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1. Flashcards

1
Q

(AB)
- different, extreme, unusual perpahps bizarre and strange to others.

A

Deviance

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2
Q

(AB)
- situation or feelings are unpleasant and upsetting to the person itself and others around you.

A

Distress

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3
Q

(AB)
- manifestation is already interfering with the persons daily functioning . Unable to conduct daily activities in a constructive way.
- manifestations makes daily activities interrupted.

A

Dysfunction

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4
Q

(AB)
- Dangerous to oneself or others.
- it can either make others be in danger or disturb them.

A

Danger

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5
Q

(AB)
- this is the length of the symptoms or manifestation to someone.

  • the length of how long the symptoms lasts
A

Duration

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6
Q

(AB)
- Totality of people dispalying the disorder.

A

Prevalence

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7
Q

(AB)
-Represents the unique combination of behaviors thoughts and feelings that make up a specific disorder

A

Clinical description

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8
Q

(ABPSY)
-Number of new cases of a disorder appearing during a certain period

A

Incidence

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9
Q

(ABPSY)
- tend to last a long time, sometime a life time

A

Chronic

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10
Q

(AB)
-Whre the individual is likely to recover within a fer mos. Only to suffer a recurrence of the disorder at a later time

A

Episodic

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11
Q

(AB)
-The disorder will improve w/out treatment in a relatively short period

A

Time - limited

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12
Q

(AB)
- disorder that begins suddenly.

A

Acute onset

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13
Q

((AB)
-Disorder that develops gradually over an extended period

A

Insidous onset

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14
Q

(AB)
-Set of symptoms that tend to occur together

A

Syndrome

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15
Q

(AB)
-Predicted development of a disorder over time.

Good (?) Bad(?)

A

Prognosis
Good - may effect yung intervention
Bad - walang improvement hence having the intervention

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16
Q

(AB)
-Label that we attach to a set of symptoms that tend to occur together.
- the process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets all criteria for a psychological disorder.

A

Diagnosis

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17
Q

(AB)
-The study of origins, has to do w/ why a disorder begins ( what causes it??) That includes biological, psychological and social dimensions.

A

Etiology

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18
Q

(AB)
-Is a procedure designed to change abnormal behavior into more normal behavior.

A

Therapy / treatment

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19
Q

(AB)
- A negative mood states characterized by bodily symptoms of physical tension and by apprehension about the future
- unpleasant feeling about a situation
- can be subjective sense of unsafe, a set of behaviors of looking worried, anxious, fidgeting or a psychological response originating in the brain and reflected in elavated heart rate and muscle tension.

A

Anxiety

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20
Q

(AB)
1. Includes disorder that share features of excessive fear and anxiety and related behavioral disturbances.
- fear an anxiety affective daily life

A

Anxiety Disorder

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21
Q

(AB)
1. Excessive anxiety and worry, occuring more days than not for atleast 6 mos., About a number of events or activities ( such as work or school performance )
2. The anxiety and worry are also associated with 3 of the ff 6 symptoms ( w/ at least some symptoms having been present for more days than not for the past 6mos.)

– 1 item is required for a child.
1. Restlessness or feeling keyed up ot on edge.
2. Being easily fatigued.
3.difficulty in concentrating or mind going blank
4.irritability.
5. Muscle tension
6. Sleep disturbance - difficulty falling or staying a sleep or restless, unsatisfying sleep)

A

General Anxiety Disorder ( GAD )

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22
Q

(AB)
Temperamental factors for GAD

A
  • behavioral inhibition, negative affectivity, harm avoidance, reward dependence and attentional bias to threat have been associated w/ GAD.
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23
Q

(AB)
Environmental factors for GAD

A

Childhood adversities and parenting practices ( eg overprotection, over control and reinforcement avoidance)

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24
Q

(AB)
Genetic and physiological factors for GAD

A

The genetic factors overlap w/ risk of neuroticism and are shared w/ other anxiety and mood disorder particularly MDD.

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25
Q

(AB)
-is a personality variable that involves the experience of negative emotions and poor self-concept.
- this subsumes a variety of negative emotions, including anger, contempt, disgust, guilt, fear, and nervousness.

A

Neuroticism/ negative affectivity

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26
Q

(IO)
- a german experimental psychologist
- interested in various personnel selection techniques and job design to improve employee motivation and performance.

A

Hugo Munsterberg

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27
Q

(IO)
- pioneer in industrial psychology especially marketing
- interested in salespersons and the psychology of advertising

A

Walter Dill Scott

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28
Q

(IO)
- an engineer and invetor who is considered as the father of scientific management.
- concepts paved the way for industrial engineering and production management
- proponent of time and motion studies

A

Fredrick Taylor

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29
Q

(IO)
- followers of Fredrick Taylor
-1.expanded the time and motion study
-2 focused on human factor

A

The Gilbreths (frank 1) ( lilian 2)

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30
Q

(IO)
-A distink motion that a worker makes per measurement of time

A

Therblig

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31
Q

(IO)
Created intelligence test for the army recruits in ww1

A

Robert Yerkes

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32
Q

(IO)
- study the effect of work context in job productivity.
- proponent of Hawthorne effect and negative Hawthorne effect

A

Elton Mayo

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33
Q

(IO)
What is Hawthorne effect and negative Hawthorne effect?

A

Hawthorne effect - productivity increased when a third party observer is present.

Negative - productivity decreases when a third party observer is present that may result in negative consequences.

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34
Q

(IO)
Human relations movement

A

Socialization is important factor to ensure job productivity of an employee

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35
Q

(IO)
- also known as work analysis.
- the systematic study of the nature of a job and all the competencies required to successfully perform it.
- foundation of all thuman resources activities.

A

Job Analysis

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36
Q

(IO)
- a detailed summary of the task, job requirements and outputs of a job.

  • usually 2 to 5 pages
A

Job Description

37
Q

(IO)
- A process determining the value or worth of a job to the company.
- used to determine appropriate compensation, wages or benefits.

A

Job Evaluation

38
Q

(AB)
- Occur repeatedly and w/out apparent reason.
- experience dysfunctional changes in their thinking or behavioral as a result of attack

A

Panic Disorder

39
Q

(AB)
-Represents the alarm response of real fear, but there is no actual danger

  • this a are periodic, short bouts of panic that occur suddenly reach a peak within 20mins and gradually pass.
A

Panick attack

40
Q

(AB)
1. Unexpected without warning.
2. Situationally bourd. ( Always occuring in a specific situation )
3. Situationally predisposed ( /likely but unpredictable in a specific situation)

  • attacks may feature at least 4 of the ff. Symptoms of panic.

-palpitations of the heart
- tingling in the hands or feet
- shortness of breath
-sweating, hot and colde flashes
-ches pains
-chocking sensations.
- faintness
- dizziness
- trembling
+ Feeling of unreal

A

Panic attack

41
Q

(AB)
Temperamental factor for Panic Dis

A
  • negative affectivity ( proneness to experience negative emotions )
  • anxiety sensitivity - the disposition to believe that symptoms of anxiety are harmful
  • behavioral inhibitions and harm avoidance are risk factors for the onset of panic attackals and panic disorder
  • history of fearful spells ( attack does not keet the full criteria for a panic attacks) may be a ridk factor for.later panic attacks and panic disorder, particularly when the first experience is apparaise as negative
  • sepanclx in childhood, especially when severe may be preced the later development of panic disorder, it is not a consistent risk factor
42
Q

(AB)
Environmental factors for Panic Dis

A
  • most individual report identifiable stressors
43
Q

(IO)
- A short list of the minimum qualifications that a worker should have to perform a job

A

Job Specification

44
Q

(IO)
- The assignment of goals and tasks that employees are expected to accomplish
- Refers to how jobs are organized in terms of the tasks, responsibilities, work schedule, and level of authority

A

Job Design

45
Q

(IO)
METHODS of JOB ANALYSIS (13 METHODS)

A
  • SELF REPORT
  • JOB PARTICIPATION
  • JOB DIARIES
  • OBSERVATION
  • INTERVIEWS
  • DOCUMENT REVIEW
  • SURVEY
  • JOB ELEMENT METHODS
  • CIT
  • PAQ
  • JOB STRUCTURE PROFILE
  • FUNCTIONAL JOB ANALYSIS
  • AMMERMAN TECHNIQUE
46
Q

(IO)
SELF REPORT

A
  • By job incumbents
  • Has the problem of worth inflation that can be solved through job participation
47
Q

(IO)
- JOB PARTICIPATION

A
  • Having the job analyst perform the actual job to get firsthand understanding of the complexity of the job.
48
Q

(IO)
- JOB DIARIES

A
  • A record of the employees’ daily activities
  • Advantage: highly detailed, accurate
  • Disadvantage: time-consuming
49
Q

(IO)
- OBSERVATION

A
  • Two types: direct or indirect
  • Can be obtrusive or unobtrusive
  • Ideal in analyzing jobs that involve physical work
50
Q

(IO)
- INTERVIEWS

A
  • Most widely used method of job analysis
  • Explore in depth by asking probing questions
  • Potential interviewees: job incumbents, supervisors, or SMEs
  • Should be done in two phases:
    1) exploratory one-on-one interview and
    2) FGD with all the interviewees to clarify the tasks involved and the job specifications
51
Q

(IO)
- DOCUMENT REVIEW

A
  • Using preexisting documents that can help in analyzing a job
  • Making use of attendance records, performance
    evaluation results, and past job descriptions
52
Q

(IO)
- SURVEY

A
  • Using self-made or commercialized tests that ask about the general requirements of a job
  • Advantage: synthesis of data, highly customizable
  • Disadvantage: lengthy, tedious to accomplish
53
Q

(IO)
- JOB ELEMENT METHODS

A
  • Identifies the basic competencies or KSAOs needed to perform a job
  • Relies heavily on the assessment of SMEs
54
Q

(IO)
CRITICIAL INCIDENT TECHNIQUE (CIT)

A
  • this is by John Flanagan
  • Records specific employee behaviors that have led to successful or unsuccessful job performance
  • Also involves the job incumbents, supervisors, and SMEs
  • Should be accompanied by qualitative analysis through the aide of interviews and surveys
  • Real purpose: determining the competencies needed to successfully perform a job
55
Q

(IO)
- POSITION ANALYSIS QUESTIONNAIRE (PAQ)

A
  • Analyzes jobs in terms of 187 items divided into 6
    categories:
  • Information input
  • Mental processes
  • Work output
  • Relationship with persons
  • Job context
  • Other job characteristics
56
Q

(IO)
John Flanagan

A

proponent of CIT ( MEthod of Job analysis)

57
Q

(IO)
- JOB STRUCTURE PROFILE

A
  • Revised version of the PAQ
  • Major changes: 1) item and content style, 2) addition of
    new items to increase discriminatory power, and 3)
    emphasis on job analyst, not job incumbent, as the user
58
Q

(IO)
- FUNCTIONAL JOB ANALYSIS

A
  • Originally made to aide in the construction of the
    Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT)
  • DOT → O*NET
  • Uses broad categories– Data, People, and Things
59
Q

(IO)
- AMMERMAN TECHNIQUE

A
  • Convening a panel of experts and having them identify the standards that a worker should meet for a job
  • Such standards are graded according to their level of importance
60
Q

(IO)
-JOB TITLE

A
  • the name of the job
61
Q

(IO)
-Job Summary

A
  • an overview of the job
62
Q

(IO)
- Principal Responsibilities

A
  • usually 10 key activities required in the job
63
Q

(IO)
- Performance Standards

A
  • the Key Result Areas (KRA)
64
Q

(IO)
- Constraints

A
  • authority or decision-making limits
65
Q

(IO)
- Compensation Information

A
  • financial scope of the job
66
Q

(IO)
- Contacts

A
  • line of communication in the job
67
Q

(IO)
- Job Context

A
  • the job’s environment
68
Q

(IO)
-Job Specifications

A
  • the minimum qualifications required
69
Q

Competencies

A
  • the KSAOs
70
Q

(IO)
- when should a job description should be updated?

A
  • should be updated if there have been significant changes in the performance or in the nature of the job itself.
71
Q

(AB)
- encompasses the group of disorders in which the primary clinical deficit is in cognitive function, and that are acquired rather that developmental.

A

NEUROCOGNITIVE DISORDERS

72
Q

(AB)
A. a disturbance in attention ( reduced ability to direct, focus, sustain and shift attention ) accompanied by reduced awareness of the environment.
B. The disturbance develops over a short period of time (usually hours to a few days), represents a change from baseline attention and awareness, and tends to fluctuate in severity during the course of the day
> ABRUPT YUNG ONSET OR SUDDEN YUNG SYMPTOMS
> SHORT PERIOD OF TIME AND DURATION AND REVERSIBLE
C. An additional disturbance in cognition (memory deficit, disorientation, language, visuospatial ability or perception).
D. the disturbances in Criteria A and C are not better explained by preexisting, established or evolving neurocognitive disorder and don not occur in the context of a severely reduced level of arousal, such ad coma.
There is evidence from the history, physical examination, or laboratory findings that the disturbance is a direct physiological consequence of another medical condition, substances intoxication or withdrawal (due to a drug of abuse or to a medication) or exposure to a toxin, or is sure to multiple etiologies.

A

DELIRIUM

73
Q

(AB) - NCD
- Lasting few hours or days.

A

Acute

74
Q

(AB) - NCD
- Lasting weeks or months.

A

Persistent

75
Q

(AB - NCD
- The individual has a hyperactive level of psychomotor activity that may be accompanied by mood lability, agitation and/or refusal to cooperate with medical care.

A

Hyperactive

76
Q

(AB) - NCD
- The individual has hypoactive level of psychomotor activity that may be accompanied by sluggishness and lethargy that approaches stupor.

A

Hypoactive

77
Q

(AB) - NCD
- The individual has a normal level of psychomotor activity even though attention and awareness are disturbed. Also includes individual whose activity level rapidly fluctuates

A

Mixed level of activity

78
Q
  • RISK AND PROG FACTORS
    • Delirium may be increased in the context of functional impairment, preexisting cognitive impairment, sensory impairment ( vison ,hearing), increasing age, illness severity or comorbidity, infection, depression, history of stroke, and history of alcohol use.
    • Both major and mild NCD’s can increase the risk for delirium and complicate the course.
    • Falls may be an outcome of delirium but not found to be a risk factor
    > may not be a risk but a outcome or consequence to have delirium
    • In a meta-analysis of studies from 1990 through 2016, anticholinergic use was not a validated predictor of delirium.
    • Older individuals are especially susceptible to delirium compared with younger adults.
    • Among children, susceptibility to delirium in infancy and through childhood may be associated with significant childhood morbidity and mortality, whereas individuals in early adulthood through mid-adulthood may have less susceptibility to delirium and lower mortality risk.
A

RISK AND PROG FACTORS

79
Q

(AB)
- This category applies to presentations in which symptoms characteristics of delirium that cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning predominate but do not meet the full criteria for delirium or any of the disorders in the neurocognitive disorders diagnostic class.
- The other specified delirium category is used in situations in which the clinician chooses to communicate the specific reason that the presentation does not meet the criteria for delirium or any specific neurocognitive disorder.
- This is done by recording “other specified delirium” followed by the specific reason ( subsyndromal delirium)
- Subsyndromal Delirium: A delirium-like presentation involving disturbances in attention, higher -level thought, and circadian rhythm, in which the severity of cognitive impairment falls short of that required for the diagnosis of delirium.

A

OTHER SPECIFIED DELIRIUM

80
Q

(AB) - UNSPECIFIED DELIRIUM
- This category applies to presentations in which symptoms characteristics of delirium that cause clinically significant distress or impairment ins social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning predominate but do not meet the full criteria for delirium or any of the disorders in the neurocognitive disorders diagnostic class.
- The unspecified delirium category is used in situations in which the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that the criteria are not met for delirium, and includes presentations for which there is insufficient information to make a more specific diagnosis (eg. In ER settings)

A

UNSPECIFIED DELIRIUM

81
Q

(AB)
- is a gradual deterioration of brain functioning that affects memory, judgement, language, and other advanced cognitive processes.
> MORE ON COGNITIVE FUNCTIONING
> CANNOT BE REVERSE AND CAN BE PROGRESSIVE.
> GRADUAL DITERIORATION

A

MAJOR NEUROCOGNITIVE DISORDER - previously labeled dementia

82
Q

(AB)
A. Evidence of significant cognitive decline from previous level of performance in one or more cognitive domains ( complex attention executive function, learning and memory, language, perceptual- motor, or social cognition) based on:
1. Concern of the individual a knowledgeable informant ,or the clinician that there has been a significant decline in cognitive function; and
2. A substantial impairment in cognitive performance, preferably documented by standardized neuropsychological testing or , it its absence, another quantifies clinical assessment.
B. The cognitive deficits interfere with independence with everyday activities ( ie. At a minimum, requiring assistance with complex instrumental activities of daily living such as paying bills or managing medications).
C. The cognitive deficits do not occur exclusively in the context of a delirium.
The cognitive defi

A

MAJOR NEUROCOGNITIVE DISORDER - previously labeled dementia

83
Q

(AB)
A. Evidence of significant cognitive decline from a previous level of performance in one or more cognitive domains ( complex attention, executive function, learning and memory, language, perceptual- motor, or social cognition) based on;
1. Concern of the individua, a knowledgeable informant, or the clinician that there has been a significant decline in cognitive function; and
2. A modest impairment in cognitive performance, preferably documented by standardized neuropsychological testing or, in its absence, another quantified clinical assessment.
> impairment is not that massive it’s milder than major ncd.
B. Cognitive deficits do not interfere with capacity for independence in everyday activities (ie. Complex instrumental activities of daily living such as paying bills or managing medications are preserved, but greater effort, compensatory strategies, or accommodations may be required).
C. The cognitive deficits do not occur exclusively in the context of a delirium.
The cognitive deficits are not better explained by another mental disorder ( eg. MDD, schizo)
D. The disturbance is not better explained by cerebrovascular disease, another neurodegenerative disease, the effects of a substance, or another mental, neurological, or systematic disorder.

A

MILD NEUROCIGNITIVE DISORDER

84
Q

(AB) - mild and maj NCD
RISK AND PROG FACTORS
- the strongest risk factor for major and mild NCDs is age, primarily because age increases the risk of neurodegenerative and cerebrovascular disease.
- Risk of NCDs varies by ethnic and racialized background and is associated with variation in risk of underlying disease (eg. Hypertension, diabetes) predisposing conditions (eg. Head injury), environment (eg. Access to nutritious food, safe spaces for exercise) and other factors
For Example, in the US, African American Latins tend to be at higher risk for vascular dementia that whites, Lower education and literacy are risk factors for NCDs that also can vary by ethnoracial exposure to adverse social determinants of health.

A

RISK AND PROG FACTORS

85
Q

(AB)
- Probable Alzheimer’s Disease is diagnosed if either of the ff is present; otherwise, possible Alzheimer’s disease should be diagnosed.
1) Evidence of a causative Alzheimer’s disease genetic mutation from family history or genetic testing.
2) All there of the ff are present;
a) Clear evidence of decline in memory and learning and at least one other cognitive domain (based on detailed history or serial neuropsychological testing).
b) Steadily progressive gradual in cognition, without extended plateaus.
c) No evidence of mixed etiology (ie, absence of other neurodegenerative or cerebrovascular disease, or another neurological, mental or systematic disease or condition likely contributing to cognitve decline).
- It involves multiple cognitve deficits, initially, memory impairment and later, cognitve disturbances may be seen.

A

FOR MAJOR NCD - ALZ

86
Q

(AB)
- DETERIOTATION Of LANGUAGE FUNCTION

A

APAHSIA

87
Q

(AB)
- impaired ability to execute motor functions despite intact motor abilities.

A

APRAXIA

88
Q

(AB)
- inability to recognized or name objects despite intact sensory abilities.

A

AGNOSIA

89
Q

(AB)
- Probable Alzheimer’s disease is diagnosed if there is evidence of a causative Alzheimer’s disease genetic mutation from either genetic testing or family history.
- Possible Alzheimer’s Disease is diagnosed if there is no evidence of a causative Alzheimer’s disease genetic mutation from either genetic testing or family history, and all three of the ff are present:
1) Clear evidence of decline in memory and learning.
2) Steadily progressive, gradual decline in cognition, without extended plateaus.
3) No evidence of mixed etiology (ie, absence of other neurodegenerative or cerebrovascular disease, or another neurological, mental or systematic disease or condition likely contributing to cognitve decline).

A

fOR MILD NCD - ALZ

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