1 Flashcards
(532 cards)
0
Q
The most common type of medical tort liability is?
A
Negligence
1
Q
Right and wrong conduct is known as?
A
Ethics
2
Q
A person being sued is called?
A
Defendant
3
Q
The withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is?
A
Abandonment
4
Q
An unlawful treatment or attempt to do bodily injury to another is?
A
Assult
5
Q
The health worker is protected by law of it can be determined that he or she acted reasonable as compared with fellow workers, is called?
A
Reasonable Care
6
Q
Negligence by a professional person is called?
A
Malpractice
7
Q
An act that violates criminal law is called?
A
Libel
8
Q
The breaking of a law, promise, or duty is called?
A
Breach
9
Q
The ability to see things from another person’s point of view is
A
Empathy
10
Q
The time established for filing a law suite is
A
Statute of Limitations
11
Q
A wit that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceedings and to give testimony is an?
A
Subpoena
12
Q
A wrong committed against another person or the person’s property is
A
Tort
13
Q
Holding or detaining a person against his will is
A
False Imprisonment
14
Q
A violation of a person’s right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of made public without giving consent is?
A
Invasion of Privacy
15
Q
A major crime for which grater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is?
A
Felony
16
Q
One who institutes a lawsuit is
A
Plaintiff
17
Q
A legal statement of how an individual’s property is to be distributed after death is?
A
Will
18
Q
Information given by a patient to medical personnel which cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is?
A
Privileged Communication
19
Q
A rule of conduct made by a government body is?
A
Law
20
Q
Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is?
A
Negligence
21
Q
Permission granted by a person voluntarily and in his right mind is?
A
Consent
22
Q
Injuring the name and reputation of another person by making false statements to a third person is
A
Defamation
23
Q
An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is
A
Contract
24
Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as
Incompetence
25
The final decision of a court in an action or suite is
judgment
26
Responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee is
respondent Superior
27
A Latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is?
Non Compos Mentis
28
A person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent is called
Emancipated Minor
29
An impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patients complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called____ Committee.
Medical Grievance
30
Latin for "things done; deeds" the facts and circumstance attendant to the act in question would be called?
Res Gestae
31
Testimony of a witness under oath and written down before trial for possible use when the care comes to trail is?
Deposition
32
A statue that enforces private rights and liabilities, as differentiated from criminal law is called
Civil Law
33
Violation or omission of legal or moral duty is called?
Breach of Duty
34
A deliberate physical attack upon a person is called
Battery
35
Latin for "he who acts through another acts for himself" is called
Qui Facit Per Alium Facit Per Se
36
The branch of study of moral issues, questions, and problems arising in the practice of medicine and in biomedical research is called?
bioethics
37
A statement given concerning some scientific, technical, or professional matter by an expert, such as a physician is called?
Expert Testimony
38
A patient's failure to act prudently and reasonably, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called
Contributory Negligence
39
Consent to treatment based on a full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment is called
Assumption of Risk
40
Conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals are known as
Medical Etiquette
41
An intentional prevision of truth for the purpose of inducing another in reliance upon it to part with some valuable thing belonging to him or to surrender a legal right is called?
fraud
42
To interrupt or discontinue a suit temporarily with the intention or resumption at a later date, or to ask for a continuance is called a?
Suspension
43
Latin for "things decided" that is a matter already decided by judicial authority is called
Res Judicata
44
That which in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any new independent cause, produces and event, and without which the injury would not have occurred is called
Proximate cause
45
The presumption or inference of negligence when an accident is other wise unable to be explained in terms of ordinary and known experience is called
Res Ipsa Loquitur
46
Failure to achieve an agreed upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used, is called
Breach of Contract
47
What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe or administer controlled substance
Narcotic
48
Unauthorized disclosure of information regarding any patient to a third party may result in
Invasion of Privacy
49
Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of a medical community through process known as
Peer Review
50
Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organization are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as ___ Review
Admission
51
A fraudulent signature is called?
Forgery
52
_____ as defined as what are right and wrong.
Ethics
53
Which one of the following might involve a decision based upon bioethics?
The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
54
A physician must have a patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the follow?
Gunshot Wound
55
It is ___ to deny treatment to and HIV infected patients
Unethical
56
____ is a federal regulation that requires heath care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients health information
HIPPA
57
In the heath care field the acronym HIPPA stands for
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
58
The statement "A physician shall respect the law" is a part of the
AMA Code of Ethics
59
Which of these generally results from an act carelessness, without an intent to harm
Manslaughter
60
A system whereby large quantities of data can be accessed, searched, sorted, and arranged very rapidly by computer is called___ system
Database Management
61
A computer monitor hard drive, and printer are known as
Hardware
62
The term for the technology that tells a computer what to do is known as the
Software
63
The computer key DEL command mean
Delete
64
The computer's directional arrow
Move cursor, right, left, up or down
65
referring to computers, the term "user friendly" refers to
How easy the system is to operate
66
The process of changing words into numbers so that computers can be used in processing insurance claims is called
Coding
67
A business letter written in full block style will have all lines
At the left hand margin
68
Making a duplicate file to protect computer information from being lost is called making
Backup
69
When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark
Colon
70
A newsletter that weighs less than one pound would be considered ___class mail.
Third
71
What office instrument is designed to receive and send printed documents via the telephone
Fax Machine
72
Business or handwritten mail and weighs less than 11 ounces is known as ___ class mail.
First
73
Parcel post or ____ class mail is used for bound printed matter, film, & sound recordings.
Fourth
74
Before placing a telephone caller on hold it is appropriate to
A. Ask is you may put the caller on hold
B. Wait for the caller to confirm they can wait
C. Obtain a return phone number
D. All the above
All the above
75
An incoming called should be answered by the ___ ring
Third
76
Which one of the following items is not needed when taking a routine phone message
Caller's Drivers license #
77
Prior to answering an incoming call the medical assistant should
Smile
78
When handling incoming mail the medical assistant should ?
attach the envelope to the correspondence
79
A letter should be folded in ____ using a #10 envelope
Thirds face up
80
___ is the study of words and their relationship to other words in a sentence
grammar
81
When handling a patient complaint which one of the following would be most appropriate
Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes
82
When working with patients from a culture difference than your own, one should
Show respect for their culture
83
Body Language, body posture, space and distance are all examples of
Non verbal communication
84
When caring for patients with physical disabilities, which of these is not an appropriate consideration for most
Speak Loudly
85
A bed patient in the hospital is called
Inpatient
86
A person who represents either party of an insurance claim is
Adjuster
87
A request for payment under an insurance contractor bond is called
Claim
88
Payment made periodically to keep an insurance policy in force is called
Premium
89
A person or institution that gives medical care is a
Provider
90
Benefits that are made in the form of cash payments are known as
Medical Co-Payments
91
An amount the insured must pay before policy benefits begin is called
Deductible
92
An organization that offers health insurance at a fixed monthly premium with little or no deductible and works through a primary care provider is called
Health Maintenance Organization
93
Health Insurance that provides protection against the high cost of treating sever or lengthy illnesses or disabilities is called
Catastrophic
94
A patient receiving ambulatory care at a hospital or other health facility without being admitted as a bed patient is called
Outpatient
95
An injury that prevents a worker from performing one or more of the regular functions of his job would be known as
Partial disability
96
A previous injury, disease or physical condition that existed before the health insurance policy was issued is called
Preexisting Condition
97
One who belongs to a group insurance plan is called
Subscribers
98
A sum of money provided in an insurance policy, payable for covered services is called
Benefits
99
To prevent the insured from receiving a duplicate payment for losses under more than one insurance policy is called
Coordination of Benefits
100
When a patient has health insurance, the percentage of covered services that is the responsibility of the patient to pay is known as
Coinsurance
101
Insurance that is meant to offset medical expenses resulting from a catastrophic illness is called
Major medical
102
An unexpected event which may cause injury is called
Accident
103
A doctor who agrees to accept an insurance companies pre-established fee as the maximum amount to be collected is called
Participating Physician
104
Insurance plans that pay a physician's full charge if it does not exceed his normal charge or does not exceed the amount normally charged for the service is called
Usual, customary and resonable
105
A notice of insurance claim or proof of loss must be filed with in a designated ___ or it can be denied
Time Limit
106
A health program for people 65 and older under Social Security is called
Medicare
107
A civilian health and medical program of uniform services is called
Tri-Care
108
A form of insurance paid by the employer providing cash benefits to workers injured or disabled in the course of employment is called
Worker's Compensation
109
A recap sheet that accompanies a Medicare or Medicaid check, showing breakdown and explanation of payment on a claim is called
Explanation of Benefits
110
A type of insurance whereby the insured pays a specific amount per unit of service and the insurer pays the rest of the cost is called
Co-Payment
111
In insurance, greater coverage of disease or an accident, and greater indemnity payment in comparison with a limited clause is called
comprehension
112
A rider added to a policy to provide additional benefits for certain conditions is called
Dread Disease Rider
113
An interval after a payment is due to the insurance company in which the policy holder may make payments, and still the policy remains in effect is called
Grace Period
114
An agreement by which a patient assigns to another party the right to receive payment from a third party for the service that patient has received is called
Assignment of Benefits
115
A skilled nursing facility for patients receiving specialized care after discharge from a hospital is called
Extended Care facility
116
Payment for hospital chargers incurred by and insured person because of injury or illness is called
Hospital Benefits
117
An agent of an insurance company who solicits or initiates contracts for insurance coverage and services, and is the policyholder for the insurer is called
Insurance Agent
118
A method of charging whereby a physician presents a bill for each services rendered is called
Fee-For-Service
119
The Tri-Care fiscal year is from
October 01 to September 30
120
The number of Employees Withholding Exemption Certificate is
W-4
121
FICA provides benefits for
Social Security
122
As part of the office bookkeeping procedures, the physician's bank statement should be reconciled with the
Checkbook
123
A record of debits, credits, and balances is referred to as the patients
Ledger
124
A signature on the reverse side of the check book is called
Endorsement
125
A form to itemize deposits made to savings or checking accounts is called
Deposit Slip
126
To correct a handwritten error in a patients chart, it is only acceptable to
Draw a line through the error, insert the correct information, date and initial it
127
Low income patients can be covered by what type of insurance
Medicaid
128
The reference procedural code book that uses a numbering system developed by the AMA is called
Current procedural terminology
129
___ is a method used for determining whether a particular service or procedure is covered under a patient's policy
Pre-Certification
130
The International Classification of Disease, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-(-CM) is used to code
Diagnoses
131
In Insurance coding using and "E" code designates
Classification of environmental events such as poisoning
132
E/M codes are located in the ___ Manual
CPT
133
Which codes can modifiers be added to, to indicate that a procedure or service has been altered in some way
CPT
134
The ___ form is used by non-institutional providers and suppliers to bill Medicare, Part B covered services
CMS-1500
135
The suffix -emia means
Blood
136
The medical term for expanding or opening wider is
Dilate
137
The abbreviation for urinalysis is
UA
138
The medical term for groups of cells with the same function is
Tissue
139
The medical term for the basic unit of body structure is
Cell
140
The abbreviation for below or low is
Hypo
141
The medical term for the time when menstruation begins is
Menarche
142
The medical term for the time when menstruation stops is
Menopause
143
The abbreviation for gastrointestinal is
GI or G.I.
144
The medical term for an involuntary movement is
Reflex
145
The medical term for paralysis from the neck down is
Quadriplegia
146
The medical term for paralysis from the waist down is
Disaster / Paraplegia
147
The medical abbreviation for the mouth is
po
148
The abbreviation for dressing is
dsg
149
The medical term for paralysis on one side of the body is
Hemiplegia
150
The medical term for circular movement around a central point is
Rotation
151
The medical term for turning the palm forward, as applied to the hand is
Supination
152
The medical term for a decrease in size or a wasting is
Atrophy
153
The medical term for straightening of a body part is
Extension
154
The abbreviation for postprandial blood sugar is
PPBS
155
The medial term for moving a body part away from the body is
Abduction
156
The medial term for bending a body part is
Flexion
157
The medical term for turning the palm backwards
Pronation
158
The medical term for bending backward is
Dorsiflexion
159
The medical term for the abnormal shortening of a muscle is
Contracture
160
The medical term for moving a body part toward the midline of the body is
Adduction
161
The abbreviation of laboratory is
lab
162
The abbreviation for discontinue is
d/c
163
The abbreviation for bedtime or hour of sleep is
hs
164
the abbreviation for above or high is
hyper
165
The abbreviation for hour is
hr or h
166
The abbreviation of electroencephalogram is
EEG
167
The abbreviation for Papanicolaou Smear is
Pap Smear
168
The abbreviation for cancer is
CA
169
The medical term for loss of appetite is
Anorexia
170
The medical term for tube feeding is
Gavage
171
The medical term for sugar in the urine is
Glucosuria
172
The common term for a decubitus ulcer, a pressure sore
Bedsore
173
The abbreviation for temperature, pulse, and respiration is
TPR
174
The word element phlebo means
Vein
175
the word element pneumo means
air, lungs
176
the word element adneo means
Gland
177
the word elements algia, algesia refer to
pain
178
The word elements cardio means
heart
179
the word element cranio means
Skull
180
The word element ectomy mean
Surgical removal
181
The word element emesis means
Vomiting
182
The word element cise means
Cut
183
The word element centesis means
puncture
184
The word element renal means
kidney
185
The word element post means
after
186
The word element osis means
Condition of
187
The word element rhino means
Nose
188
The word element stomato means
Mouth or the ostium uteri
189
The word element super means
Above
190
The abbreviation for toxic shock syndrome is
TSS
191
Erythema refers to
Red Skin
192
The opposite of deep is
Superficial
193
High blood pressure is referred to as
Hypertension
194
Neoplasm refers to
New Growth
195
The abbreviation carb means
Carbohydrates
196
The abbreviation for chief complaint is
CC
197
The abbreviation for gain is
gr
198
What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe or administer controlled substances
Narcotics
199
Physicians with a narcotics license are required to register on June 30 of each year with
Drug Enforcement Agency
200
A drug that causes urination is called
Diuretic
201
A drug used to relieve a cough is called
Antitussive
202
A drug that neutralizes acidity is called
Antacid
203
A drug that controls appetite is called
Appetite Suppressor
204
A drug used to prevent blood from clotting is called
Anticoagulant
205
A drug used to control temperature is called
Antipyretic
206
A drug that reduces anxiety is called
tranquilizer
207
A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a
Vasodilator
208
A drug that decreases congestion is called
Decongestant
209
A drug that causes the pupil of the eye to dilate is called
Mydriatic
210
A date on a bottle of medication that provides a "use until" date is the
Outdate or expiration date
211
A drug that increases urinary output is called
diuretic
212
A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of and oil in water, such as caster oil is called
Emulsion
213
Nitroglycerine is used for
Treatment of angina pectoris
214
Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress
Inflammation
215
Schedule 1 drugs include
Substances that have no accepted medical use and high potential for abuse
216
Schedule IV drugs include
Minor tranquilzers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
217
A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called
Transdermal system
218
The buccal method of administering a drug is done by
Placing the medication between the gum and check
219
Oxygen is ordered a percentage of oxygen concentration and its rate of delivery is written a
Liters per minute
220
A drug that produces sleep is called
hypnotic
221
An inactive substance substituted in place of the actual drug to satisfy that patent is called
Placebo
222
The abbreviation for elixir is
elix
223
The abbreviation of emulsion is
emul
224
the abbreviation for fluid is
fl or fld
225
The abbreviation for ointment is
oint, ung
226
The abbreviation for solution is
sol
227
The abbreviation for suppository is
supp
228
The abbreviation for syrup is
syr
229
The abbreviation for tablet is
tab
230
The abbreviation for tincture is
tinc
231
The abbreviation for intramuscular
IM
232
The abbreviation for injection is
inj
233
The abbreviation for right ear is
AD
234
The abbreviation for both ears is
AU
235
The abbreviation for drops is
gtt
236
The abbreviation for two times a day is
quid
237
When mixing reagents always read the label
Twice
238
The ___ pages of the physician's desk reference is where a medical assistant would be able to locate a medication by brand or generic name
Pink
239
Medications can be located in the physicians drug reference under all the following categories except
composition
240
The physician has ordered 500 mg of a medication the amount on hand is 250 mg per tablet. How many tablets will be given
2 tab
241
The physician has ordered 0.2 Gm of a medication. The amount on hand is 400 mg tabs. How many tablets will be given to the patients
0.5
242
The physicians has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The amount of hand is 100mg/ml. How many cc's of Demerol will be injected
0.5 cc
243
The sebaceous glands, skin, hair and nails make up the ___ system
Integumentary
244
The heart, lymphatic organs, and blood vessels are in the ___ system
Cardiovascular
245
The liver, stomach, mouth and pancreas are in the ___ system
Digestive
246
The bladder, urethra, kidneys, and ureters are in the ___ system?
Urinary
247
In the human body, the senses include all the following except
Teeth
248
The brain, nerves, and the spinal cord are in the ___ system
Nervous
249
The trachea, nose, lungs, and the pharynx are in the ___ system
Respiratory
250
Tendons, joints, bones and cartilages are in the ____system?
Skeletal
251
The upper middle area of the abdomen is called the
Epigastria Region
252
The lower middle area of the abdomen is called the?
hypogastric Region
253
The central middle area of the abdomen is called
Umbilical Region
254
The humerus is located in the
Arm
255
The pubis is located in the
Pelvis
256
The femur is located in the
Leg
257
The patella is located in the
Knee
258
The ulna is located in the
Arm
259
The tibia is located in the
Leg
260
The fibula is located in the
Leg
261
The radius is located in the
Arm
262
The maxilla is located in the
Head
263
The metatarsals is located in the
Foot
264
The metacarpals are located in the
Hand
265
The name for the collar bone is
clavicle
266
The smaller of the lower leg bones is called
Fibula
267
The zygomatic bone is located in the
Head
268
The mandible bone is located in the
Head
269
The sphenoid bone is located in the
Head
270
The vertebrae are located in the
Back
271
Bones are ____.
Built to provide support & structure
272
The study of bones is called
Osteology
273
The majority of the bones in the arms and legs are ___ bones.
Long
274
Bones of the wrist and ankle are called ___ bones
Short
275
The muscle that flexes and supinates the forearm is called
Biceps Brachii
276
The major artery to the head is called
Carotid
277
One of the arteries that supplies the hand and forearm is called the
Ulnar
278
The major artery that supplies the abdomen is called the ___ artery
Celiac
279
The major artery that supplies the thorax is called the ___ artery
Intercostal
280
The major artery that supplies the kidney is called the ___ artery
Renal
281
The major artery that supplies the bladder, rectum and some reproductive organs is called the ____.
Iliac
282
The major artery that supplies the upper arm is called the
Brachial
283
The major artery that supplies the knee is called
Popliteal
284
The major artery that supplies the foot is called the
Dorsalis Pedis
285
The major vein that drains the upper arm is called the
Brachial
286
The major vein that drains blood from the head and brain is called the
Jugular
287
The major vein that drains the liver is called the
Hepatic
288
The major vein that drains the pelvis is called the
Common iliac
289
The point at which air enters the respiratory tract is called
Nasal cavity
290
The wind pipe which conducts air between the larynx and lungs is called the
Trachea
291
The divisions of the trachea which enter the lungs are called the
Bronchi
292
Located between the pharynx and trachea, and containing the vocal cords is the
Larynx
293
The condition of the nasal septum turning away from midline is called a
Deviated Septum
294
The medical name for nose bleed is called
Epistaxis
295
Inflammation of the sinus cavity is called
Sinusitis
296
Inflammation of the pleura is called
Pleurisy
297
Escape of fluid into the thoracic cavity is called
Pleural Effusion
298
Inflammation of the nasal mucosa results in
Rhinitis
299
An accumulation of air in the pleural cavity after the lungs collapse is known as
Pneumothorax
300
Whooping cough is another name for
Pertussis
301
Inflammation of the mucus lining of the vagina is called
Vaginitis
302
Inflammation of the gums is called
gingivitis
303
Lesions of the mucous membrane of the stomach is called ____ ulcers
Gastric
304
A serious chronic disease of the liver is called
Cirrhosis
305
Chronic inflammation of the colon is called
Colitis
306
Inflammation of the gallbladder is called
Cholecystitis
307
Inflammation of the pancreas is called
Pancreatitis
308
Inflammation of the appendix is called
Appendicitis
309
Dilated veins that occur in the rectum are known as
Hemorrhoids
310
When the internal environment of the body is functioning properly, a condition of ___ exist
Homeostasis
311
The science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called
Physiology
312
The lateral movement of the limbs away from the median plane of the body is called
Abduction
313
An extrauterine pregnancy in which the fertilized ovum begins to develop outside the uterus is called
Ectopic
314
The second portion of the small intestine is called
Jejunum
315
One of the vital functions of long bones is the formation of
RBC
316
An unilateral paralysis that follows damage to the brain is called
Hemiplegia
317
The use of ultrasound to produce a picture of the structure of the heart is called
Echocardiography
318
Digestion begins in the mouth, where food is chewed and mixed with a substance called
Saliva
319
The lining of the duodenum is composed of thousands of tiny finger like projections called
Villi
320
Infected pressure sores on the skin are called
Decubitus Ulcers
321
Varicose veins of the anal canal or outside the external sphincter are called
Hemorrhoids
322
Carcinogenic means ___ causing.
Cancer
323
A weakness in the walls of muscle that allows underlying tissue to push through it is called
Hernia
324
A gallbladder disorder involving stones in the gallbladder is
Cholelithiasis
325
Inflammation of the retina is
Retinitis
326
Food that are mild in flavor and easy to digest (non-spicy) comprise is
Bland Diet
327
A tube inserted into one of the patient's nostrils and down the back of the throat, through the esophagus until the end reaches the patient's stomach is an
Nasogastric tube
328
Washing out of the stomach through a nasogastric tube is called
Lavage
329
The healthy adult excretes daily approximately ___ of urine
1000 to 1500 milliliters
330
The inability to control the passage of urine in the bladder is called
Urinary Incontinence
331
Painful voiding is called
Dysuria
332
If the septum of the heart has an abnormal opening it is referred to as
A Septal Defect
333
Branches of the bundle branches, which transmit the impulses to the walls of the ventricles causing the ventricles to contract are called
Purkinje Fibers
334
A coronary occlusion causing a condition that produces chest pain which may radiate to the left arm, shoulder, jaw or neck due to lack of blood supply to the heart is called
Angina Pectoris
335
An obstruction of a coronary artery causing death of an area of the myocardium due to blockage of the blood supply and oxygen supply is called
Myocardial Infraction
336
Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium of the
Heart
337
When the right atrium contract it forces blood through the tricuspid valve into the ___ ventricle
Right
338
The right ventricle pumps the used blood to the lungs by way of the ___ artery
Pulmonary
339
Every medical faculty is required by OSHA to have an exposure control plain
True
340
The exposure control plan shall be made available to the Assistant Secretary and the Director OSHA upon request for examination and copying
True
341
HIV means
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
342
___ mean any contaminated objects that can be penetrate the skin including, but not limited to needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes, and exposed ends of dental wires.
Contaminated Sharps
343
Reasonable anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane or parenteral contract with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employee duties is called ____
Occupational Exposure
344
Any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or other potentially infectious materials may be a sources of occupational exposure to the employee is called
Source Individual
345
To use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospore is to
sterilize
346
___ is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the workplace
Blood
347
The risk of infection with HIV following one needle stick exposure to blood from a patient known to be infected with HIV is approximately
.50%
348
General infection control procedures are designed to prevent transmission of a wide range of ___ and to provide a wide margin of safety in the varied situations encountered in health care environment
Microbiological Agents
349
Contract with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through percutaneous inoculation or contact with an open wound, non intact skin or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties" this definition (found in the Federal Register) applies to
Human Exposure
350
All workers whose jobs involve participation in tasks, or activities with expose to blood or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with ___ vaccine
hepatitis B
351
___ testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who maybe concerned they have been infected with HIV through and occupational exposure.
Serologic
352
Studies suggest that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is
Remote
353
After they used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades, and other sharp items should be placed in ___ containers for disposal
Puncture Resistant
354
Broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up directly with he hands but by mechanical means such as
A brush and dust pan
355
Contaminated laundry shall be ___ where it was soiled
Bagged or containerized at the location
356
All spills of blood contaminated fluids should be promptly cleaned up using ___ approved germicide, or a 1:10 solution of household bleach
an EPA
357
In cases of blood contamination shoe coverings and gloves should be disposed of in
Orange-Red
358
It is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields be worn by laboratory technicians, or housekeeping personnel ___
When cleaning up blood or body fluids
359
Blood from all individuals should be considered
Infective or infectious
360
When taking vital signs, a medical assistant must wear gloves, gown and eye wear
False
361
A specific eye, mouth , other mucous membrane, non intact skin or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employees duties is called
Exposure Incidents
362
The term "universal precautions" is an
Overall approach to infection control
363
Vaccinations against HBV infections provide 90% protection against hepatitis B for ___ or more years following vaccination
7
364
The first line of defense in preventing disease is
the medical hand wash
365
Biohazard labels must be colored
Orange-Red
366
What federal agency requires the use of Sharps Containers
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
367
Viruses can reproduce only in
Living Cells
368
The process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called
Sterilization
369
The autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganism by combining
Heat with steam under pressure
370
What kind of environment do microorganisms grow in best
Dark and warm
371
A disease state that results from the invasion and growth of microorganisms in the body is
An infection
372
Practices to achieve asepsis are known as
Medical asepsis and clean technique
373
The process by which and object or area becomes unclean is
Contamination
374
You should wash your hands for approximately
15 to 20 seconds
375
When you wash your hands you should stand
so your cloths do not touch the sink
376
The faucet is turned off with
a paper towel
377
A health care worker who unconsciously transports harmful bacteria but is not ill is called
Carrier
378
Groups of cluster of bacteria taken for laboratory study are called
Cultures
379
Diseases that can be communicated from one person to another is called
Contagious
380
The patient with an infection may have?
A.Loss of appetite and fatigue,
B.Fever, nausea, rash and vomiting,
C. Pain, redness or swelling
All the above
381
When using a fire extinguisher the hose should be directed to the
Base of the fire
382
Aerobic bacteria prefer which of these environmental conditions to grow well
Oxygen
383
How quickly will an electronic thermometer measure body temperature
2 to 60 seconds
384
Which of the following locations is usually used for taking a pulse
Radial Pulse
385
What is considered a normal adult pulse rate
60 to 100
386
The radial pulse is located in the
Wrist
387
The least reliable measurement of body temperature is
Axillary
388
The most accurate and reliable measurement of body temperature is
rectal
389
what is considered a normal adult respiration per minute
14 to 20
390
A respiratory rate greater than 24 per minute is called
Tachypnea
391
Persistent increased systolic and diastolic pressures are indicative of
Hypertension
392
The blood pressure should not be taken on an arm if
The patient has had breast surgery on that side, on an arm with an IV infusion, on an arm with a cast
393
To measure a blood pressure, the medical assistant will need
a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
394
Which is recorded as the systolic blood pressure
The point where the first sound is heard
395
When measuring blood pressure, which of the following is correct?
the cuff should be applied to the bare upper arm, Room should be quite so that blood pressure can be heard, Sphygmomanometer needs clearly visible
396
With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported tot he
Physician
397
A medical assistant would measure the patient's temperature, pulse and respiration when the physician asks him or her to
Take vital signs
398
Which of the following is used to take an infant's rectal temperature
Security thermometer
399
Never clean a glass thermometer with
Hot Water
400
When the patient is breathing with only the upper part of the lungs this is referred to as
Shallow respiration
401
When the patient makes abnormal noises like snoring sounds when she or he is breathing it is called
Stertorous Respiration
402
When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest, This pressure is called the
Systolic Pressure
403
When listening to the brachial pulse you will use a
Stethoscope
404
The main type of sphygmomanometers used in a clinical setting is the
Aneroid Type
405
When the pressure is lowest, this pressure is called
Diastolic Pressure
406
The process of inhaling and exhaling is called
Respiration
407
When the depth of breathing changes and the rate of the rise and fall of the chest is not steady, it is called
Irregular Respiration
408
When taking the pulse, you must be able to report accurately the
Rhythm of pulse rate, rater (number of pulse beats per minute), Force of the beat
409
The balance between the heat produced and the heat lost is the
Body Temperature
410
A rubber or plastic tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening is called
Catheter
411
The process of inserting a catheter is called
Catheterization
412
When you use an autoclave, fill the water reservoir with
Distilled Water
413
A patient positioned on her back with feet in stirrups is said to be in the
Lithotomy Position
414
A stethoscope is used to listen to body sounds by
Auscultation
415
When the physician feels with fingers or hands to determine the physical characteristics of tissues or organs it is called
Palpation
416
Body temperature measured under the arm of a patient is called the ___ temperature
axillary
417
Listening to the sounds produced while tapping the patient with fingers is called
Percussion
418
The instrument used to examine the eyes is called the
Ophthalmoscope
419
An instrument used for auditory and sensory perception is called the
Tuning Fork
420
An apical pulse is the method of choice for
Infants and young children
421
Which degree of burn is the most serious
Third
422
On a visual acuity reading of 20/60 , what does the 20 represent
Distance between patient and test chart
423
Some clinical signs for head injury could be
Vomiting, Headache, Confusion
424
Lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side is the ___ position
Supine
425
Lying supine with knees sharply flexed and separated is known as the ___ position
dorsal recumbent
426
When a patients feet are placed in stirrups and the buttocks are positioned at the edge of the exam table, the patient is in the ___ patient
Lithotomy
427
When a patient is positioned on the abdomen, arms under the head, with the head turned to one side the patient is in the ___ position
Prone
428
When the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the table with buttocks elevated, it is called the ___ position
Knee-Chest
429
An otoscope is used for examination of the
Ears
430
When measuring blood pressure, the bottom number is called
Diastolic Pressure
431
With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported to the
Doctor
432
A ___ report include information relating to the patient's main reason for scheduling an appointment to see the physician.
History and physical examination
433
The blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by___.
Skin Puncture
434
The standard point of the lancet to be used hen collecting blood from a newborn heel is ___ in length. (Note Please check current guidelines as this changes)
2.4mm
435
The most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is___.
Positively identifying the patient
436
When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good to practice to
Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry
437
To determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the
Smaller
438
An instrument called a centrifuge
Separates the cellular and liquid portion of the blood
439
Rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for.
Multiple use
440
Preparing for a glucose tolerance test___ hours before or during the test, the patient should not eat, smoke, drink coffee or alcohol.
Ten
441
In the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes come in different sizes, and the stoppers are ___ to denote the type of additive or lack of one
Color Coded
442
During a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper, you need a ____.
holder
443
Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture
21-22
444
When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about three to four inches from where you are going to ___ for a vein.
Feel
445
When performing a venipuncture, if you have the patient ___ the veins will become more prominent
Make a fist
446
Which of the following is false:
1. Veins feel like an elastic tube
2. Veins pulsate
3. Veins give under pressure
4. Veins go different directions
Veins pulsate
447
Use your index finger when you ___ for a vein
Palpate
448
Arterioles are the smallest type of
Arteries
449
The maximum time a tourniquet should be tied on the upper arm while drawing blood is
1 minutes
450
To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and ___.
Work in a circle to the periphery
451
The venipuncture site should be cleansed with ___.
An alcohol prep
452
When using a centrifuge, make sure equal weights are___.
Opposite each other
453
The lid to the centrifuge should be kept ___ when in use.
Closed
454
When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a ____.
Red Top Tube
455
When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a ___.
Lavender top evacuated tube
456
When collecting blood for cholesterol tests use a ___ top evacuated tube
Red
457
The primary anticoagulant additive EDTA removes calcium by forming insoluble or un-ionized calcium salts. It has an advantage of preventing platelet clumping and the formation of artifacts, therefore, good for the preparation of ___.
Blood Films
458
Sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain of the ___.
Pro-Coagulants
459
The tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a ___ top.
Lavender
460
The color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is (for collection of serum)
Red
461
At the location where you are going to feel for a vein, wrap the tourniquet around the arm approximately ___ above the area.
Three to four inches
462
The cephalic, medial cubical, and basilica veins are ___ used for venipuncture
Primarily
463
When doing a venipuncture the syringe or tube should be ___ the venipuncture site to prevent back flow
Below
464
When anti coagulated blood is centrifuged ___ goes to the bottom of the tube
Red Blood Cells
465
When collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant you should use a
Lancet
466
The tube used to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count is
Lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraccetic acid additive
467
Which of these lab tests monitor anticoagulation therapy
PT and PTT
468
Which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first
Red
469
Making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patients complete name and identification number is part of the facilities ___ plan
quality control
470
When performing a venipuncture if no blood flows into the tube how would you correct this
Gently insert the need a little deeper, gently pull the needle out just a little, remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site
471
If during a venipuncture a patient has a syncopal episode what you be your best course of action
remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patients head and arms
472
The most appropriate site for performing a capillary puncture in a healthy adult is the
fingers
473
It is very important when performing a capillary stick to do which one of the following
Wipe away the first drop of blood
474
Performing a ___ as part of a complete blood count determines the ration of the volume packed RBC to that of whole blood
Hematocrite
475
___ values are increased in infections and inflammatory disease
Erythrocyte sedimentation rates
476
What type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test
EDTA added
477
How many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the PT
2
478
What type of blood sample is needed when performing a PKU
Capillary
479
A ___ is a small, sterile, needle like piece of metal used to make small punctures in the dermis
Lancet
480
In drug testing the ___ regulates described how evidence is to be collected and handled.
Chain of Custody
481
A ___ requires a patient to be fasting and then blood is taken every hour for a predetermined time
Glucose tolerance test
482
In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed too close together, the amplitude will be
Small
483
The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to___
.20 sec
484
A "V wave" will ___ be seen in the normal EKG.
Never
485
The ___ switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG
Sensitivity
486
When preparing for lead placement you should first care for ___.
Skin Preparation
487
Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called?
Defibrillation
488
Which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?
A. Clean the skin with an alcohol wipe
B. Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode
C. Shave the hair from the skin
D. Roughen the skin for better dermis contact
B. Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode
489
The electrode site should be ___.
Clean, smooth, and dry
490
An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the ___ it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.
Time
491
In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the ___ area.
Adhesive
492
When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called
Absolutely Regular
493
Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components: (1) magnitude or force, and (2)-
Direction or Shape
494
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ___.
Q Wave
495
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called___.
Uniform
496
When applying leads, apply the V1 lead ___.
The fourth intercostal space right sternal border
497
Which fact is true about the P Wave?
A. Duration of the P Wave is not greater than 0.11 sec
B. Height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm
C. No Correct Answer
D. Both A and B
A. Duration of the P Wave is not greater than 0.11 sec
| B. Height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm
498
When PVC's fall on the T Wave occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called ___.
Life Threatening
499
When a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a ___ deflection results
Negative
500
The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead 1 is ____.
Left Arm, Right Arm
501
Concerning ECG's for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is ___.
Unreliable
502
The ___ wave represents atrial depolarization
P
503
While the duration of the ST Segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because ___.
Shifts up or down from the baseline
504
A QRS measurement of less than ____ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.
0.12
505
The area between waves is referred to as ___.
Intervals
506
A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called ___.
Agonal
507
When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ___.
An Arrhythmia
508
A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide, irregular, oscillations of the baseline is called ventricular ___.
Fibrillation
509
The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as ___.
Sinus Arrest
510
A special device called a "regulator" or flow meter" is necessary when using ___.
Oxygen
511
```
Oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a ___.
A. Catheter
B. Cannula
C. Tent
D. All Choices
```
A. Catheter
B. Cannula
C. Tent
512
```
The clean-catch urine specimen is also called?
A. Clean voided specimen
B. 24hr urine specimen
C. Mid stream specimen
D. B & C
```
B. 24hr urine specimen
| C. Mid stream specimen
513
A 24hr urine specimen should be ___.
Chilled/ Refrigerated
514
The fresh fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for ___.
Sugar
515
Another term for acetone in the urine is ___.
Ketone Bodies (Ketones)
516
Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine
Keto Diastix
517
To help classify bacteria into two groups, gram positive and gram negative is a special stain called
Gram Stain
518
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should ____ the first drop
Wipe Away
519
When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them
Air Dry
520
When preparing a blood smear the spreader slide must be made of
Glass
521
Which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count
Edges should be feathered
522
The glucose tolerance test is a ___- test
timed
523
While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and RH are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a ___ screen
Prenatal
524
Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growths
Absence of Oxygen
525
To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the ___ must be swabbed
Nasopharynx and tonsillar area
526
A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which one of the following
Human chorionic gonadotropin
527
When performing any CLIA waived test it is important do to which one of the following
Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter
528
Performing routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical. The maintenance plan should include which one of the following?
A. Regularly scheduled check ups
B. Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts
C. Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth
D. All The Both
A. Regularly scheduled check ups
B. Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts
C. Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth
529
When testing for occult blood which of the following specimens would be required
Stool sample
530
When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
B. The patient should consume 20 oz. of red meat in the four hours prior to the collection
C. The PT should limit dairy
A. Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
531
In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is
Spirometry
