arrt Flashcards
List the order of meningeal layers surrounding spinal cord from most superficial
Dura mater
Arachnoid
Subarachnoid
Pia mater
How much Barium is used to fill the large intestine
1000-2000 mL
Effective dose is used to calculate ____
Risk of cancer
what is the equation for EfD
EfD = D x Wr x Wt
Comparing biological damage is calculated by ___
a. effective dose
b. equivalent dose
B
Which method of radiation measurement consider radiation and tissue types
a. effective dose
b. equivalent dose
A
MCP & MTP joints are what type of articulation?
a. synovial, ellipsoidal
b. synovial, gliding
A
Intervertebral articulations and pubic symphysis are considered what type of joint?
a. diarthoidial
b. symphysis
c. synovial
B
___ projection is used to rule out transverse fx
lateral
3 types of movements for ellipsoidal joint
flex/extend
abduct/adduct
circumduct
decrease in beam intensity
1 HVL = ___
2 HVL = ____
50%
75%
Pain relief =
analgesics
Constipation =
cathartic/laxative
nausea/vomitting =
antiemetics
what 3 bones articulate with temporal bone
- parietal
- occipital
- sphenoid
dorsum sellae is seen in which projection ?
AP Axial Skull (Town method)
what happens to IR exposure when a grid is use
decreased IR exposure bc of a decrease in # photons striking the IR
what is the most superior part of the uterus?
fundus
which position will show pisiform free of superimposition
AP oblique wrist ( not on arrt
(UGI) LPO position will demonstrate which structures
duodenal bulb & C-loop
(UGI) RAO position will demonstrate which structure
duodenum
duodenum is best seen on which position
RAO/LPO
Fold of peritoneum surround the loops of small intestine is called __
mesentery
What 3 structures should be visible on AP humerus
greater tubercle in profile
parallel humeral epicondyle
olecranon process superimpose trochlea
X-axis on histrogram represents
specific exposure values captured by IR
Y-axis on histogram represents
frequency of specific exposure values
Histogram quantization is
measuring signal intensities and convert the to digital values
ROI or VOI represent patient anatomy on a histogram
VOI
Rescaling compensate for ___
underexposure & overexposure
if mAs is lower than expected, which digital process will fix display proper exposure
rescaling
LUT ensure___
ideal brightness and contrast
mucosal lining of stomach is __-
rugae
mucosal lining of large intestine is __
haustrae
Primary barrier is ___
wall behind upright bucky (7Ft)
secondary protective barrier extend to the ceiling with ____ overlap
1/2”
secondary protective barrier are__
lead apron
control booth
____ mm lead eq for lead window by control booth
1.5
Beclere and Holmblad method visualize ___
intercondylar fossa
Settegast & Merchant method visualize ___
patellofemoral joint
increased diagnostic filtration results in (3)
decrease patient dose, contrast, IR exposure.
Atelectasis is ___
total or partial collapse of lung
Empyema is ____
pus in body cavity
what are the side effects of iodine contrast media
flushing
warm feeling
metallic taste
Anaphylactic reactions are ___ (3)
flusing
hives
nausea
Cardiovascular reactions are ___
hypotension
tachycardia
cardiac arrest
Early indicators anaphylaxis shock ___ (3)
bronchospasm
chest tightness
itching (palms/soles)
what is the angle used for axiolateral projection of TMJ
25-30 caudad
Hypovolemic shock caused by ___
caused by large amount of blood loss
Septic shock caused by ___
caused by toxins produced during infection
which 2 bones form the flat bony partition between sides of nasal cavity
ethmoid & vomer
for BE, RAO will show ___
hepatic flexure, ascending colon, sigmoid colon
relationship between beam quality and attenuation
inverse - if quality of beam increase, then attenuation decrease bc beam can penetrate matter without being absorbed
which structure is just distal to tubercles of humerus
surgical neck
PA skull will show petrous ridge
filling orbits
PA caldwell will show petrous ridge
lying in lower 1/3 of orbit
Water will show petrous ridge _____
inferior to maxillary sinus
Early somatic effect of radiation (3)
ARS (acute radiation syndrome)
1. hematopoietic
2. GI
3. CNS
ARS is considered
a. threshold, stochastic
b. threshold, deterministic
c. nonthreshold, stochastic
d. nonthreshold, deterministic
B
threshold dose for 3 organs system response under ARS
1
10
50Gy
Besides ARS, other early somatic effects are __ (3)
cataract
erythema
epilation
double-walled membrane that lined the abdominal cavity is ___
peritoneum
which condition cause pulmonary alveoli to lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated
Emphysema
Thick Barium ____ internal organs
Thin Barium ____ internal organs
coats
fills
Chole-
bile
Cysto-
sac/bladder
-lith
stone
Function of
1.Liver
2. Gallbladder
- produce bile
- store bile
L & R hepatic duct joined to form ___
Common hepatic duct
what duct connected to the gallbladder
cystic duct
Cystic duct and common hepatic duct formed __
common bile duct
___ is a double-folded of peritoneum that connects small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall
mesentery
____ is a double-folded of peritoneum that extends from lesser curvature of stomach to portions of liver
lesser omentum
____ is a double-folded of peritoneum that connects transverse colon to greater curvature of stomach
greater omentum
[UGI] AP scout - CR?
sthenic: ___
hypersthenic: _____
asthenic: ____
- L1
- 2” above L1
- 2” below L1
L or R kidney is lower
R
This reaction is a nonallergic reaction
Mild
Which reaction does not require drug intervention
MILD
what are the 2 most common mild reaction
metallic taste and flushed sensation
An anaphylactic reaction is considered ___
a. moderate
b. severe
Moderate reaction
Vasovagal reaction is considered ___
a. moderate
b. severe
B
Severe reaction results when contrast iodine causes ___
the blood pressure and heart rate to drop.
Extravasation is caused by ___ (2)
- loss of vein access
- needle is improperly placed
Following extravasation, inflammatory response peaks ___ hours
24-48
WIthin 6hrs following extravasation, ___ & ___ occur
ulceration & tissue necrosis
What to do if extravasation is observed? (4 steps)
- notify department
- elevate affected extremity above heart
- use cold compress followed by warm
- document
What is Phlebitis
vein inflammation
Phlebitis happens because ___
administration of IV contrast or vein access
What to do if Phlebitis is observed?
- discontinue
- locate an alternative site above the affected area or opposite side
Radiographer’s response to MILD reaction of contrast
comfort, reassure, and monitor patient
Radiographer’s response to MODERATE reaction of contrast
call for medical assistance & monitor patient
Radiographer’s response to SEVERE reaction of contrast
call a code & notify physician
To reduce the severity of contrast reaction, what kind of premedication is given to patient
antihistamine (benadryl) and prednisone over a period of 12h+
who may be candidate for premedication
pt who has fever, asthma, food allergy
For venipuncture, what kind of consent form is needed
informed
Ideal veins for venipuncture are (3)
median cubital, cephalic, basilic veins
[Venipuncture] Tourniquet is placed ___
3-4” proximal to site
[Pt scheduling] which study should be scheduled last?
Barium studies
[Pt scheduling] put in order sequence of examination from first to last
Endoscopy
UGI
Biliary system -
CT studies -
lower GI -
[contrast media] Properties of positive contrast media (3)
- high atomic number
- high attentuation
- provide low density on radiograph
[contrast media] what is the water temperature for BE ?
100F
Barium escape into peritoneal cavity can cause ___
peritonitis
Iodinated compounds can cause ____
dehydration
[Non ionic vs ionic] Which contrast agent will increase blood plasma osmolality ?
ionic - because cation will ionize and create 2 separate particles in blood
[Non ionic vs ionic] Which contrast agent will provide a lower incidence of contrast reaction
non ionic
[Non ionic vs ionic] what is the difference between these?
nonionic doesnt have cation and stay intact when injected, whereas ionic has cation and anion which will ionize and separate into 2 particles
FOR GI studies, what lab values are important - and its values (3)
BUN : 7-21 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.7-1.5
eGFR: 90-120
what is the chain of infection (6)
pathogen
reservoir
portal of exit
mode of transmission
portal of entry
susceptible host
Reservoir for infection includes: (3)
human, animals, environment
[indirect contact] fomite
object
[indirect contact] vector
organism
How long to rinse off chemicals If they got in contact with
eye: ____
skin: ___
15min
5min w cool water
Gloves must be used when ___ (3)
handle needles.syringes
handle bandages & dressing
assist patient with urinals/bedpans
difference between medical and surgical asepsis
medical is reduce number of pathogens but surgical is complete destruction of pathogens on instruments/ equipment
Esophagus originate at ___
inferior border of cricoid cartilage (C6)
Epiphyseal plate is found between ____
metaphysis & epiphysis
The primary center of ossification is ___
diaphysis
____ of ossification appear after birth
secondary centers
Intramembranous ossification occurs in ____
bones of skull
Endochondral ossification occurs in ____
long bone
____ centers of ossification are mainly cartilaginous and not visible until calcification occurs
secondary
____ center of ossification occur after birth
secondary
Natural curve of T spine is ____
Kyphotic (convex)
Optic foramina located on which bone
sphenoid bone
what parts of gloves are considered sterile
palmar surface and under-folded cuff
which position is the patient placed in after contrast injection for myelogram
Trendelenburg
grid = ____ IR exposure
decrease
CR angle for AP Towne Skull
30 caudad to OML
37 caudad to IOML
Endogenous infection -
nosocomial infection occured as result of overgrowth of normal flora
Exogenous infection -
diseases caused by external sources
Iatrogenic infection -
caused by medical treatment or healthcare prof
WHy would GI system require to be done with iodinated contrast
possible perforation, leakage
Fail to dorsiflex foot for AP oblique ankle will result in ___
superimposition of lateral malleolus and calcaneus
Cavity between lungs is termed
mediastinum
The enema bag should be hung on IV at a distance of __
24” above tabletop
Enema tip should be inserted no more than __
3-4”
another name for radiation tissue rection
determistic
Skeletal survery performed because ___ (3)
- child abuse
- metabolic bone disease
- OI
CR for PA UGI on sthenic patient
MSP between L1 & L2
3 functions of skeletal system
produce blood cells
store calcium
interact w muscles
in which projection of ankle should malleoli be equidistant
AP oblique 15 medial rotation (plane thru malleoli parallel to IR)
What are the cons of fixed kVp system? (2)
provide more scatter
lower contrast
What type of joint is SC ?
Synovial, gliding
Which duct joins common bile duct as it enters small bowel
Pancreatic duct
How far posterior is the sacrum in relation to ASIS?
3.5”
What type of joint is costovertebral joint
Synovial, Gliding
What type of joint is radioulnar
Synovial, piVOT
which kVp system will produce higher-contrast images and increases resolution
variable kVp
What is the pro of variable kVp system
allow small changes in exposure to compensate for variations in body part thickness
What is anatomically programmed radiography system
combine AEC system with exposure factors that correspond to specific anatomical procedures
[AEC] what happened to exposure when appropriate voltage for a diagnostic-quality exposure is reached?
operational amplifier terminate the exposure
[AEC] tight collimation near the chamber location results in ____
a. overexposed image
b. underexposed image
A - because the chamber will think that the tissue is extremely dense, thus increasing the exposure time
[AEC] no collimation will result in ___
a. overexposed image
b. underexposed image
B - because scatter occurs causing AEC to terminate early
[AEC] what part of AEC establish maximum exposure time to prevent overexposure & overheating of xray tube
backup timer
[AEC] Backup timer should be ____% of anticipated manual exposure time
150
[AEC] What happens to the image if the backup timer is too short
underexposed images
Which part of digital radiography control brightness/density?
Rescaling
Which part of digital radiography control grayscale/contrast?
LUT
Which part of digital radiography control brightness/density?
Rescaling
Which part of digital radiography control magnification?
Matrix size or FOV
increase spatial resolution = ___ pixel pitch
decrease
Which part of digital radiography control shape distortion ?
part alignment
high kVp = ____ contrast
low
Large-size object will have:
___ spatial frequency
____ spatial resolution
low
low
Small-size object will have:
___ spatial frequency
____ spatial resolution
high
high
what is modulation transfer function (MTF)
ability to display contrast of anatomic objects in different sizes
MTF =1
This is easily achieved with __-sized objects w ___ spatial frequency
large
Low
MTF = 0, meaning?
no difference in brightness level
Ideally, do we want high or low MTF
HIGH
what is DQE
how efficient IR convert xray exposure to quality image
high DQE = ___ exposure required = ___ patient dose
low
low
DQE is affected by ___
type of material used in image receptor
Grid is used when:
part thickness is ___
more than ___kVp is used
10cm
60kvp
why can grid reduce IR exposure
it absorbs scatter as well as some of the transmitted radiation
when grid is used, what must be adjusted to maintain exposure
mAs
Grid ratio to GCF
no grid: ___
5:1: ___
6:1: ____
8:1:____
12:1:___
16:1___
1-6
If a grid is used but no changes in mAs, it could result in ?
quantum noise or excessive patient exposure
what is fog
unwanted exposure that reaches IR & decreases image quality
which type of grid pattern allow the angulation of x-ray tube
linear
which grid is primarily used in fluoro
parallel
what is grid focus
orientation of lead lines
which type of grid matches the beam divergence of xray
focused grid
GCF equation
mAs with grid/ mAs without grid
high grid ratio = ___ grid cutoff
more
which type of grid errors result in decrease exposure along the outer edge of the image (3)
1.upside down
2. off-focus
3. off-angulation
which type of grid errors result in decrease exposure across the image (2)
off-level
off-center
which type of grid cutoff results when the tube or grid being angled
off-level
another name for lateral decentering is
off-center grid cutoff
off-center grid cutoff occurs when ___
Xray beam is not aligned or centered to one side of a focused grid
Off-focus grid cutoff occurs when __
SID is out of focal range
A stationary grid can result in which artifact
Moire effect
How to fix Moire effect
higher grid frequency & moving grid
Increase in AEC response time = ___ (3)
- decrease in kVp
- increase part thickness
- increase SID
flow rate of drip infusion
10-20
kVp ONLY has effect on ____ (2)
IR & contrast
Exposure of embryo to radiation from ____ result in congenital abnormalities
10d-6w ( organogenesis)
Exposure of embryo to radiation from ____ result in microcephaly or decrease in IQ
6w-birth (fetal period)
25-gauge needle is best used for ___ injection
subcutaneous
Which route of administration involve needle and syringe
parenteral
___ route produce more rapid onset of reaction than __ route
parenteral
oral
which route of administration is through spinal canal?
a. intrathecal
b. parenteral
c. antegrade
A
single-phase generators have ___% ripple factor
100
100% ripple factor means ____
voltage drops to 0 during xray exposure
bit depth related to ____
a. contrast resolution
b. spatial resolution
A
a response is known to occur during ___
a. stochastic effect
b. deterministic effect
b
___ affect subject contrast
a. filtration
b. grid
c. mAs
d. OID
e. all of the above
Filtration
___ affect image contrast
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
B D F G H K
Air-gap technique can be used in place of a grid due to ____
beam divergence
which bones comprise of the orbit (7)
frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, lacrimal, maxilla, zygoma, palatine
most cell damage from ionizing radiation occurs when x-ray interact with __
water molecules
Which component can substitute for Vidicon camera
CCD
[Inverse square law] If the distance is doubled, then exposure ___
decreased to 1/4 of original value
[Inverse square law] If distance is reduced by half, then intensity___
quadruples
The purpose of mA selector (Rheostat)
adjust filament temperature
To double exposure, ___
increase kVp by 15%
[15% rule] TO maintain IR exposure, increase kVp by 15% = ____
reduce mAs by half
Factors affect quantity (4)
mAs
kVp
distance
filtration
factors affect quality (2)
kVp
filtration
subcutaneous site for drug injection: (4)
abdomen, back & outer thigh & upper arm
sampling frequency related to ___
pixel size or spatial resolution
increase pixel size = ___ sampling frequency
decrease
Evaluation criteria for no tilt on PA chest
T4 superimposed manubrium
Evaluation criteria for no rotation on PA chest
Sternal ends of clavicles are equidistant
Subject contrast is determined by (3)
- energy of xray beam
- amount of irradiated material
- type of irradiated material
increase in quantum mottle = ___ field size
decrease because collimation reduce the amount of x-ray photon reaching the IR
AP axial of Cspine must demonstrate
C3-T2
High LET = ____ RBE
high
What are the types of personnel dosi? (4)
- OSL
- Film badges
- TLDs
- Pocket ionization chambers
which type of dosi is the most common type
OSL
OSL contains what kind of detector film
aluminum oxide
OSL dosi needed to be changed every ___
1-3months
OSL is scanned by ____ for read out
laser
what are the advantages of OSL (3)
- lightweight
- easy to carry
- not affected by heat, moisture, pressure
Film Badge record _____
whole body exposure accumulated at low dose
difference between the filters inside OSL & Film badge
OSL: allow for different degrees of attenuation
Film badge: allow for measurement of energy of radiation
which dosi can determine if exposure is from scatter or primary beam
film badge
TLD contains _____ as the sensing material
crystalline form of lithium fluoride
Energy in TLD is released by ____ and release ___ to indicate dose
heat
visible light
which dosimeter only got read once and cant be affected by external factors
TLD
which dosimeter need to be read everyday for accuracy
pocket ionization chamber
Eq dose limit for fetus ___ per ___
0.5 mSv/ month
Eq dose limit for student
1 mSv
[NCRP] Xray tube = ____
0.25mm Al eq
[NCRP] Bucky slot cover = ____
0.25 Ld eq
[NCRP]gloves= ____
0.25 Ld eq
[NCRP]gonads= ____
0.25 Ld eq
[NCRP] curtain = ____
0.25 Ld eq
[NCRP] thyroid = __
0.5 mm Ld eq
[NCRP] Fluoro apron = __
0.5 mm Ld eq
[NCRP] window barrier = __
1.5 mm Ld eq
[NCRP] glasses = __
0.35 mm Ld eq
[NCRP] medical XR tube = ___
2.5 mm Al eq filtration
what is annual effective dose for occupational and student > 18years old?
50 mSv
what is the dose for public frequent vs infrequent
fre: 1 mSv
inf: 5 mSv
___ effect is directly related to dose
deterministic
____ effect is randomly occurring in which the chance of effect is proportional to dose received
Stochastic
Purposes of primary beam restriction (collimation) (4)
- decrease patient dose
- decrease scatter
- increase contrast
- increase quantum noise IF no adjustment in mAs
Collimator misalignment should be less than ___ of SID used
2%
Maximum air kerma rate for fluoro is ____ R/min
10R/min
DAP (Dose-area product) measure ___
exposure in air, followed by estimated absorbed dose)
Brightness gain is ___
an expression of image intensifier tube conver x-ray into light
FLux gain is expressed as ___
photon @ output/ photon @input
Purpose of input phosphor? which material is used?
convert xray into visible light
cesium iodide
Purpose of photocathode and material used
convert light into electron
cesium antimony
Purpose of output phosphor & material used
convert electron to light
zinc cadmium sulfide
what part of the image intensifier keep the electron stream narrowed
focusing lenses
Disinfectants vs antiseptics which one used to eliminate the growth of microorganisms
antiseptics
1 disadvantage of PACS through a web-based network
if internet is slow, images take longer to access
oblique projection of 2nd toe, foot should be rotated ___
30-45 medially
[Waters] if petrous ridge superimpose maxillary sinus, what must be done to correct the positioning
raise the chin to make OML 37 degree with IR
[quality control test] adjacent mA stations should be within ___ of one another
10%
[quality control test] when exposure reproducibility is tested, variation in radiation intensity should not ___
be more than 5%
[quality control test] to ensure collimator is providing appropriate safety, it must be within ___
2% of SID
[quality control test] penetrating ability, must be within ___
5%
{fluoro} this feature automatically adjust kVp & mAs during fluoro
automatic gain control
ionization is the removal of:
a. electron from the nucleus
b. electron from the atom’s orbit
B
the distance from peak to peak of sine waves is _
wavelength
max height of a wave is ___
amplitude
step-down transformer is used to ____ (2)
decrease voltage
increase current
what is the primary purpose of filtering x-ray beam
safety
full-wave rectification produces ___
pulsating DC
Line focus principle states that ____ actual focal spot
____ effective focal spot
large
small
[xray tube] purpose of vacuum
prevent electrons from colliding with atoms of gas
[xray tube] purpose of tube housing
restrict leakage radiation and provide electrical insulation
Synarthroses (aka ____) is ____
fibrous joint - generally immovable
Amphiarthroses (aka ____) is ____
cartilaginous joint - slightly movable
Diathroses(aka ____) is ___
synovial - freely movable
example of synarthroses
skull suture
examples of amphiarthroses
intervertebral disk
pubic symphysis
[JOINT] Hand, wrist, forearm, elbow, ankle are ____
synovial, diarthroses
[type of joint movement] IP joints are ___
ginglymus (hinge)
[type of joint movement] MCP/ MTP joints are ___
ellipsoidal (condyloid)
[type of joint movement] CMC / TMT joints are ___
plane (gliding)
acetabulum is formed by which bones
ilium, ischium, pubic
tubercle of ribs articulate with ____
costal facets of transverse process
head of ribs articulate with ___
demi-facet of vertebral body
Lateral L spine demonstrate _____(3)
IVF
spinous process
disc spaces
Oblique L spine desmontrate
articular facets (Z- joint)
os coxae (aka___) are found in ____
innominate bone
pelvis
[quality control test] ESE dose is __
100 mGya/min
[quality control test] CR plate must be erased at least every ___
48hours
[quality control test] CR reader is calibrated ___
annually
which spine is Lordotic (concave curvature)
C & L spine
___ & ___ has convex curvature
T & sacrum
cathode side should be placed over which part of spine
a. thoracolumbar
b. cervical
A
purpose of expiration for t-spine
reduce air volume in thorax for a more uniform brightness and density
orthostatic breathing requires ___
min of 2-3s of exposure time with low mA setting
[t-spine] patient with wide hip will require support ___
under waist to prevent sag
[t-spine] patient with broad shoulder will require___
10-15 cephalic CR angle
the ability to produce quality radiograph using wide range of technical factors
exposure latitude (radiographer)
the range of exposure captured by detector is ___
dynamic range
___used for contrast enhancement
histogram equalization
