the person and touch the elbows and lower triceps so the client will not bend the elbows. Elbows should not bend.

84
Q

High pulley scapular depressions facts

A

the trap 4 and pectoralis minor are used to move the shoulder blades down. Elbows are to remain straight the whole time. The shoulder blades should move.

85
Q

Front Raises facts

A

The anterior delt and pectorais major work to lift the arms in from of the body (shoulder flexion) Shoulders should not shrug, trainer should stand behind person to remind them to keep the shoulders low, or stand in front to prevent the person from dropping the weight too quickly. Arms should be lifted to just above the shoulders. Shoulder blades should be kept low

86
Q

Lateral raise facts

A

The medial delt and supraspinatus move the shoulders and arms out away from the body (shoulder abduction) and the trap 2 and 4 and serratus anterior are used for rotating the shoulder blades up. Shoulder blades remain low. The trainer should stand behind the person with hands near arms or wrist. Less fit people should have their palms facing forward to avoid injury to the tendons of the shoulder. Fit people can slightly bend at the hips to work the medial delt a little more

87
Q

Overhead press facts

A

the delts and supraspinatus are used to move the shoulders away from the body. The trap 2 and 4 and serratus anterior are used to spin the shoulder blades up, and the triceps are used to straighten the elbows. Elbows bent at right angles. Palms should be facing in if using dumbbells. Raise arms straight up while keeping shoulder blades low. Trainer stands behind person and holds hands under arms or elbows. If bar is used, hold hands under bar. Avoid going behind the neck.

88
Q

Upright row

A

Deltoids and supraspinatus move the shoulders up. The trap 2 and 4 and serratus anterior spin the shoulder blades up. The biceps bend the elbows. Raise the bar to chest height. Wrist relaxed and should stay lower than elbows.

89
Q

External rotation with tube

A

Infraspinatus and teres minor work to spin the shoulders out to the side away from the body. Arm is bent at 90 degrees. Elbow close to the body

90
Q

Fluid intake recommendations

What is recommenced during intense exercise lasting longer than 1 hour?

A
  1. Drink 500 ml (or 17oz) 2 hours before exercise
  2. be cooler than ambient temperature (between 59 and 72F)
    Carbs be ingested at a rate of 30-60 g/h to maintain oxidation of carbohydrate and delay fatigue. For example drinking 600-1200 ml/h of solutions containing 4-8% carbs. Sodium may be helpful (0.5-0.7 g/1 of water) when exercising longer than 1 hour
91
Q

Initial increase in strength during the first 8-10 weeks

A

attributed to neuromuscular efficiency

92
Q

3 ways strength is enhanced

A
  1. increase motor unit recruitment
  2. increase in firing rate
  3. enhanced synchronization of motor unit firing
93
Q

How is age related to muscular strength?

A

Peaks at age 20-25, after age 25, max strength declines 1% annually

94
Q

Pyramid set

A

multiple sets, decreasing repetitions and increasing resistance

95
Q

Isokinetic exercise equipment.

A

an exercise that provides a variable resistance to a constant limb movement
One example of an isokinetic exercise is a stationary bike that responds to a constant leg movement by the user. The resistance offered by the stationary bike may vary, while the speed of limb motion and subsequent revolutions per minute stays the same.
Ex. Dynamometer - it will move at a set speed whether maximal or half of maximal effort is put forth, athlete can cheat with machine and not put forth the effort.

96
Q 
Momentum Formula
Acceleration Formula
Speed Formula
Work Formula
Power Formula
Karvonen Formula
Target heart rate Formula
Maximal Heart-Rate Formula
A

Momentum Formula = mass x velocity
Acceleration Formula = Change in velocity/total time
Speed Formula = distance/time
Work Formula = force x distance
Power Formula = work/time
Karvonen Formula = ranges between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate reserve
Target heart rate Formula = % intensity x heart -rate reserve + resting heart rate
Maximal Heart-Rate Formula = target heart rate = maximal hear-rate (mhr) x % intensity

97
Q

Standard fitness assessment

A
  1. Check HR and BP at rest
  2. Check body measurements (weight, abdominal and hip measurements)
  3. Cardiovascular fitness test
  4. Test muscular strength and endurance
  5. check flexibility
  6. perform any other needed test
98
Q

When should a client receive clearance from a doctor?

A

When a client has two or more risk factors or symptoms of disease of the heart, blood vessels, lungs or metabolism, or been diagnosed with any of these diseases.

  1. pregnant women
  2. men over 45
  3. women over 55
  4. asthma
  5. recently suffered an injury or been admitted to a hospital.
99
Q

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire

A

(PAR-Q) elicits information about a clients’ health history, but should be used in conjunction with a medical history form in order to assess cardiovascular health risk.

100
Q

3 minutes ymca step test

A

measures how quickly the HR recovers from moderate exercise

101
Q

Dynamometer

A

a device that measures the force of a muscle contraction at a particular muscle position

102
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

The cartilage (commonly in the knee and hand) disintegrates, leaving the bones to rub against one another and cause damage. Workouts should be done on days of lower pain. Exercise has been shown to relieve symptoms. Should focus on flexibility and lower intensity isometric exercises.

103
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

A swelling of tissues around the joints and is usually found in the hands, fett and wrist. Ppl should see a doctor before doing exercise

104
Q

CVD risk factors about body fat

A

BMI > 30
abdominal measurement of over 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women or waist-to=hip ratio of .95 or above for men and .86 and above for women

105
Q

Fibromyalgia

A

an overall pain in the area of most joints, accompanied by extreme tiredness, irritable bowel syndrom and inability to sleep. Doing too much cardio can make the pain worse.

106
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

Plan activities that reduce the chance of the client losing their balance. Chair aerobics, bike, weight mahcines, swimming or water aerobics. The environment should be cooler than normal

107
Q

Parkinson’s Disease

A

plan activities that reduce the chance of the client losing their balance. Work the erector spinae, middle trapezius, rhomboids, gluteus maximum, and gastrocnemius in order to imporve posture and prevent leaning forward too much. Streching and plyos are also important.

108
Q

Muscle strain vs sprain

A

strain is minor damage to a connective tissue or muscle. a sprain is more severe damage

109
Q

Bursitis

A

inflammation of the fluid-filled sac (bursa) that cushions the space between the bone and a tendon

110
Q

contunsion

A

damage to tissue in which blood vessels are damaged and blood leads into the tissue, swelling the area

111
Q

Adhesions

A

clumps of collagen that attach to tissue after it is injured. it reduces flexibility

112
Q

contracture

A

excessive tension in a tissue that makes it impossible to move normally

113
Q

How to prevent rotator cuff tendinitis?

A
  1. strengthen the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and the teres minor
  2. remind people that as the front of the arm raises infront of the body, the shoulder should lower
  3. If the arms are being raised over the shoulders, the arms should also move out to the sides a little bit
  4. Avoid upright row and any activity in whih the bar is behind the head or any activity that the arms are lifted over the shoulders in front of the body.
114
Q

How to prevent Impingement syndrome?

A

1 Avoid moving arms over theshuolder without moving arms out to the side a little

115
Q

Biceps tendinitis - how to prevent?

A

avoid lifitng too heavy weights or contracting muscles too fast. 125

116
Q

the average persons daily requirement for protein

A

0.8 g/kg of body weight. Example, 50 kg person needs 40 grams a day.

117
Q

the athletes persons daily requirement for protein

A

1.2 - 2 g/kg of body weight

118
Q

Motivational interviewing

A

based on the idea than change occurs when there is an equal partnership between the client and trainer. Motivational interviewing is used in a client-centered relationship.

119
Q

Generative moments

A

are powerful or negative events that have happened to a client that can spur him or her to change

120
Q

Appreciateive Inquiry

A

a technique in which the trainer asks the client powerful and positive questions to help the client visualize potential possibilities.

121
Q

Change talk

A

language spoken by a client about his or her desire and ability to change their behavior.

122
Q

Definition of hypertension

A

A systolic blood pressure > 140 and a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 on 2 separate occasions.

123
Q

Intermittent claudication

A

pain in a specific area with exercise due to inadequate blood flow to that specific muscle. This pain can be reproduced from day to day. It usually doesn’t occur when a client is sitting or standing. Once the exercise that precipitated the pain has stopped, the pain should go away within 1 to 2 minutes

124
Q

Subluxation

A

happens when a joint is partly separated and the connective tissues around the joint and then stretched or damaged

125
Q

Shoulder dislocation or subluxation, what to avoid?

A

Lat pulldowns with the bar behind the head, or other activites that move the arms out and to the side extensively

126
Q

Ways to prevent tennis elbow

A

aka lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) or medial epicondylitis (golfer’s elbow)
To prevent:
work the muscle in the forearm, including the wrist extensors, wrist flexors, wrist pronators, and wrist supinators.
keep the wrist flexible
in any activity not designed to work the wrist, keep it straight.

127
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrom (CTS) how to prevent it?

A
  1. keep the wrist from bending when doing daily activites or any exercises
  2. keep arms and wrist warm
  3. type with a gentle action
  4. stretch wrist muscles
128
Q

Iliotibial band tendinitis

A

(ITB) when the IT band is too tight because of overuse, avoid running downhill and be sure to stretch

129
Q

Piriformis syndrome

A

Damage to the hip external rotators, or teh sciatic nerve getting pressure from the piriformis muscle. Stretching will prevent and help this.

130
Q

Anterior compartment syndrome

A

a condition in the leg where the leg muscles swell so much that blood flow to the muscles is limitied which can damage the muscle

131
Q

a normal blood pressure

A

the systolic less than 120 and diastolic less than 80

132
Q

BMI

A

calculated as weight divided by height, so 80 kg/3 meters

133
Q

Rockport test

A

have client walk as fast as possible fo 1 mile

134
Q

passive stretching

A

the client remains relaxed and the trainer stretchs the clients muscles,

135
Q

Recommened older individuals training

A

engage in moderate intensity aerobic activity for 30 minutes, 5 days a week, or vigorous intensity aerobic activity for 25 minutes, 3 days a week.

136
Q

Describe the anatomy of a bone

A

the epiphysisi is the end of a bone and the diaphysis is the shaft of a bone. The periosteium is a membrane that covers the surface of a bone, except at the articular surfaces (joints). The endosteum is the lining of the bone marrow cavity and contains the cels necessary for new bone development

137
Q

Which type of civil law covers wrongful acts or omissions that occur between parties?

A

Tort law
The word “tort” means “wrong”. The tort law system is set up to remedy wrongs in the civil court system, where one party can sue another for damages, or monetary compensation, for the harm that occurred. This is not to be confused with wrongful acts that are punishable as crimes.

138
Q

Which of the following is an example of a “passive warm-up”?

A

Taking a hot shower prior to jogging

Utilizing an outside source to warm the body is considered a “passive warm-up”.

139
Q

Which of the following is an example of a possible neuromuscular adaptation due to resistance training?

a. Decreased cocontraction
b. Increase in protein synthesis
c. Increase in number of actin and myosin filaments
d. Increased concentration of creatine phosphate

A

a. Resistance training has been shown to decrease cocontraction of agonist and antagonist muscle groups, which is a neurological adaptation.

140
Q

When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers “yes” to a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by a change in physical activity. What is the next step in his fitness program?

A

If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.

141
Q

A clients resting HR should always be checked?

A

When the client is sitting.

142
Q

In which portion of the client consultation is the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) administered?

A

During the health appraisal screening

143
Q

When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

A

Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip flexors and/or erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine.

144
Q

When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise?

A
  • When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the rectus abdominis and the hamstrings.
145
Q

When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

A

Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When a posterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight rectus abdominis and/or hamstrings, possibly causing reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine.

146
Q

Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation?

A

The plantarflexor muscles cause the heels to elevate and, therefore, tight, or overactive, plantarflexors can lead to the inability to keep heels in contact with the floor.

147
Q

Jim’s 1 repetition maximum for bench press is 100 pounds. If Jim follows the typical relative muscular endurance pattern, approximately what resistance should he be able to bench press for 10 repetitions?

A

75 pounds, most ppl can complete about 10 repetitions at 75% of their 1RM

148
Q

What includes “A waiver of rights to legal remedy in the event of injury”

A

The Release/Assumption of Risk Agreement

149
Q

Getting blood pressure on a client. it is 115/72. What level of mercury (Hg) should the bladder be inflated to next time?

A

135 mm

150
Q

What happened to creatine phosphate immediately after resisitance exercise?

A

Muscular
creatine phosphate concentration tends to decrease after an exercise bout but over time can
increase.

151
Q

Muscular Power formula?

A

Work/time

or force x velocity

152
Q

Main substrates used for anaerobic metabolism?

A
  1. glycogen

2. creatine phosphate

153
Q

Main substrate used for aerobic metabolism?

A
  1. fatty acids
154
Q

How many weeks are typically in an exercise progression plan?

A
  • An exercise progression program generally covers 16 weeks of resistance training before it is
    reevaluated and a new progression plan is made.
155
Q

Which of the following exercises should be excluded from the exercise program of a pregnant
woman who is in her second trimester?

a. Seated chest press
b. Body weight squat
c. Supine abdominal crunches
d. Side-lying abdominal crunches

A

c - Supine, or back-lying exercises have the potential to cause restricted blood return to the heart
after the first trimester of pregnancy, and should be phased out by the second trimester.

156
Q

. Which mechanism linking exercise to weight control happens first?

a. Increased self-esteem
b. Increased commitment
c. Improved exercise adherence
d. Increased dietary compliance

A

a - Increased self-esteem leads to increased commitment, adherence and compliance.

157
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Which of the following is a common musculoskeletal injury described as degeneration of the
articular or hyaline cartilage of a joint?

158
Q

What activites should you focus on during the proliferation phase of muscle injury?

A
  • During the proliferation phase (the middle phase of healing), the focus should be on range of
    motion and balance and proprioception.

NSCA CPT (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions