Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DRUG NAMES > 1 > Flashcards

1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the treatments for huntingtin’s

A

tetrabenazine
chlorpromazine
haloperidol, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is tetrabenzaine

A
  • HD treatment
  • Inhibitor of vesicular monoamine uptake (VMAT)
  • Decreases dopamine, less facilitation of movement-
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is chlorpromazine

A
  • HD treatment
  • DA antagonist, antipsychotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What drugs can treat moderate Alzheimer’s

A

Tacrine
Donepezil
Rivastigmine
Galantamine
All have cholinergic side effects!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

memantine

A

What is prescribed if acetylcholine esterase inhibitors can’t be tolerated in Alzheimer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is used in conjunction with L-DOPA in PD

A

Carbidopa and benserazide
Don’t cross BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Entacapone and tolcapone

A

PNS drugs for PD treatment
COMT inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are CNS drugs for PD treatment

A
  • Tolcapone inhibits COMT, increases dopamine availability
  • Selegiline and rasagiline - MAOb, increase DA availability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pramipexole and ropinirole

A

DA agonists used to treat PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Benztropine and phencyclidine

A

mAChR antagonists can used to treat PD
difficult to manage side effects as non-selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

amantadine

A

mechanisms not understood
NMDA inhibitor that treats PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What amfetamines are used medically

A

ADHD
modafinil - a2 adrenoreceptor activation, release of 5-HT. bad side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Convulsants

A

Pentylenetetrazol, penicilin, bicuculline, gabazine, strychnine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pentylenetetrazol

A
  • induce seizures
  • GABAa receptor antagonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

penicilin

A
  • anti-GABA activity
  • used widely as a seizure inducing agent to test anti-convulsives
  • does not cross BBB, applied directly to cortical surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

strychnine

A
  • induces seizures by acting as a glycine antagonist
  • small doses given as ‘tonic’ give rise to ‘risus sardonicus’ - facial muscle tetany
  • alkaloid from seed of tree nux vomica
  • glycine acts as pentameric ligand-gated Cl- channel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

action of NSAIDs

A
  • inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2
  • anti-inflammatory, anti-pyretic
  • analgesic activity COX-2
  • GI issues with COX-1
  • COX-2 role in CNS unclear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

neuropathic treatments

A
  • capsaicin - licensed for symptomatic relief
  • lidocaine - localised pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

opioids - agonist, antagonist, mixed

A

morphine, naloxone, buprenophine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

buprenophine

A
  • opioid
  • partial agonist
  • reduced abuse potential
  • withdrawals not bad
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

nalorphine

A
  • opioid
  • delta, kappa partial agonist
  • some analgesia, low abuse potnetial
  • depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

pentazocine

A
  • opioid
  • combines mu antagonism and kappa agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

tramadol

A
  • opioid
  • weak mu agonist
  • weak inhibitor of monoamine reuptake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

naloxone

A
  • 1st opioid discovered
  • competitive antagonist of all 3 opioid receptors
  • little effect if given alone, can reverse all affects of full agonists
  • used to treat respiratory depression in overdoses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how do you treat status epilepticus

A

Benzos: lorazepam, midazolam, diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Na+ channel blockers and what for?

A

epilepsy
- phenytoin
- carbamazepine
- lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Phenytoin

A

Na+ channel blocker
stabilises Na.v channels in inactivated state
effective in tonic clonic and partial
worsens absence and myoclonic

28
Q

Side effects of phenytoin

A

teratogenic, risk of lupus, cerebellar atrophy, acne, gingival overgrowth

29
Q

Carbamazepine

A
  • blocks Na+
  • first line for focal
  • mood stabiliser, used for neuropathic pain
  • also induces CYP3A4
30
Q

Carbamazepine side effects

A

teratogenic
risk of lupus
worsens juvenile epilepsy

31
Q

Lamotrigine

A
  • anti-convulsant
  • sedation
  • sleep distrubances
  • rash
31
Q

Lamotrigine

A
  • Na+ channel blocker
  • 1st line treatment for tonic-clonic!
  • 2nd line for absence
  • can worsen myoclonic
  • used to treat bipolar
32
Q

Which benzodiazepines act on GABAA receptors in epilepsy

A

Clobazam - adjunct, treats anxiety
Clonazepam - refractory epilepsy, acts on Ca2+
Diazepam - status epilepticus

33
Q

Tiagabine

A
  • Anti-convulsant
  • GAT1 inhibitor
  • Side effects = sedation, dizziness
34
Q

Vigabatrin

A
  • Anti-convulsant
  • irreversible GABAr inhibitor
  • Sabril
  • Adjuvant medication
  • short plasma half life, once daily is okay
    side effects = visual disturbances, teraogenic
35
Q

Sodium valproate

A
  • Anti-convulsant
  • extremely useful, bad side effects
  • 1st line treatment but don’t know its mechanism
  • also used for bipolar
  • bad teratogenic
36
Q

Side effects of sodium valproate

A
  • liver toxicity
  • powerful teratogen
  • autistic disorders, anencephaly, spina bifida, limb defects
  • cognitive changes
  • foetal valproate syndrome
37
Q

Example of gabapentinoids

A

Gabapentin/pregabalin

38
Q

What does gabapentin do

A
  • anti-convulsants
  • similar structure to GABA
  • acts on a2d subunit of Ca channel
  • increases GAD levels too
  • street drugs now - gabbies
39
Q

Ca2+ channel blockers

A

Ethosuximide, topiramate

40
Q

Ethosuximide

A
  • anti-convulsant
  • Ca2+ blocker
  • 1st choice for absence
  • can worsen others
  • side effects = sedation, nausea
41
Q

Levetiracetam

A
  • anti-convulsant
  • adjunct for focal
  • mechanism unknown
  • reduces NT release
  • focal, myoclonic and tonic-clonic
  • stevens-johnson syndrome
42
Q

Topiramate

A
  • anti-convulsant
  • adjunct for focal
  • potentiation of GABAa
  • blocks AMPA and kainate
  • blocks Na and Ca channels
  • inhibits carbonic anhydrase
43
Q

Old monoamine oxidase inhibitor drugs

A

Phenelzine, tranylcypromine, isocarboxazid
Very effective in MDD and bipolar
cause cheese reaction

44
Q

Newer monoamine oxidase inhibitors

A

molobemide
reversible, no dietary reactions
fewer adverse effects

45
Q

SSRIs

A

fluoxetine
citalopram, paroxetinem sertraline

46
Q

SNRIs

A

venlafaxine, duloxetine

47
Q

NRIs

A

reboxetine, atomoxetine

48
Q

Tricylic anti-depressants

A

amitryptiline, nortriptyline, imipramine

49
Q

What does mirtazapine do

A
  • noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant (NaSSA)- acts on receptors rather than reuptake system
  • antagonist of a2 adrenoreceptors and 5HT2A receptors
  • highly sedating (H2)
  • faster onset than other anti-depressants
50
Q

newer treatments of MDD

A

esketamine and ketamine
psychedelics
agomelatine

51
Q

bipolar treatments

A

mood stabilisers
- lithium
- anticonvulsants (lamotrigine, valproate)
- olanzipine

52
Q

1st line treatments for schizophreniza

A

Risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine

53
Q

What does chlorpromazine do

A
  • old anti-psychotic
  • also used for huntingtin’s
  • first effective psychotic
  • side-effects - sedative, galactorrhea
54
Q

Aripiprazole

A
  • anti-psychotic
  • partial D2 agonist
  • 3rd gen
  • benign side effects
55
Q

Risperidone

A
  • 2nd gen anti-psychotic
  • moderate risk of EPS and can cause sedation and weight gain
  • galactorrhea
56
Q

Haloperidol

A
  • anti-psychotic
  • antiemetic and tourette’s too
  • lower sedative effects, higher risk of EPSP
57
Q

Clozapine

A
  • anti-psychotic
  • useful for treatment-resistant patients
  • agranulocytosis (WBC death)
58
Q

Barbiturates

A
  • many derivatives
  • -barbital suffix
  • historically widely used as anxiolytics, anticonvulsants, sedatives, anaesthetic
  • fallen out of favour due to danger of OD
59
Q

Barbiturate mechanism of action

A
  • positive allosteric modulator of GABAA receptor
  • at higher concentrations can directly activate the receptor
  • inhibit AMPA
60
Q

Current uses for barbiturates

A

medically - thiopental. induction agent in general anaesthesia
criminal justice - lethal injections. sodium thiopental

61
Q

Name four benzodiazepine agonists

A
  • Flunitrazepam
  • Diazepam
  • Tamazepam
  • Nitrazepam
    Highly addictive, increase GABAa receptor opening
62
Q

What are examples of benzodiazepine inverse agonist

A
  • proconvulsants
  • anxiogenics
63
Q

Clinical uses for benzodiazepines

A

used to be 1st line treatments for anxiety and sleep disorders, due to tolerance and dependence issue they are used less now

64
Q

what drugs were identified in the 90s with the aim of treating anxiety without the sedative effects

A

Bretazenil, Alpidem and ocinaplon

DRUG NAMES (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions