1

Question 0

The most common type of medical tort liability is?

Answer 0

Negligence

Question 1

Right and wrong conduct is known as?

Answer 1

Ethics

Question 2

A person being sued is called?

Answer 2

Defendant

Question 3

The withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is?

Answer 3

Abandonment

Question 4

An unlawful treatment or attempt to do bodily injury to another is?

Answer 4

Assult

Question 5

The health worker is protected by law of it can be determined that he or she acted reasonable as compared with fellow workers, is called?

Answer 5

Reasonable Care

Question 6

Negligence by a professional person is called?

Answer 6

Malpractice

Question 7

An act that violates criminal law is called?

Answer 7

Libel

Question 8

The breaking of a law, promise, or duty is called?

Answer 8

Breach

Question 9

The ability to see things from another person’s point of view is

Answer 9

Empathy

Question 10

The time established for filing a law suite is

Answer 10

Statute of Limitations

Question 11

A wit that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceedings and to give testimony is an?

Answer 11

Subpoena

Question 12

A wrong committed against another person or the person’s property is

Answer 12

Tort

Question 13

Holding or detaining a person against his will is

Answer 13

False Imprisonment

Question 14

A violation of a person’s right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of made public without giving consent is?

Answer 14

Invasion of Privacy

Question 15

A major crime for which grater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is?

Answer 15

Felony

Question 16

One who institutes a lawsuit is

Answer 16

Plaintiff

Question 17

A legal statement of how an individual’s property is to be distributed after death is?

Answer 17

Will

Question 18

Information given by a patient to medical personnel which cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is?

Answer 18

Privileged Communication

Question 19

A rule of conduct made by a government body is?

Answer 19

Law

Question 20

Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is?

Answer 20

Negligence

Question 21

Permission granted by a person voluntarily and in his right mind is?

Answer 21

Consent

Question 22

Injuring the name and reputation of another person by making false statements to a third person is

Answer 22

Defamation

Question 23

An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is

Answer 23

Contract

Question 24

Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as

Answer 24

Incompetence

Question 25

The final decision of a court in an action or suite is

Answer 25

judgment

Question 26

Responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee is

Answer 26

respondent Superior

Question 27

A Latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is?

Answer 27

Non Compos Mentis

Question 28

A person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent is called

Answer 28

Emancipated Minor

Question 29

An impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patients complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called____ Committee.

Answer 29

Medical Grievance

Question 30

Latin for “things done; deeds” the facts and circumstance attendant to the act in question would be called?

Answer 30

Res Gestae

Question 31

Testimony of a witness under oath and written down before trial for possible use when the care comes to trail is?

Answer 31

Deposition

Question 32

A statue that enforces private rights and liabilities, as differentiated from criminal law is called

Answer 32

Civil Law

Question 33

Violation or omission of legal or moral duty is called?

Answer 33

Breach of Duty

Question 34

A deliberate physical attack upon a person is called

Answer 34

Battery

Question 35

Latin for “he who acts through another acts for himself” is called

Answer 35

Qui Facit Per Alium Facit Per Se

Question 36

The branch of study of moral issues, questions, and problems arising in the practice of medicine and in biomedical research is called?

Answer 36

bioethics

Question 37

A statement given concerning some scientific, technical, or professional matter by an expert, such as a physician is called?

Answer 37

Expert Testimony

Question 38

A patient’s failure to act prudently and reasonably, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called

Answer 38

Contributory Negligence

Question 39

Consent to treatment based on a full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment is called

Answer 39

Assumption of Risk

Question 40

Conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals are known as

Answer 40

Medical Etiquette

Question 41

An intentional prevision of truth for the purpose of inducing another in reliance upon it to part with some valuable thing belonging to him or to surrender a legal right is called?

Answer 41

fraud

Question 42

To interrupt or discontinue a suit temporarily with the intention or resumption at a later date, or to ask for a continuance is called a?

Answer 42

Suspension

Question 43

Latin for “things decided” that is a matter already decided by judicial authority is called

Answer 43

Res Judicata

Question 44

That which in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any new independent cause, produces and event, and without which the injury would not have occurred is called

Answer 44

Proximate cause

Question 45

The presumption or inference of negligence when an accident is other wise unable to be explained in terms of ordinary and known experience is called

Answer 45

Res Ipsa Loquitur

Question 46

Failure to achieve an agreed upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used, is called

Answer 46

Breach of Contract

Question 47

What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe or administer controlled substance

Answer 47

Narcotic

Question 48

Unauthorized disclosure of information regarding any patient to a third party may result in

Answer 48

Invasion of Privacy

Question 49

Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of a medical community through process known as

Answer 49

Peer Review

Question 50

Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organization are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as ___ Review

Answer 50

Admission

Question 51

A fraudulent signature is called?

Answer 51

Forgery

Question 52

_____ as defined as what are right and wrong.

Answer 52

Ethics

Question 53

Which one of the following might involve a decision based upon bioethics?

Answer 53

The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

Question 54

A physician must have a patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the follow?

Answer 54

Gunshot Wound

Question 55

It is ___ to deny treatment to and HIV infected patients

Answer 55

Unethical

Question 56

____ is a federal regulation that requires heath care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients health information

Answer 56

HIPPA

Question 57

In the heath care field the acronym HIPPA stands for

Answer 57

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Question 58

The statement “A physician shall respect the law” is a part of the

Answer 58

AMA Code of Ethics

Question 59

Which of these generally results from an act carelessness, without an intent to harm

Answer 59

Manslaughter

Question 60

A system whereby large quantities of data can be accessed, searched, sorted, and arranged very rapidly by computer is called___ system

Answer 60

Database Management

Question 61

A computer monitor hard drive, and printer are known as

Answer 61

Hardware

Question 62

The term for the technology that tells a computer what to do is known as the

Answer 62

Software

Question 63

The computer key DEL command mean

Answer 63

Delete

Question 64

The computer’s directional arrow

Answer 64

Move cursor, right, left, up or down

Question 65

referring to computers, the term “user friendly” refers to

Answer 65

How easy the system is to operate

Question 66

The process of changing words into numbers so that computers can be used in processing insurance claims is called

Answer 66

Coding

Question 67

A business letter written in full block style will have all lines

Answer 67

At the left hand margin

Question 68

Making a duplicate file to protect computer information from being lost is called making

Answer 68

Backup

Question 69

When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark

Answer 69

Colon

Question 70

A newsletter that weighs less than one pound would be considered ___class mail.

Answer 70

Third

Question 71

What office instrument is designed to receive and send printed documents via the telephone

Answer 71

Fax Machine

Question 72

Business or handwritten mail and weighs less than 11 ounces is known as ___ class mail.

Answer 72

First

Question 73

Parcel post or ____ class mail is used for bound printed matter, film, & sound recordings.

Answer 73

Fourth

Question 74

Before placing a telephone caller on hold it is appropriate to
A. Ask is you may put the caller on hold
B. Wait for the caller to confirm they can wait
C. Obtain a return phone number
D. All the above

Answer 74

All the above

Question 75

An incoming called should be answered by the ___ ring

Answer 75

Third

Question 76

Which one of the following items is not needed when taking a routine phone message

Answer 76

Caller’s Drivers license #

Question 77

Prior to answering an incoming call the medical assistant should

Answer 77

Smile

Question 78

When handling incoming mail the medical assistant should ?

Answer 78

attach the envelope to the correspondence

Question 79

A letter should be folded in ____ using a #10 envelope

Answer 79

Thirds face up

Question 80

___ is the study of words and their relationship to other words in a sentence

Answer 80

grammar

Question 81

When handling a patient complaint which one of the following would be most appropriate

Answer 81

Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes

Question 82

When working with patients from a culture difference than your own, one should

Answer 82

Show respect for their culture

Question 83

Body Language, body posture, space and distance are all examples of

Answer 83

Non verbal communication

Question 84

When caring for patients with physical disabilities, which of these is not an appropriate consideration for most

Answer 84

Speak Loudly

Question 85

A bed patient in the hospital is called

Answer 85

Inpatient

Question 86

A person who represents either party of an insurance claim is

Answer 86

Adjuster

Question 87

A request for payment under an insurance contractor bond is called

Answer 87

Claim

Question 88

Payment made periodically to keep an insurance policy in force is called

Answer 88

Premium

Question 89

A person or institution that gives medical care is a

Answer 89

Provider

Question 90

Benefits that are made in the form of cash payments are known as

Answer 90

Medical Co-Payments

Question 91

An amount the insured must pay before policy benefits begin is called

Answer 91

Deductible

Question 92

An organization that offers health insurance at a fixed monthly premium with little or no deductible and works through a primary care provider is called

Answer 92

Health Maintenance Organization

Question 93

Health Insurance that provides protection against the high cost of treating sever or lengthy illnesses or disabilities is called

Answer 93

Catastrophic

Question 94

A patient receiving ambulatory care at a hospital or other health facility without being admitted as a bed patient is called

Answer 94

Outpatient

Question 95

An injury that prevents a worker from performing one or more of the regular functions of his job would be known as

Answer 95

Partial disability

Question 96

A previous injury, disease or physical condition that existed before the health insurance policy was issued is called

Answer 96

Preexisting Condition

Question 97

One who belongs to a group insurance plan is called

Answer 97

Subscribers

Question 98

A sum of money provided in an insurance policy, payable for covered services is called

Answer 98

Benefits

Question 99

To prevent the insured from receiving a duplicate payment for losses under more than one insurance policy is called

Answer 99

Coordination of Benefits

Question 100

When a patient has health insurance, the percentage of covered services that is the responsibility of the patient to pay is known as

Answer 100

Coinsurance

Question 101

Insurance that is meant to offset medical expenses resulting from a catastrophic illness is called

Answer 101

Major medical

Question 102

An unexpected event which may cause injury is called

Answer 102

Accident

Question 103

A doctor who agrees to accept an insurance companies pre-established fee as the maximum amount to be collected is called

Answer 103

Participating Physician

Question 104

Insurance plans that pay a physician’s full charge if it does not exceed his normal charge or does not exceed the amount normally charged for the service is called

Answer 104

Usual, customary and resonable

Question 105

A notice of insurance claim or proof of loss must be filed with in a designated ___ or it can be denied

Answer 105

Time Limit

Question 106

A health program for people 65 and older under Social Security is called

Answer 106

Medicare

Question 107

A civilian health and medical program of uniform services is called

Answer 107

Tri-Care

Question 108

A form of insurance paid by the employer providing cash benefits to workers injured or disabled in the course of employment is called

Answer 108

Worker’s Compensation

Question 109

A recap sheet that accompanies a Medicare or Medicaid check, showing breakdown and explanation of payment on a claim is called

Answer 109

Explanation of Benefits

Question 110

A type of insurance whereby the insured pays a specific amount per unit of service and the insurer pays the rest of the cost is called

Answer 110

Co-Payment

Question 111

In insurance, greater coverage of disease or an accident, and greater indemnity payment in comparison with a limited clause is called

Answer 111

comprehension

Question 112

A rider added to a policy to provide additional benefits for certain conditions is called

Answer 112

Dread Disease Rider

Question 113

An interval after a payment is due to the insurance company in which the policy holder may make payments, and still the policy remains in effect is called

Answer 113

Grace Period

Question 114

An agreement by which a patient assigns to another party the right to receive payment from a third party for the service that patient has received is called

Answer 114

Assignment of Benefits

Question 115

A skilled nursing facility for patients receiving specialized care after discharge from a hospital is called

Answer 115

Extended Care facility

Question 116

Payment for hospital chargers incurred by and insured person because of injury or illness is called

Answer 116

Hospital Benefits

Question 117

An agent of an insurance company who solicits or initiates contracts for insurance coverage and services, and is the policyholder for the insurer is called

Answer 117

Insurance Agent

Question 118

A method of charging whereby a physician presents a bill for each services rendered is called

Answer 118

Fee-For-Service

Question 119

The Tri-Care fiscal year is from

Answer 119

October 01 to September 30

Question 120

The number of Employees Withholding Exemption Certificate is

Answer 120

W-4

Question 121

FICA provides benefits for

Answer 121

Social Security

Question 122

As part of the office bookkeeping procedures, the physician’s bank statement should be reconciled with the

Answer 122

Checkbook

Question 123

A record of debits, credits, and balances is referred to as the patients

Answer 123

Ledger

Question 124

A signature on the reverse side of the check book is called

Answer 124

Endorsement

Question 125

A form to itemize deposits made to savings or checking accounts is called

Answer 125

Deposit Slip

Question 126

To correct a handwritten error in a patients chart, it is only acceptable to

Answer 126

Draw a line through the error, insert the correct information, date and initial it

Question 127

Low income patients can be covered by what type of insurance

Answer 127

Medicaid

Question 128

The reference procedural code book that uses a numbering system developed by the AMA is called

Answer 128

Current procedural terminology

Question 129

___ is a method used for determining whether a particular service or procedure is covered under a patient’s policy

Answer 129

Pre-Certification

Question 130

The International Classification of Disease, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-(-CM) is used to code

Answer 130

Diagnoses

Question 131

In Insurance coding using and “E” code designates

Answer 131

Classification of environmental events such as poisoning

Question 132

E/M codes are located in the ___ Manual

Answer 132

CPT

Question 133

Which codes can modifiers be added to, to indicate that a procedure or service has been altered in some way

Answer 133

CPT

Question 134

The ___ form is used by non-institutional providers and suppliers to bill Medicare, Part B covered services

Answer 134

CMS-1500

Question 135

The suffix -emia means

Answer 135

Blood

Question 136

The medical term for expanding or opening wider is

Answer 136

Dilate

Question 137

The abbreviation for urinalysis is

Answer 137

UA

Question 138

The medical term for groups of cells with the same function is

Answer 138

Tissue

Question 139

The medical term for the basic unit of body structure is

Answer 139

Cell

Question 140

The abbreviation for below or low is

Answer 140

Hypo

Question 141

The medical term for the time when menstruation begins is

Answer 141

Menarche

Question 142

The medical term for the time when menstruation stops is

Answer 142

Menopause

Question 143

The abbreviation for gastrointestinal is

Answer 143

GI or G.I.

Question 144

The medical term for an involuntary movement is

Answer 144

Reflex

Question 145

The medical term for paralysis from the neck down is

Answer 145

Quadriplegia

Question 146

The medical term for paralysis from the waist down is

Answer 146

Disaster / Paraplegia

Question 147

The medical abbreviation for the mouth is

Answer 147

po

Question 148

The abbreviation for dressing is

Answer 148

dsg

Question 149

The medical term for paralysis on one side of the body is

Answer 149

Hemiplegia

Question 150

The medical term for circular movement around a central point is

Answer 150

Rotation

Question 151

The medical term for turning the palm forward, as applied to the hand is

Answer 151

Supination

Question 152

The medical term for a decrease in size or a wasting is

Answer 152

Atrophy

Question 153

The medical term for straightening of a body part is

Answer 153

Extension

Question 154

The abbreviation for postprandial blood sugar is

Answer 154

PPBS

Question 155

The medial term for moving a body part away from the body is

Answer 155

Abduction

Question 156

The medial term for bending a body part is

Answer 156

Flexion

Question 157

The medical term for turning the palm backwards

Answer 157

Pronation

Question 158

The medical term for bending backward is

Answer 158

Dorsiflexion

Question 159

The medical term for the abnormal shortening of a muscle is

Answer 159

Contracture

Question 160

The medical term for moving a body part toward the midline of the body is

Answer 160

Adduction

Question 161

The abbreviation of laboratory is

Answer 161

lab

Question 162

The abbreviation for discontinue is

Answer 162

d/c

Question 163

The abbreviation for bedtime or hour of sleep is

Answer 163

hs

Question 164

the abbreviation for above or high is

Answer 164

hyper

Question 165

The abbreviation for hour is

Answer 165

hr or h

Question 166

The abbreviation of electroencephalogram is

Answer 166

EEG

Question 167

The abbreviation for Papanicolaou Smear is

Answer 167

Pap Smear

Question 168

The abbreviation for cancer is

Answer 168

CA

Question 169

The medical term for loss of appetite is

Answer 169

Anorexia

Question 170

The medical term for tube feeding is

Answer 170

Gavage

Question 171

The medical term for sugar in the urine is

Answer 171

Glucosuria

Question 172

The common term for a decubitus ulcer, a pressure sore

Answer 172

Bedsore

Question 173

The abbreviation for temperature, pulse, and respiration is

Answer 173

TPR

Question 174

The word element phlebo means

Answer 174

Vein

Question 175

the word element pneumo means

Answer 175

air, lungs

Question 176

the word element adneo means

Answer 176

Gland

Question 177

the word elements algia, algesia refer to

Answer 177

pain

Question 178

The word elements cardio means

Answer 178

heart

Question 179

the word element cranio means

Answer 179

Skull

Question 180

The word element ectomy mean

Answer 180

Surgical removal

Question 181

The word element emesis means

Answer 181

Vomiting

Question 182

The word element cise means

Answer 182

Cut

Question 183

The word element centesis means

Answer 183

puncture

Question 184

The word element renal means

Answer 184

kidney

Question 185

The word element post means

Answer 185

after

Question 186

The word element osis means

Answer 186

Condition of

Question 187

The word element rhino means

Answer 187

Nose

Question 188

The word element stomato means

Answer 188

Mouth or the ostium uteri

Question 189

The word element super means

Answer 189

Above

Question 190

The abbreviation for toxic shock syndrome is

Answer 190

TSS

Question 191

Erythema refers to

Answer 191

Red Skin

Question 192

The opposite of deep is

Answer 192

Superficial

Question 193

High blood pressure is referred to as

Answer 193

Hypertension

Question 194

Neoplasm refers to

Answer 194

New Growth

Question 195

The abbreviation carb means

Answer 195

Carbohydrates

Question 196

The abbreviation for chief complaint is

Answer 196

CC

Question 197

The abbreviation for gain is

Answer 197

gr

Question 198

What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe or administer controlled substances

Answer 198

Narcotics

Question 199

Physicians with a narcotics license are required to register on June 30 of each year with

Answer 199

Drug Enforcement Agency

Question 200

A drug that causes urination is called

Answer 200

Diuretic

Question 201

A drug used to relieve a cough is called

Answer 201

Antitussive

Question 202

A drug that neutralizes acidity is called

Answer 202

Antacid

Question 203

A drug that controls appetite is called

Answer 203

Appetite Suppressor

Question 204

A drug used to prevent blood from clotting is called

Answer 204

Anticoagulant

Question 205

A drug used to control temperature is called

Answer 205

Antipyretic

Question 206

A drug that reduces anxiety is called

Answer 206

tranquilizer

Question 207

A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a

Answer 207

Vasodilator

Question 208

A drug that decreases congestion is called

Answer 208

Decongestant

Question 209

A drug that causes the pupil of the eye to dilate is called

Answer 209

Mydriatic

Question 210

A date on a bottle of medication that provides a “use until” date is the

Answer 210

Outdate or expiration date

Question 211

A drug that increases urinary output is called

Answer 211

diuretic

Question 212

A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of and oil in water, such as caster oil is called

Answer 212

Emulsion

Question 213

Nitroglycerine is used for

Answer 213

Treatment of angina pectoris

Question 214

Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress

Answer 214

Inflammation

Question 215

Schedule 1 drugs include

Answer 215

Substances that have no accepted medical use and high potential for abuse

Question 216

Schedule IV drugs include

Answer 216

Minor tranquilzers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

Question 217

A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called

Answer 217

Transdermal system

Question 218

The buccal method of administering a drug is done by

Answer 218

Placing the medication between the gum and check

Question 219

Oxygen is ordered a percentage of oxygen concentration and its rate of delivery is written a

Answer 219

Liters per minute

Question 220

A drug that produces sleep is called

Answer 220

hypnotic

Question 221

An inactive substance substituted in place of the actual drug to satisfy that patent is called

Answer 221

Placebo

Question 222

The abbreviation for elixir is

Answer 222

elix

Question 223

The abbreviation of emulsion is

Answer 223

emul

Question 224

the abbreviation for fluid is

Answer 224

fl or fld

Question 225

The abbreviation for ointment is

Answer 225

oint, ung

Question 226

The abbreviation for solution is

Answer 226

sol

Question 227

The abbreviation for suppository is

Answer 227

supp

Question 228

The abbreviation for syrup is

Answer 228

syr

Question 229

The abbreviation for tablet is

Answer 229

tab

Question 230

The abbreviation for tincture is

Answer 230

tinc

Question 231

The abbreviation for intramuscular

Answer 231

IM

Question 232

The abbreviation for injection is

Answer 232

inj

Question 233

The abbreviation for right ear is

Answer 233

AD

Question 234

The abbreviation for both ears is

Answer 234

AU

Question 235

The abbreviation for drops is

Answer 235

gtt

Question 236

The abbreviation for two times a day is

Answer 236

quid

Question 237

When mixing reagents always read the label

Answer 237

Twice

Question 238

The ___ pages of the physician’s desk reference is where a medical assistant would be able to locate a medication by brand or generic name

Answer 238

Pink

Question 239

Medications can be located in the physicians drug reference under all the following categories except

Answer 239

composition

Question 240

The physician has ordered 500 mg of a medication the amount on hand is 250 mg per tablet. How many tablets will be given

Answer 240

2 tab

Question 241

The physician has ordered 0.2 Gm of a medication. The amount on hand is 400 mg tabs. How many tablets will be given to the patients

Answer 241

0.5

Question 242

The physicians has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The amount of hand is 100mg/ml. How many cc’s of Demerol will be injected

Answer 242

0.5 cc

Question 243

The sebaceous glands, skin, hair and nails make up the ___ system

Answer 243

Integumentary

Question 244

The heart, lymphatic organs, and blood vessels are in the ___ system

Answer 244

Cardiovascular

Question 245

The liver, stomach, mouth and pancreas are in the ___ system

Answer 245

Digestive

Question 246

The bladder, urethra, kidneys, and ureters are in the ___ system?

Answer 246

Urinary

Question 247

In the human body, the senses include all the following except

Answer 247

Teeth

Question 248

The brain, nerves, and the spinal cord are in the ___ system

Answer 248

Nervous

Question 249

The trachea, nose, lungs, and the pharynx are in the ___ system

Answer 249

Respiratory

Question 250

Tendons, joints, bones and cartilages are in the ____system?

Answer 250

Skeletal

Question 251

The upper middle area of the abdomen is called the

Answer 251

Epigastria Region

Question 252

The lower middle area of the abdomen is called the?

Answer 252

hypogastric Region

Question 253

The central middle area of the abdomen is called

Answer 253

Umbilical Region

Question 254

The humerus is located in the

Answer 254

Arm

Question 255

The pubis is located in the

Answer 255

Pelvis

Question 256

The femur is located in the

Answer 256

Leg

Question 257

The patella is located in the

Answer 257

Knee

Question 258

The ulna is located in the

Answer 258

Arm

Question 259

The tibia is located in the

Answer 259

Leg

Question 260

The fibula is located in the

Answer 260

Leg

Question 261

The radius is located in the

Answer 261

Arm

Question 262

The maxilla is located in the

Answer 262

Head

Question 263

The metatarsals is located in the

Answer 263

Foot

Question 264

The metacarpals are located in the

Answer 264

Hand

Question 265

The name for the collar bone is

Answer 265

clavicle

Question 266

The smaller of the lower leg bones is called

Answer 266

Fibula

Question 267

The zygomatic bone is located in the

Answer 267

Head

Question 268

The mandible bone is located in the

Answer 268

Head

Question 269

The sphenoid bone is located in the

Answer 269

Head

Question 270

The vertebrae are located in the

Answer 270

Back

Question 271

Bones are ____.

Answer 271

Built to provide support & structure

Question 272

The study of bones is called

Answer 272

Osteology

Question 273

The majority of the bones in the arms and legs are ___ bones.

Answer 273

Long

Question 274

Bones of the wrist and ankle are called ___ bones

Answer 274

Short

Question 275

The muscle that flexes and supinates the forearm is called

Answer 275

Biceps Brachii

Question 276

The major artery to the head is called

Answer 276

Carotid

Question 277

One of the arteries that supplies the hand and forearm is called the

Answer 277

Ulnar

Question 278

The major artery that supplies the abdomen is called the ___ artery

Answer 278

Celiac

Question 279

The major artery that supplies the thorax is called the ___ artery

Answer 279

Intercostal

Question 280

The major artery that supplies the kidney is called the ___ artery

Answer 280

Renal

Question 281

The major artery that supplies the bladder, rectum and some reproductive organs is called the ____.

Answer 281

Iliac

Question 282

The major artery that supplies the upper arm is called the

Answer 282

Brachial

Question 283

The major artery that supplies the knee is called

Answer 283

Popliteal

Question 284

The major artery that supplies the foot is called the

Answer 284

Dorsalis Pedis

Question 285

The major vein that drains the upper arm is called the

Answer 285

Brachial

Question 286

The major vein that drains blood from the head and brain is called the

Answer 286

Jugular

Question 287

The major vein that drains the liver is called the

Answer 287

Hepatic

Question 288

The major vein that drains the pelvis is called the

Answer 288

Common iliac

Question 289

The point at which air enters the respiratory tract is called

Answer 289

Nasal cavity

Question 290

The wind pipe which conducts air between the larynx and lungs is called the

Answer 290

Trachea

Question 291

The divisions of the trachea which enter the lungs are called the

Answer 291

Bronchi

Question 292

Located between the pharynx and trachea, and containing the vocal cords is the

Answer 292

Larynx

Question 293

The condition of the nasal septum turning away from midline is called a

Answer 293

Deviated Septum

Question 294

The medical name for nose bleed is called

Answer 294

Epistaxis

Question 295

Inflammation of the sinus cavity is called

Answer 295

Sinusitis

Question 296

Inflammation of the pleura is called

Answer 296

Pleurisy

Question 297

Escape of fluid into the thoracic cavity is called

Answer 297

Pleural Effusion

Question 298

Inflammation of the nasal mucosa results in

Answer 298

Rhinitis

Question 299

An accumulation of air in the pleural cavity after the lungs collapse is known as

Answer 299

Pneumothorax

Question 300

Whooping cough is another name for

Answer 300

Pertussis

Question 301

Inflammation of the mucus lining of the vagina is called

Answer 301

Vaginitis

Question 302

Inflammation of the gums is called

Answer 302

gingivitis

Question 303

Lesions of the mucous membrane of the stomach is called ____ ulcers

Answer 303

Gastric

Question 304

A serious chronic disease of the liver is called

Answer 304

Cirrhosis

Question 305

Chronic inflammation of the colon is called

Answer 305

Colitis

Question 306

Inflammation of the gallbladder is called

Answer 306

Cholecystitis

Question 307

Inflammation of the pancreas is called

Answer 307

Pancreatitis

Question 308

Inflammation of the appendix is called

Answer 308

Appendicitis

Question 309

Dilated veins that occur in the rectum are known as

Answer 309

Hemorrhoids

Question 310

When the internal environment of the body is functioning properly, a condition of ___ exist

Answer 310

Homeostasis

Question 311

The science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called

Answer 311

Physiology

Question 312

The lateral movement of the limbs away from the median plane of the body is called

Answer 312

Abduction

Question 313

An extrauterine pregnancy in which the fertilized ovum begins to develop outside the uterus is called

Answer 313

Ectopic

Question 314

The second portion of the small intestine is called

Answer 314

Jejunum

Question 315

One of the vital functions of long bones is the formation of

Answer 315

RBC

Question 316

An unilateral paralysis that follows damage to the brain is called

Answer 316

Hemiplegia

Question 317

The use of ultrasound to produce a picture of the structure of the heart is called

Answer 317

Echocardiography

Question 318

Digestion begins in the mouth, where food is chewed and mixed with a substance called

Answer 318

Saliva

Question 319

The lining of the duodenum is composed of thousands of tiny finger like projections called

Answer 319

Villi

Question 320

Infected pressure sores on the skin are called

Answer 320

Decubitus Ulcers

Question 321

Varicose veins of the anal canal or outside the external sphincter are called

Answer 321

Hemorrhoids

Question 322

Carcinogenic means ___ causing.

Answer 322

Cancer

Question 323

A weakness in the walls of muscle that allows underlying tissue to push through it is called

Answer 323

Hernia

Question 324

A gallbladder disorder involving stones in the gallbladder is

Answer 324

Cholelithiasis

Question 325

Inflammation of the retina is

Answer 325

Retinitis

Question 326

Food that are mild in flavor and easy to digest (non-spicy) comprise is

Answer 326

Bland Diet

Question 327

A tube inserted into one of the patient’s nostrils and down the back of the throat, through the esophagus until the end reaches the patient’s stomach is an

Answer 327

Nasogastric tube

Question 328

Washing out of the stomach through a nasogastric tube is called

Answer 328

Lavage

Question 329

The healthy adult excretes daily approximately ___ of urine

Answer 329

1000 to 1500 milliliters

Question 330

The inability to control the passage of urine in the bladder is called

Answer 330

Urinary Incontinence

Question 331

Painful voiding is called

Answer 331

Dysuria

Question 332

If the septum of the heart has an abnormal opening it is referred to as

Answer 332

A Septal Defect

Question 333

Branches of the bundle branches, which transmit the impulses to the walls of the ventricles causing the ventricles to contract are called

Answer 333

Purkinje Fibers

Question 334

A coronary occlusion causing a condition that produces chest pain which may radiate to the left arm, shoulder, jaw or neck due to lack of blood supply to the heart is called

Answer 334

Angina Pectoris

Question 335

An obstruction of a coronary artery causing death of an area of the myocardium due to blockage of the blood supply and oxygen supply is called

Answer 335

Myocardial Infraction

Question 336

Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium of the

Answer 336

Heart

Question 337

When the right atrium contract it forces blood through the tricuspid valve into the ___ ventricle

Answer 337

Right

Question 338

The right ventricle pumps the used blood to the lungs by way of the ___ artery

Answer 338

Pulmonary

Question 339

Every medical faculty is required by OSHA to have an exposure control plain

Answer 339

True

Question 340

The exposure control plan shall be made available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director OSHA upon request for examination and copying

Answer 340

True

Question 341

HIV means

Answer 341

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

Question 342

___ mean any contaminated objects that can be penetrate the skin including, but not limited to needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes, and exposed ends of dental wires.

Answer 342

Contaminated Sharps

Question 343

Reasonable anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane or parenteral contract with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employee duties is called ____

Answer 343

Occupational Exposure

Question 344

Any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or other potentially infectious materials may be a sources of occupational exposure to the employee is called

Answer 344

Source Individual

Question 345

To use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospore is to

Answer 345

sterilize

Question 346

___ is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the workplace

Answer 346

Blood

Question 347

The risk of infection with HIV following one needle stick exposure to blood from a patient known to be infected with HIV is approximately

Answer 347

.50%

Question 348

General infection control procedures are designed to prevent transmission of a wide range of ___ and to provide a wide margin of safety in the varied situations encountered in health care environment

Answer 348

Microbiological Agents

Question 349

Contract with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through percutaneous inoculation or contact with an open wound, non intact skin or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties” this definition (found in the Federal Register) applies to

Answer 349

Human Exposure

Question 350

All workers whose jobs involve participation in tasks, or activities with expose to blood or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with ___ vaccine

Answer 350

hepatitis B

Question 351

___ testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who maybe concerned they have been infected with HIV through and occupational exposure.

Answer 351

Serologic

Question 352

Studies suggest that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is

Answer 352

Remote

Question 353

After they used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades, and other sharp items should be placed in ___ containers for disposal

Answer 353

Puncture Resistant

Question 354

Broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up directly with he hands but by mechanical means such as

Answer 354

A brush and dust pan

Question 355

Contaminated laundry shall be ___ where it was soiled

Answer 355

Bagged or containerized at the location

Question 356

All spills of blood contaminated fluids should be promptly cleaned up using ___ approved germicide, or a 1:10 solution of household bleach

Answer 356

an EPA

Question 357

In cases of blood contamination shoe coverings and gloves should be disposed of in

Answer 357

Orange-Red

Question 358

It is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields be worn by laboratory technicians, or housekeeping personnel ___

Answer 358

When cleaning up blood or body fluids

Question 359

Blood from all individuals should be considered

Answer 359

Infective or infectious

Question 360

When taking vital signs, a medical assistant must wear gloves, gown and eye wear

Answer 360

False

Question 361

A specific eye, mouth , other mucous membrane, non intact skin or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employees duties is called

Answer 361

Exposure Incidents

Question 362

The term “universal precautions” is an

Answer 362

Overall approach to infection control

Question 363

Vaccinations against HBV infections provide 90% protection against hepatitis B for ___ or more years following vaccination

Answer 363

7

Question 364

The first line of defense in preventing disease is

Answer 364

the medical hand wash

Question 365

Biohazard labels must be colored

Answer 365

Orange-Red

Question 366

What federal agency requires the use of Sharps Containers

Answer 366

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Question 367

Viruses can reproduce only in

Answer 367

Living Cells

Question 368

The process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called

Answer 368

Sterilization

Question 369

The autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganism by combining

Answer 369

Heat with steam under pressure

Question 370

What kind of environment do microorganisms grow in best

Answer 370

Dark and warm

Question 371

A disease state that results from the invasion and growth of microorganisms in the body is

Answer 371

An infection

Question 372

Practices to achieve asepsis are known as

Answer 372

Medical asepsis and clean technique

Question 373

The process by which and object or area becomes unclean is

Answer 373

Contamination

Question 374

You should wash your hands for approximately

Answer 374

15 to 20 seconds

Question 375

When you wash your hands you should stand

Answer 375

so your cloths do not touch the sink

Question 376

The faucet is turned off with

Answer 376

a paper towel

Question 377

A health care worker who unconsciously transports harmful bacteria but is not ill is called

Answer 377

Carrier

Question 378

Groups of cluster of bacteria taken for laboratory study are called

Answer 378

Cultures

Question 379

Diseases that can be communicated from one person to another is called

Answer 379

Contagious

Question 380

The patient with an infection may have?
A.Loss of appetite and fatigue,
B.Fever, nausea, rash and vomiting,
C. Pain, redness or swelling

Answer 380

All the above

Question 381

When using a fire extinguisher the hose should be directed to the

Answer 381

Base of the fire

Question 382

Aerobic bacteria prefer which of these environmental conditions to grow well

Answer 382

Oxygen

Question 383

How quickly will an electronic thermometer measure body temperature

Answer 383

2 to 60 seconds

Question 384

Which of the following locations is usually used for taking a pulse

Answer 384

Radial Pulse

Question 385

What is considered a normal adult pulse rate

Answer 385

60 to 100

Question 386

The radial pulse is located in the

Answer 386

Wrist

Question 387

The least reliable measurement of body temperature is

Answer 387

Axillary

Question 388

The most accurate and reliable measurement of body temperature is

Answer 388

rectal

Question 389

what is considered a normal adult respiration per minute

Answer 389

14 to 20

Question 390

A respiratory rate greater than 24 per minute is called

Answer 390

Tachypnea

Question 391

Persistent increased systolic and diastolic pressures are indicative of

Answer 391

Hypertension

Question 392

The blood pressure should not be taken on an arm if

Answer 392

The patient has had breast surgery on that side, on an arm with an IV infusion, on an arm with a cast

Question 393

To measure a blood pressure, the medical assistant will need

Answer 393

a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer

Question 394

Which is recorded as the systolic blood pressure

Answer 394

The point where the first sound is heard

Question 395

When measuring blood pressure, which of the following is correct?

Answer 395

the cuff should be applied to the bare upper arm, Room should be quite so that blood pressure can be heard, Sphygmomanometer needs clearly visible

Question 396

With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported tot he

Answer 396

Physician

Question 397

A medical assistant would measure the patient’s temperature, pulse and respiration when the physician asks him or her to

Answer 397

Take vital signs

Question 398

Which of the following is used to take an infant’s rectal temperature

Answer 398

Security thermometer

Question 399

Never clean a glass thermometer with

Answer 399

Hot Water

Question 400

When the patient is breathing with only the upper part of the lungs this is referred to as

Answer 400

Shallow respiration

Question 401

When the patient makes abnormal noises like snoring sounds when she or he is breathing it is called

Answer 401

Stertorous Respiration

Question 402

When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest, This pressure is called the

Answer 402

Systolic Pressure

Question 403

When listening to the brachial pulse you will use a

Answer 403

Stethoscope

Question 404

The main type of sphygmomanometers used in a clinical setting is the

Answer 404

Aneroid Type

Question 405

When the pressure is lowest, this pressure is called

Answer 405

Diastolic Pressure

Question 406

The process of inhaling and exhaling is called

Answer 406

Respiration

Question 407

When the depth of breathing changes and the rate of the rise and fall of the chest is not steady, it is called

Answer 407

Irregular Respiration

Question 408

When taking the pulse, you must be able to report accurately the

Answer 408

Rhythm of pulse rate, rater (number of pulse beats per minute), Force of the beat

Question 409

The balance between the heat produced and the heat lost is the

Answer 409

Body Temperature

Question 410

A rubber or plastic tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening is called

Answer 410

Catheter

Question 411

The process of inserting a catheter is called

Answer 411

Catheterization

Question 412

When you use an autoclave, fill the water reservoir with

Answer 412

Distilled Water

Question 413

A patient positioned on her back with feet in stirrups is said to be in the

Answer 413

Lithotomy Position

Question 414

A stethoscope is used to listen to body sounds by

Answer 414

Auscultation

Question 415

When the physician feels with fingers or hands to determine the physical characteristics of tissues or organs it is called

Answer 415

Palpation

Question 416

Body temperature measured under the arm of a patient is called the ___ temperature

Answer 416

axillary

Question 417

Listening to the sounds produced while tapping the patient with fingers is called

Answer 417

Percussion

Question 418

The instrument used to examine the eyes is called the

Answer 418

Ophthalmoscope

Question 419

An instrument used for auditory and sensory perception is called the

Answer 419

Tuning Fork

Question 420

An apical pulse is the method of choice for

Answer 420

Infants and young children

Question 421

Which degree of burn is the most serious

Answer 421

Third

Question 422

On a visual acuity reading of 20/60 , what does the 20 represent

Answer 422

Distance between patient and test chart

Question 423

Some clinical signs for head injury could be

Answer 423

Vomiting, Headache, Confusion

Question 424

Lying flat on one’s back with arms at one’s side is the ___ position

Answer 424

Supine

Question 425

Lying supine with knees sharply flexed and separated is known as the ___ position

Answer 425

dorsal recumbent

Question 426

When a patients feet are placed in stirrups and the buttocks are positioned at the edge of the exam table, the patient is in the ___ patient

Answer 426

Lithotomy

Question 427

When a patient is positioned on the abdomen, arms under the head, with the head turned to one side the patient is in the ___ position

Answer 427

Prone

Question 428

When the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the table with buttocks elevated, it is called the ___ position

Answer 428

Knee-Chest

Question 429

An otoscope is used for examination of the

Answer 429

Ears

Question 430

When measuring blood pressure, the bottom number is called

Answer 430

Diastolic Pressure

Question 431

With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported to the

Answer 431

Doctor

Question 432

A ___ report include information relating to the patient’s main reason for scheduling an appointment to see the physician.

Answer 432

History and physical examination

Question 433

The blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by___.

Answer 433

Skin Puncture

Question 434

The standard point of the lancet to be used hen collecting blood from a newborn heel is ___ in length. (Note Please check current guidelines as this changes)

Answer 434

2.4mm

Question 435

The most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is___.

Answer 435

Positively identifying the patient

Question 436

When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good to practice to

Answer 436

Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry

Question 437

To determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the

Answer 437

Smaller

Question 438

An instrument called a centrifuge

Answer 438

Separates the cellular and liquid portion of the blood

Question 439

Rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for.

Answer 439

Multiple use

Question 440

Preparing for a glucose tolerance test___ hours before or during the test, the patient should not eat, smoke, drink coffee or alcohol.

Answer 440

Ten

Question 441

In the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes come in different sizes, and the stoppers are ___ to denote the type of additive or lack of one

Answer 441

Color Coded

Question 442

During a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper, you need a ____.

Answer 442

holder

Question 443

Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture

Answer 443

21-22

Question 444

When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about three to four inches from where you are going to ___ for a vein.

Answer 444

Feel

Question 445

When performing a venipuncture, if you have the patient ___ the veins will become more prominent

Answer 445

Make a fist

Question 446

Which of the following is false:

1. Veins feel like an elastic tube
2. Veins pulsate
3. Veins give under pressure
4. Veins go different directions

Answer 446

Veins pulsate

Question 447

Use your index finger when you ___ for a vein

Answer 447

Palpate

Question 448

Arterioles are the smallest type of

Answer 448

Arteries

Question 449

The maximum time a tourniquet should be tied on the upper arm while drawing blood is

Answer 449

1 minutes

Question 450

To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and ___.

Answer 450

Work in a circle to the periphery

Question 451

The venipuncture site should be cleansed with ___.

Answer 451

An alcohol prep

Question 452

When using a centrifuge, make sure equal weights are___.

Answer 452

Opposite each other

Question 453

The lid to the centrifuge should be kept ___ when in use.

Answer 453

Closed

Question 454

When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a ____.

Answer 454

Red Top Tube

Question 455

When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a ___.

Answer 455

Lavender top evacuated tube

Question 456

When collecting blood for cholesterol tests use a ___ top evacuated tube

Answer 456

Red

Question 457

The primary anticoagulant additive EDTA removes calcium by forming insoluble or un-ionized calcium salts. It has an advantage of preventing platelet clumping and the formation of artifacts, therefore, good for the preparation of ___.

Answer 457

Blood Films

Question 458

Sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain of the ___.

Answer 458

Pro-Coagulants

Question 459

The tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a ___ top.

Answer 459

Lavender

Question 460

The color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is (for collection of serum)

Answer 460

Red

Question 461

At the location where you are going to feel for a vein, wrap the tourniquet around the arm approximately ___ above the area.

Answer 461

Three to four inches

Question 462

The cephalic, medial cubical, and basilica veins are ___ used for venipuncture

Answer 462

Primarily

Question 463

When doing a venipuncture the syringe or tube should be ___ the venipuncture site to prevent back flow

Answer 463

Below

Question 464

When anti coagulated blood is centrifuged ___ goes to the bottom of the tube

Answer 464

Red Blood Cells

Question 465

When collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant you should use a

Answer 465

Lancet

Question 466

The tube used to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count is

Answer 466

Lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraccetic acid additive

Question 467

Which of these lab tests monitor anticoagulation therapy

Answer 467

PT and PTT

Question 468

Which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first

Answer 468

Red

Question 469

Making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patients complete name and identification number is part of the facilities ___ plan

Answer 469

quality control

Question 470

When performing a venipuncture if no blood flows into the tube how would you correct this

Answer 470

Gently insert the need a little deeper, gently pull the needle out just a little, remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site

Question 471

If during a venipuncture a patient has a syncopal episode what you be your best course of action

Answer 471

remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patients head and arms

Question 472

The most appropriate site for performing a capillary puncture in a healthy adult is the

Answer 472

fingers

Question 473

It is very important when performing a capillary stick to do which one of the following

Answer 473

Wipe away the first drop of blood

Question 474

Performing a ___ as part of a complete blood count determines the ration of the volume packed RBC to that of whole blood

Answer 474

Hematocrite

Question 475

___ values are increased in infections and inflammatory disease

Answer 475

Erythrocyte sedimentation rates

Question 476

What type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test

Answer 476

EDTA added

Question 477

How many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the PT

Answer 477

2

Question 478

What type of blood sample is needed when performing a PKU

Answer 478

Capillary

Question 479

A ___ is a small, sterile, needle like piece of metal used to make small punctures in the dermis

Answer 479

Lancet

Question 480

In drug testing the ___ regulates described how evidence is to be collected and handled.

Answer 480

Chain of Custody

Question 481

A ___ requires a patient to be fasting and then blood is taken every hour for a predetermined time

Answer 481

Glucose tolerance test

Question 482

In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed too close together, the amplitude will be

Answer 482

Small

Question 483

The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to___

Answer 483

.20 sec

Question 484

A “V wave” will ___ be seen in the normal EKG.

Answer 484

Never

Question 485

The ___ switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG

Answer 485

Sensitivity

Question 486

When preparing for lead placement you should first care for ___.

Answer 486

Skin Preparation

Question 487

Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called?

Answer 487

Defibrillation

Question 488

Which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?
A. Clean the skin with an alcohol wipe
B. Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode
C. Shave the hair from the skin
D. Roughen the skin for better dermis contact

Answer 488

B. Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode

Question 489

The electrode site should be ___.

Answer 489

Clean, smooth, and dry

Question 490

An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the ___ it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.

Answer 490

Time

Question 491

In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the ___ area.

Answer 491

Adhesive

Question 492

When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called

Answer 492

Absolutely Regular

Question 493

Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components: (1) magnitude or force, and (2)-

Answer 493

Direction or Shape

Question 494

A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ___.

Answer 494

Q Wave

Question 495

A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called___.

Answer 495

Uniform

Question 496

When applying leads, apply the V1 lead ___.

Answer 496

The fourth intercostal space right sternal border

Question 497

Which fact is true about the P Wave?
A. Duration of the P Wave is not greater than 0.11 sec
B. Height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm
C. No Correct Answer
D. Both A and B

Answer 497

A. Duration of the P Wave is not greater than 0.11 sec

B. Height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm

Question 498

When PVC’s fall on the T Wave occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called ___.

Answer 498

Life Threatening

Question 499

When a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a ___ deflection results

Answer 499

Negative

Question 500

The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead 1 is ____.

Answer 500

Left Arm, Right Arm

Question 501

Concerning ECG’s for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is ___.

Answer 501

Unreliable

Question 502

The ___ wave represents atrial depolarization

Answer 502

P

Question 503

While the duration of the ST Segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because ___.

Answer 503

Shifts up or down from the baseline

Question 504

A QRS measurement of less than ____ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.

Answer 504

0.12

Question 505

The area between waves is referred to as ___.

Answer 505

Intervals

Question 506

A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called ___.

Answer 506

Agonal

Question 507

When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ___.

Answer 507

An Arrhythmia

Question 508

A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide, irregular, oscillations of the baseline is called ventricular ___.

Answer 508

Fibrillation

Question 509

The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as ___.

Answer 509

Sinus Arrest

Question 510

A special device called a “regulator” or flow meter” is necessary when using ___.

Answer 510

Oxygen

Question 511

Oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a \_\_\_.
A. Catheter
B. Cannula
C. Tent
D. All Choices

Answer 511

A. Catheter
B. Cannula
C. Tent

Question 512

The clean-catch urine specimen is also called?
A. Clean voided specimen
B. 24hr urine specimen
C. Mid stream specimen
D. B & C

Answer 512

B. 24hr urine specimen

C. Mid stream specimen

Question 513

A 24hr urine specimen should be ___.

Answer 513

Chilled/ Refrigerated

Question 514

The fresh fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for ___.

Answer 514

Sugar

Question 515

Another term for acetone in the urine is ___.

Answer 515

Ketone Bodies (Ketones)

Question 516

Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine

Answer 516

Keto Diastix

Question 517

To help classify bacteria into two groups, gram positive and gram negative is a special stain called

Answer 517

Gram Stain

Question 518

When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should ____ the first drop

Answer 518

Wipe Away

Question 519

When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them

Answer 519

Air Dry

Question 520

When preparing a blood smear the spreader slide must be made of

Answer 520

Glass

Question 521

Which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count

Answer 521

Edges should be feathered

Question 522

The glucose tolerance test is a ___- test

Answer 522

timed

Question 523

While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and RH are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a ___ screen

Answer 523

Prenatal

Question 524

Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growths

Answer 524

Absence of Oxygen

Question 525

To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the ___ must be swabbed

Answer 525

Nasopharynx and tonsillar area

Question 526

A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which one of the following

Answer 526

Human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 527

When performing any CLIA waived test it is important do to which one of the following

Answer 527

Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter

Question 528

Performing routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical. The maintenance plan should include which one of the following?
A. Regularly scheduled check ups
B. Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts
C. Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth
D. All The Both

Answer 528

A. Regularly scheduled check ups
B. Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts
C. Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth

Question 529

When testing for occult blood which of the following specimens would be required

Answer 529

Stool sample

Question 530

When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
B. The patient should consume 20 oz. of red meat in the four hours prior to the collection
C. The PT should limit dairy

Answer 530

A. Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen

Question 531

In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is

Answer 531

Spirometry