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1
Q

Explain purpose of the hydraulic fluid analysis

A

Check for lubrication, heat transfer and contamination

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2
Q

Explain purpose of tactical paint scheme

A

Reduces aircraft signature

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3
Q

Corrosion control publication

A

NA 01-1A-509

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4
Q

Three modes of wheel brakes

A

Park emergency and normal

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5
Q

Purpose of composite airframe material

A

Limit weight, increase strength, decrease effort of corrosion

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6
Q

Types of repairs

A

Temporary repair- until permanent can be made
One time flight- to fly to repair location

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7
Q

Airframe structure

A

Radome, forward fuselage, center fuselage, aft fuselage, wings

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8
Q

Flight control surfaces

A

Movable surfaces controlled by inputs by the pilot and computers hyds servo cylinders. Stabs rudders ailerons lef and tef

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9
Q

Hydraulic system

A

Accumulator, reservoir, lines, valves, servo cylinders pump
HS1 primary flight controls
HS2 primary flight controls and non flight controls

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10
Q

Electronic flight controls

A

All surfaces are electronically controlled. Fly by wire

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11
Q

Emergency landing gear extension

A

Uses app accumulator to force gear into the down and lock position

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12
Q

Purpose of launch bar

A

Attaches to catapult on carrier to get jet to speed for takeoff.

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13
Q

Purpose of landing gear safety pins

A

Keeps landing gear from retracting on the ground

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14
Q

What PPE is used for broken composite

A

Respirator, goggles, close weave cotton gloves

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15
Q

Manual for hydraulics

A

NA 01-1A-17

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16
Q

Before towing an aircraft what doors/panels should be closed

A

Structural doors and panels

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17
Q

Safe distance from intake at idle

A

9 ft

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18
Q

Safe distance from intake at mil power

A

25 ft

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19
Q

Safe distance from engine exhaust at idle

A

115 ft

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20
Q

Safe distance from exhaust at full power

A

925 ft

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21
Q

What engines are used in f18 EF

A

F414–GE-400

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22
Q

APU modes of operation

A

Main engine Startup, ground maintenance mode, and ecs

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23
Q

Purpose an location of IFR probe

A

Inflight refueling
Right forward fuselage

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24
Q

Purpose of foam lined wing tanks

A

Self sealing if punctured and decreasing chance of fire/ explosion hazard

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25
Q

Oil authorized for use

A

Lubricating oil, amad oil
MIL PERF 23699 / 7808

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26
Q

Purpose of engine anti icing system

A

Provides anti ice airflow to the engine front frame inlet center body and inlet device

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27
Q

Fuel capacity

A

16,900 fox
17,200 echo
30,000 lbs 5wet

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28
Q

What is an APU

A

Auxiliary power unit centrifugal flow gas turbine engine that supplies air for ecs mes and gmm

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29
Q

What is an AMAD

A

Airframe mounted accessory drive
Connected to the apu through the ats for starting engines and drives generators.

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30
Q

Describe the variable exhaust nozzle VEN

A

Fuel pressure controlled flaps at exhaust side of engine that adjust based on output requirements.

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31
Q

How many fuel cells

A

4

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32
Q

What is a fadec

A

Full authority digital electric control.
Receives aircraft and engine sensor information and determines engine fuel scheduling

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33
Q

System interface between amad APU and engines

A

APU drives the amad through the ats pneumatically transmitting power to start engines

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34
Q

Fuel pressurization and venting

A

Maintains pressure in fuel tanks and vents fuel vapor overboard.

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35
Q

Hot fuel recirculation

A

Separates fuel from motive flow pump fuel at the heat exchanger wash filters.

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36
Q

Purpose of air refueling store (ARS)

A

Allows a jet to be a tanker for in flight refueling

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37
Q

Safety concerns when dealing with avionics

A

Radiation hazard with radar. Switches and breakers in proper position before applying power.

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38
Q

Difference between barometric and radar altimeter

A

Baro uses barometric pressure to determine altitude
And radar altimeter uses radar signals for up to 5000 ft

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39
Q

What is VHF and UHF

A

Very high frequency and ultra high frequency. Frequency ranges used for radio communications

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40
Q

What is IAS and it’s purpose

A

Inter communication audio system
Communication equipment used for cockpit and ground crew comms and audible alerts

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41
Q

What is TACAN

A

Tactical air navigation
Uses tacan ground stations and other tacan aircraft to determine position

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42
Q

What is INS

A

Inertial navigation system
Self contained automatic dead reckoning system

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43
Q

What is GPS

A

Global Positioning System
Uses satellites to determine position

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44
Q

What is an ARI

A

Attitude reference indicator
Self contained pitch roll attitude reference system with an electronic gyro. Used to determine attitude of aircraft in flight

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45
Q

What is ILS

A

Instrument landing system
An all weather approach guidance system

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46
Q

What is radar

A

Radio detection and ranging
Air to air and air to ground detection of objects

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47
Q

What are fiber optics

A

High speed fiber wiring immune to electrical noise has signal security lighter and smaller than wiring. Fragile made of glass

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48
Q

Purpose of mission computers

A

Provides data conversion with non mux avionics equipment through the control converter on mux channels

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49
Q

What is MIDS/JITRS

A

Multifunctional info distribution system /joint tactical radio system
Exchanges info on air and surface tracks stores info engagement status identification status and targeting data.

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50
Q

What is TEWS

A

Tactical electronic warfare system
Provides detection of surface and airborne threats provides jamming and dispersal of chaf and flare

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51
Q

What is CSC

A

Control converter
Converts data from digital to analog and back allowing the equipment to communicate

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52
Q

Tactical jamming system

A

Protects from missile attacks and gun radar sends out different frequencies for jamming. Computer wiring and quad receivers.

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53
Q

What’s in the main display group (MDG)

A

Heads up display (HUD)
Digital display indicator (DDI)
Up front control display (UFCD)
Multipurpose color display (MPCD)

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54
Q

What is the HUD

A

Heads up display
Provides aircraft altitude navigation, anti air anti ground weapons flir video

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55
Q

What is displayed on the DDI

A

Statuses on everything. Multiple pages fuel and stores and flight surface info
Msp codes

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56
Q

What is the UFCD

A

Up front control display
Entry and display of aircraft data

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57
Q

What is the MPCD

A

Multipurpose color display
Mechanical push button imputs used as a fulfilling function display and map data

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58
Q

Function of digital map set

A

Store map data and works with the MPCD to display map data

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59
Q

Purpose of position lights

A

Determine relative position in the air at night 7 lights 3 red 3 green one white

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60
Q

Strobe light purpose

A

Guard against aircraft collision

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61
Q

Purpose of landing/taxi light

A

Used for landing and taxi of aircraft

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62
Q

Approach light

A

Displays the angle of attack of jet landing

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63
Q

Purpose of formation light

A

Indicates changes in attitude relative to position.

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64
Q

What is DFIRS and it’s purpose

A

Deployable digital incident recorder/black box. Stores flight data in case of a crash

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65
Q

Pitot static system

A

Measures static air pressure and barometric pressure sends info to the transmitter then to the instruments.

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66
Q

Airspeed indicator

A

Displays airspeed based on outside air pressure from the pitot

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67
Q

Standby pressure indicator

A

Measures altitude based on barometric pressure and Displays altitude

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68
Q

Vertical speed indicator

A

Show climb and dive rate 0-6000 feet per min based on change in air pressure

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69
Q

Air data pressure transmitter

A

Converts analog air data to digital and sends it to the displays

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70
Q

Angle of attack indexer (AOA).

A

Shows angle of attack with lighted symbols located on the hud

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71
Q

Angle of attack transmitter

A

Cone or vane type on forward fuselage measures difference between angle of aircraft and the airstream

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72
Q

AFCS automatic flight control system

A

An electro hydro mechanical system that provides inputs to the flight control system to assist the pilot in handling the aircraft.

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73
Q

Purpose of the nose wheel DDI

A

Receives and stores from the recorder and displays the codes

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74
Q

What is the digital memory device (DMD)

A

In the cockpit works with the mission computer and digital map system. Programmable computer non volatile memory device for mission and maintenance cards

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75
Q

Flight incident recorder and monitoring device

A

Monitors engine and airframe operational status for unit failures and caution advisory conditions

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76
Q

Joint helmet mounted cueing system(JHEMCS)

A

Improves situational awareness and aircraft survivability and increases the ability to acquire a visual target works with the AIM 9 displays hud information

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77
Q

Power supply

A

Consists of two generators two transformer rectifiers one battery with a charger and PDPs

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78
Q

Maintenance battery

A

Supplies 28 VDC to the essential and main/start buses

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79
Q

Generators

A

Two 115 VAC 3 phase 400 hz

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80
Q

Objective of explosive handling certification

A

To ensure all personnel have demonstrated the ability to properly and safely perform all functions and tasks involving explosive devices

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81
Q

What is the purpose of suspension accessory equipment

A

To suspend and release stores bombs and missiles

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82
Q

Purpose of cartridge actuated devices CADS

A

To fire other explosives and stores.

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83
Q

Define AIM

A

Air launched aerial guided missiles
Air to air

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84
Q

Define AGM

A

Air to ground missiles

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85
Q

Define CATM

A

Captive air training missiles used for pilot training in arial target acquisition

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86
Q

Define hero

A

Hazards of electro magnetic radiation to ordinance
To prevent accidental detonation from radio frequencies

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87
Q

Retarded bombs

A

Used during low level drops fins open to slow decent

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88
Q

Non retarded bombs used for high level drops

A

used for high level drops

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89
Q

Yellow banding

A

High explosive

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90
Q

Brown banding

A

Rocket motor

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91
Q

Blue banding

A

Inert / training

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92
Q

Active guidance

A

Target Illumination is supplied by the missile

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93
Q

Semi active guidance

A

Missile sets target from external source
(Laser designation)

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94
Q

Passive guidance

A

Obtained from the target. Heat seeking

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95
Q

Purpose of chaff / flares

A

Flares used during evasive maneuvers against heat seeking missiles
Chaff is fine metal strips radar and radar guided missile deterrent

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96
Q

Hazards of forward firing ordinance

A

Auto ignition, toxic chemicals, inadvertent separation, high heat on protruding surfaces, and motor detonation

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97
Q

Types of bomb/ ejector racks

A

Bru 32, 33, 42, 41 used for single stores and weapons
Bru 32 fuel tank
Bru41 training bombs

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98
Q

Location and purpose of the ICM switch

A

Forward fuselage. Allows release of chaff flares

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99
Q

Armament control processor set

A

Provides electrical interface between weapons stations aircraft switching and related systems includes ACP and up to 9 SDCCs

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100
Q

Command launch computer

A

Used to control and monitor the high speed anti radiation missile (HARMS) in 13R

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101
Q

AN/ALE-47

A

Provides aircraft protection in sophisticated threat environments holds chaff and flare

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102
Q

AN/ALE-50/55

A

Provides off board countermeasures ability

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103
Q

Basic armament configuration

A

Setup for all stations
LAU 127- 9, 11
SUU78- , 6
SUU79/BRU32-3,4,8,9
SUU80/BRU32-2,10
Bru 41 imer small bombs
M61A1

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104
Q

AIM 7

A

Sparrow
Guided missile solid fuel rocket propelled air to air conventional warhead semi active guidance

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105
Q

AIM 9X/M

A

Sidewinder
Supersonic air to air missile passive IR target detection proportional guidance and torque balance control system

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106
Q

AIM 120

A

AMRAAM
Supersonic air to air active radar target detection and onboard inertial NAV guidance

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107
Q

M61A1

A

Gun fire control system enables selection arming and firing of the gun air to air or air to ground 4k-6k rpm

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108
Q

AGM 65

A

Maverick
Air to ground rocket solid fuel conventional warhead anti ship

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109
Q

AGM 84D

A

Harpoon
Active radar seeking

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110
Q

AGM 84E

A

Slam
Uses ins gps and ir for guidance

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111
Q

AGM 84H

A

Slam-er
Improved control range and penetration over the slam

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112
Q

AGM 88

A

Harm
Solid fuel air to ground proportional guidance to home in on threat radar emissions

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113
Q

ALSS/egress ppe

A

Flight suit
Aviator boots
Anti g garment
Helmet
Survival radio
Beacon
Gloves
Anti exposure suit
I’d tags
Knife
Personal survival kit
Signal device
Flashlight
Life preserver

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114
Q

Environmental control 12 sub systems

A

Bleed air control
Bleed air leak detection
Air cycle conditioning
Cabin cooling
Avionics cooling
Cabin pressure
Anti g suit
OBOGS
Windshield anti ice and rain
Radar liquid cooling
Canopy seal
Waveguide pressurization

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115
Q

Oxygen mask

A

Designed for use with a regulator and provides breathing oxygen on demand at a pressure schedule dependent on altitude

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116
Q

Oxygen regulator

A

Chest mounted positive pressure regulator that provides on demand oxygen flow

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117
Q

Life preserver

A

Low profile flotation collar equipped with auto/manual inflation assembly

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118
Q

Anti g suit

A

Bladder system invaded in fire resistant cloth. As Gs increase bladders fill applying pressure to extremities to keep blood in the upper body reducing blackouts

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119
Q

Objective of egress seat checkout certification

A

Familiarize personnel working in and around the cockpit with the ejection seat and hazards associated

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120
Q

Purpose of the ejection seat

A

Provides aircrew with a place to sit in normal conditions and a way to quickly exit the aircraft in an emergency.

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121
Q

What is hypoxia

A

A decrease in the amount of oxygen entering the bloodstream causing eyes body and muscles to fail unless oxygen is added

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122
Q

What is anoxia

A

Death due to lack of oxygen

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123
Q

What are the two types of aviation breathing oxygen

A

Type 1 Gaseous oxygen mil-0-2727100
Type 2 liquid oxygen

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124
Q

Purpose of dry bay fire suppression system DBFSS

A

To suppress fire in the belly of the jet in the event of ballistic damage using 14 optical sensors and 6 extinguishing cartridges

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125
Q

Purpose of harness release unit

A

Backup automatic mode for separating parachute from aircrew

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126
Q

A/A24A-56 helmet

A

Mounting platform for HDU and protects pilot from impact and wind during ejection

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127
Q

What is the HDU

A

Helmet mounted display unit
Miniature display projected on visor which allows symbology to be displayed in pilots view

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128
Q

Normal Canopy operation

A

Opened by electrical means using internal and external means

Opened mechanically with internal crank and external attaching point

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129
Q

Emergency canopy operation

A

Automatically ejected when seat ejection is activated pyrotechnically operated

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130
Q

Fire detection system

A

Monitors AMAD APU and engine bays for fires or overheat conditions provides pilot with audible and visual indicators

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131
Q

Fire extinguishing system

A

Single fire bottle with 3 distribution lines

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132
Q

Bleed air system

A

Clamped insulated ducts directing hot high pressure air for ecs obogs and external fuel tank pressure

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133
Q

Air cycle conditioning system

A

Cools and conditions engine bleed air for cooling avionics aircrew ecs

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134
Q

Anti gravity system

A

Tubing and a valve that provides regulated air to the g suit

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135
Q

OBOGS

A

Series of lines and valves and a concentrator that regulates pressure and controls flow and distributes oxygen to the aircrew

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136
Q

Ejection seat system

A

Operated by ballistic gas pressure produced by ejection seat initiators that fire when seat handle is pulled

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137
Q

Emergency oxygen system

A

Located in seat pan. Automatically activated during ejection

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138
Q

Ejection seat safety precautions

A

Ensure safety pins are in place and seat handle is in the safe position

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139
Q

Canopy operation precautions

A

Fully open or fully closed
Do not operate in motion
Check sills before closing

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140
Q

Canopy jettison system precautions

A

Ensure pin is in place

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141
Q

SEAD

A

Suppression of enemy air defenses

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142
Q

WAS

A

War at sea
Destroy enemy vessels and amphibious forces

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143
Q

CAS

A

Close air support. Call for fire

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144
Q

MAS

A

Maritime air superiority
Maintain air superiority around battle group

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145
Q

ACM

A

Air combat maneuvering dog fighting

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146
Q

CAP

A

Combat air patrol
Intercept and destroy enemy aircraft

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147
Q

FCF

A

Functional check flight

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148
Q

FCLP

A

Field carrier landing practice

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149
Q

VMC

A

Visual meteorological conditions

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150
Q

IMC

A

Instrument meteorological conditions

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151
Q

VFR

A

Visual flight rules

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152
Q

IFR

A

Instrument flight rules

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153
Q

CATCC

A

Carrier air traffic control

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154
Q

FLOLS

A

Ferensel lense optical landing system
Provides pilot with visual indication of relative position to the glide slope

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155
Q

MOVLAS

A

Manually operated visual landing aid system
Emergency signaling system to aid when primary is down

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156
Q

AAW

A

Anti air warfare
Detection and tracking destruction or neutralization of enemy aircraft and weapons launched from air surface subsurface or land

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157
Q

AMW

A

Amphibious warfare
Attacks launched from the sea by naval forces

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158
Q

CCC

A

Command control and communication

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159
Q

MIW

A

Mine warfare
Use of mines to defend harbor areas and countermeasures for mines on the surface or sub surface

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160
Q

MOB

A

Mobility
Ability of naval forces to maneuver and maintain themselves in all situations over under or on the surface

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161
Q

NCO

A

Non combatant operations
Medical or humanitarian operations
Not categorized in any other warfare mission area

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162
Q

STW

A

Strike warfare
Destruction or neutralization of enemies ashore.

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163
Q

Purpose of the SORM

A

Dictates organizational responsibilities and provides guidance to squadron personnel in executing assigned duties

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164
Q

Contents of the sorm

A

Covers departments and positional responsibilities chain of command and policies

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165
Q

Discuss dual chain of command

A

Administrative
Sec NAV chief of naval operations

Operational
President secdef commanders of joint specified commands

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166
Q

Operational chain of command
Specified/unified

A

Unified are joint commands of 2 or more branches
Specified are singular service commands

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167
Q

Fleet commands

A

Pacific - pacflt
Atlantic - Lantflt
Europe - usnaveur

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168
Q

Task force commander

A

In charge of a smaller group in the fleet

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169
Q

Task unit commander

A

In charge of a group within the task force

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170
Q

Secnav

A

Carlos del toro
Civilian in charge of the department of the navy. policies organization admin operational efficiency

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171
Q

CNO

A

Admiral gilday
Senior naval officer advisor to the president and secnav

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172
Q

Fleet commander in chief

A

Commands one of the three fleets

CINCPACFLT
CINCLANTFLT
CINCUSNAVEUR

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173
Q

Naval Air Force commander

A

Vice admiral whitsell
Type commander for all naval air forces
Air boss

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174
Q

Functional wing commander

A

In charge of aircraft material readiness

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175
Q

Type squadron commander

A

Responsible for maintenance and condition of aircraft and operational readiness

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176
Q

Commander and chief

A

Joe Biden
President head of the armed forces accountable to congress

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177
Q

Vice President

A

Kamala Harris
Second in line to the President President of the senate

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178
Q

Secretary of defense

A

Lloyd Austin
Advisor to the President works on defense policies and dod policy

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179
Q

Secretary of the navy

A

Carlos del toro
Civilian in charge of the DON

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180
Q

Chief of naval operations CNO

A

Admiral gilday
Member of the joint chief of staff senior officer in the navy

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181
Q

MCPON

A

James Honea
Senior enlisted in the navy reports to the CNO

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182
Q

Fleet master chiefs

A

5 of them
Enlisted advisor to the fleet commanders

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183
Q

Force master chief

A

Enlisted advisor to the force group commanders

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184
Q

CMC command master chief

A

Charles eakly
Advisor to the commanding officer of a command

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185
Q

Duties of the CO

A

Responsible for command safety and command performance

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186
Q

Duties of the xo

A

Carry out the policies of the co and keep them informed

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187
Q

Duties of the chiefs

A

Enlisted Advisors to the officers

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188
Q

Department head

A

Representative of the CO for departmental matters

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189
Q

CMEO/ CCS

A

Equal opportunity training and awareness for the command.

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190
Q

Division officers

A

Administering training and supervising personnel

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191
Q

LCPO/LPO

A

Management of the work center

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192
Q

Work center supervisor

A

Deals with management of work center functions

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193
Q

CACO

A

Provides resources and info to PNOK / SNOK

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194
Q

SAPR

A

Prevent and respond to sexual assault

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195
Q

Ombudsman

A

Command family coordinator

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196
Q

Financial specialist

A

Provides training on managing finances

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197
Q

DAPA

A

Provides training on drug and alcohol prevention

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198
Q

Security manager

A

Keeps the CO/XO informed on all matters of security

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199
Q

CCC command career councilor

A

Career information program

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200
Q

OPREP

A

Operational report
Provides the chain of command with information about incidents

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201
Q

MOVREP

A

Shops movement report

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202
Q

LOGREP

A

Provided by the ship before entering the port for logistics information

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203
Q

SORTS

A

Ships status readiness conditions

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204
Q

SITREP

A

Provides operational commanders and higher information on incidents not meeting oprep 3 criteria

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205
Q

Significance of ROC and POE

A

Used for projection of needed assets in areas

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206
Q

PACOM

A

Hawaii
Asian pacific region
USARPAC
MARFORPAC
USPACFLEET
PACAF

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207
Q

EUCOM

A

Germany
Europe
Build partner capacity
USARUER-AF army
NAVEUR- NAVAF navy
USAFE-AFAFRICA airforce
MARFOREUR/AF marines
SOCEUR-SOCAF

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208
Q

SOUTHCOM

A

Miami
Central South America Caribbean
ARSOUTH army
AFSOUTH airforce
USNAVSO navy
USMARFORSOUTH marines
SOCSOUTH

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209
Q

CENTCOM

A

Tampa bay
Middle East / Northern Africa
USARCENT
USAFCENT
USMARCENT
USNAVCENT
USSOCCENT

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210
Q

NORTHCOM

A

Colorado
Homeland defense
Air land and sea approaches around the us
ARNORTH
AFNORTH
MARFORNORTH
SOCNORTH

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211
Q

SOCOM

A

Tampa
JSOC
MARSOC
USASOC
NAVSOC
AFSOC

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212
Q

TRANSCOM

A

Illinois
Deployment and distribution
Global joint mobility operations
AMC airforce
MSC navy
SDDC army
JOSAC soc
JECC
JCSE
JPASE

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213
Q

STRATCOM

A

Nebraska
Nuclear deterrence global strike
Global information grid
SMDC army
MARFORSTRAT
USFF Navy
AFGSC Air Force

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214
Q

AFRICOM

A

Stutgart
Africa

USAREUR-AF
NAVAF
AFAFRICA
MARFORAF

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215
Q

3rd fleet

A

Eastern pacific
San Diego

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216
Q

4th fleet

A

Mayport Florida
Caribbean central South America

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217
Q

5th fleet

A

Bahrain
Arabian gulf Indian Ocean Persian gulf

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218
Q

6th fleet

A

Italy
Mediterranean and Black Sea

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219
Q

7th fleet

A

Japan
Western pacific and Indian Ocean

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220
Q

10th fleet

A

Maryland
With 2nd and 7th fleet

221
Q

Military sea lift command

A

Norfolk
Atlantic pacific Europe Africa Central America Far East

222
Q

AE ship

223
Q

AD ship

A

Destroyer tender

224
Q

AFS ship

A

Combat stores

225
Q

AS ship

A

Sub tender

226
Q

AO ship

A

Carry fuel and other petroleum products

227
Q

CG ship

A

Guided missile cruiser

228
Q

CV/CVN

A

Aircraft carrier/ AC nuclear powered

229
Q

DD/DDG

A

Destroyer/ guided missile destroyer

230
Q

FFG ship

A

Guided missile frigate

231
Q

LCC ship

A

Amphibious command ship

232
Q

LHA ship

A

Amphibious assault ship

233
Q

LHD ship

A

Amphibious warfare ship

234
Q

LPD ship

A

Amphibious transport dock

235
Q

LPH ship

A

Amphibious assault ship

236
Q

LSD ship

A

Dock landing ship

237
Q

MCS ship

A

Mine countermeasures support ship

238
Q

Three objectives of first aid

A

Prevent further injury
Prevent infection
Prevent death

239
Q

What to do for a fracture

A

Check for open or closed and bleeding Secure the limb to prevent further injury treat for shock monitor

240
Q

What to do for sucking chest wound

A

Check for all holes entry and exit. Seal the holes with one side having a vent treat for shock monitor breathing for decompression if lung has begun to collapse

241
Q

Abdominal evisceration

A

Do not put intestines back in. Loosely wrap intestines in clean dressing treat for shock monitor

242
Q

Massive hemorrhage with amputation

A

Apply pressure to a pressure point apply Tourniquet bandage open end treat for shock monitor.

243
Q

Laceration

A

Determine level of bleeding pressure dressing if necessary clean and dress wound

244
Q

Electrical shock

A

Remove power get AED monitor

245
Q

Smoke inhalation

A

Move to an area with fresh air monitor

246
Q

Burn

A

Assess level of burn wrap with loose dry bandage monitor

247
Q

Hypothermia

A

Remove wet clothes cover with dry blankets move to a warmer area no food or water

248
Q

Heat stress

A

Move to cool area give water

249
Q

Puncture wound

A

Verify if object is still inside. Do not remove the object bandage to secure the object In place

250
Q

rule of nines for burns.

A

For body burn %
9 each arm
9 head and neck
18 for torso front
18 for torso back
18 each leg

251
Q

Degrees of burns

A

3 degrees
1st degree redness and pain
2nd degree deeper tissue burn blistering and more severe pain
3rd degree nerve damage less pain

252
Q

Methods of controlling bleeding

A

Pressure points
Tourniquet
Direct pressure
Clotting agents

253
Q

Basic treatment for suicide gestures or attempts

A

Don’t leave patient alone
Keep from inflicting harm
Get them psychiatric help
Treat any wounds

254
Q

Joint dislocation

A

Loosen clothing around joint put person in comfortable position support injured limb

255
Q

Steps of cpr

A

5 steps
Call 911 get aed Check for responsiveness
Check for breathing
Start cpr
Cpr
If breathing starts put in recovery position keep airway
Assess for other injuries

256
Q

What is orm

A

5 step process used to mitigate risk

257
Q

5 steps of orm

A

Identify hazards
Assess hazards
Make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise

258
Q

4 principles of orm

A

Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
Accept no unnecessary risk
Anticipate and manage risk by planning
Make risk decisions at the right level

259
Q

3 levels of orm

A

Deliberate
Time sensitive
Strategic

260
Q

How long is a daily good for

A

72 hours as long as it doesn’t fly

261
Q

How long is a turnaround good for

262
Q

4 classes of mishaps

A

A. Damage worth 2.5mil and above

B. 600k to under 2.5 mil

C. 60k to 600k

D. Below 60,000

263
Q

Co safety responsibilities

A

Ensures everyone is trained in all safety precautions and procedures and they are complied with and will augment for specific situations

264
Q

Aviation Safety officer responsibilities

A

Advisor to the co on aviation safety matters. Assists the co on establishing an aviation command safety program maintains mishap records and statistics

265
Q

Ground safety officer

A

Advisor to the co on ground safety matters. Assists the co on establishing a command ground safety program maintains mishap records and statistics

266
Q

Department head safety responsibilities

A

Coordinates departmental safety program with unit safety officer. Makes sure precautions are observed and ensures drills and training is conducted

267
Q

Division officer safety responsibilities

A

Coordinator of department safety ensures precautions are observed posted and trained

268
Q

All hands safety

A

Familiarize themselves with safety protocols and comply.

269
Q

Functions of the safety council/ enlisted safety committee

A

Set goals manage assets and review safety related recommendations. Review plans policies and procedures and instructions for accuracy content and currency

270
Q

Human error

A

Is part of nearly every mishap includes physical and mental error

271
Q

Mishap maintenance and support errors

A

Improper maintenance ,priority of assignments or lack of proper quality assurance. Improperly maintained equipment can cause mishap

272
Q

Administrative and supervisory factors

A

Failure to supervise. Failure to require personnel to meet personal qualification standards. Lack of formal and informal training

273
Q

Mishap, material failure or malfunction

A

Possible faulty design defective manufacturing or repair

274
Q

Environmental factors

A

Exposure to heat cold vibration noise illumination radiation or atmospheric contaminates

275
Q

Goal of hearing conservation program

A

Prevent occupational hearing loss. Required to be enrolled when actively exposed to hazardous noise

276
Q

Purpose of a hazrep

A

Submitted when the elimination of a hazard can have a community wide success of reducing mishaps.

277
Q

What is chemical warfare

A

The use of chemical weapons to kill injure or incapacitate personnel

278
Q

Four types of chemical agents

A

Nerve- disrupts nerve impulses to body while damaging body functions

Blister- causes inflammation and blistering tissue damage can cause blindness or death

Blood- attacks oxygen in the bloodstream causes choking rapid breathing

Choking- tears dry throat nausea vomiting headache lungs can fill with liquid

279
Q

What is m9 paper

A

Detects liquid chemical agents turns red or reddish does not detect vapor

280
Q

Atropine/ 2 Pam chloride injection

A

Therapy for nerve agent casualty

281
Q

What is biological warfare

A

Use of agents to cause disease sickness or death

282
Q

What are pathogens and toxins

A

Pathogens- bacteria fungi viruses

Toxins- based on an organism to produce physiological effects on a human

283
Q

What is chemical biological IPE

A

Mask
ACPG garment
Protective gloves and liners
Over boots
Skin Decon kit

284
Q

What is radiological warfare

A

Deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death. Nuclear

285
Q

5 types of nuclear explosion

A

High altitude- excess of 100,000 ft ionosphere disruption and emp

Air burst- fireball does not reach surface vacuum created collects debris caused by blast and spreads radiation fallout

Surface burst- worst fallout due to fireball touching massive fallout

Shallow underwater- small fireball and blast wave causes large waves and contaminated water

Deep water- less visual but more contaminated water

286
Q

Nuclear blast

A

Debris collapsing buildings and shock wave

287
Q

Nuclear flash

A

Burns blindness thermal radiation and fires

288
Q

Nuclear radiation

A

Burns and cellular damage

289
Q

Nuclear emp

A

Burns out electronics

290
Q

Nuclear blackout

A

Loss of lights electrical equipment

291
Q

Ready shelter

A

Minimum shielding from radiation allows crew to stay close to battle stations

292
Q

Deep shelter

A

Low in ship near center line provides max protection from radiation far from battle stations

293
Q

DT-60 dosimeter

A

Non self reading dosimeter has to be placed in a special computer to determine total amount of gamma radiation the wearer is exposed

294
Q

What is MOPP

A

Mission oriented protective posture
Management tool/system used in event of chemical or biological attacks

295
Q

Levels of MOPP

A

0- issue IPE accessible

1- afloat JSLIST, mask gloves accessible
Ashore don protection m9 tape
2- afloat mask carried Decon supplies
Ashore additional to 1 don over boot
3- afloat GQ install filters don over boot
Ashore fill canteen activate Decon station
4- afloat don mask hood gloves circle William counter measure wash down
Ashore gloves with liners untie retention cord loop between legs secure to web belt

296
Q

Fire fighters primary and secondary goal

A

Prevent death
Put out fire

297
Q

Key elements of a fire

A

Oxygen fuel heat

298
Q

Class A fire

A

Combustible materials producing ash

299
Q

Class B fire

A

Liquid, gas petroleum products. Boiling

300
Q

Class C fire

A

Electrical

301
Q

Class D fire

A

Combustible metals

302
Q

How to put out class A fire

A

Water AFFF

303
Q

How to put out class B fire

A

AFFF halon pkp co2

304
Q

Put out classC fire

A

Co2 pkp halon water in fog pattern min distance 4 ft

305
Q

Put out class D fire

A

Large quantities of water high velocity fog apply from safe distance behind shelter

306
Q

What is AFFF

A

Aqueous film forming foam

307
Q

Halon 1211

A

Class b/C fires interrupts chemical reaction

308
Q

Co2

A

Displaces oxygen

309
Q

Pkp

A

Potassium bi carbonate breaks the combustion chain

310
Q

Sailors creed

A

I am a United States Sailor.
I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States of America and I will obey the orders of those appointed over me.
I represent the fighting spirit of the Navy and those who have gone before me to defend freedom and democracy around the world.
I proudly serve my country’s Navy combat team with Honor, Courage and Commitment.
I am committed to excellence and the fair treatment of all.

311
Q

Safety guidelines for airfield/ flight line and flight deck

A

Wear ppe be fod free keep head on a swivel be qualified

312
Q

Ppe required on the flight line

A

Flight deck steel toe boots
Cranial
Goggles
Leather gloves
Hearing protection

313
Q

Threshold markings

A

Parallel lines 12f wide 150 ft long designate landing area

314
Q

Overrun area

A

Paved or not at end of runway for deceleration

315
Q

MA 1 series overrun barriers

A

Stops tricycle landing gear aircraft no tail hook

316
Q

Emergency shore based recovery equipment

A

Used during in flight emergencies to stop aircraft during landing to stop in shortest distance possible minimizing chance of injury to pilot or damage to aircraft

317
Q

Taxiway

A

Paved area for aircraft to move between apron runways and airfield service

318
Q

Parking apron

A

Open paved area adjacent to hangars and fuel services used for parking servicing and loading. Called the flight line

319
Q

Compass calibration pad

A

Compass rose. Paved area in magnetically quiet area used to calibrate standby compass

320
Q

Runway numbering system

A

Numbered by their magnetic heading

321
Q

Rotating beacon

A

White white green. Lighting to show the airfield

322
Q

Safety concerns working on flight deck

A

Props rotors slippery surfaces ladder well exhaust blast intakes moving aircraft. Lines crates flight surfaces

323
Q

Required flight deck equipment

A

Steel toe boots cranial hearing pro jersey float coat leather gloves goggles

324
Q

Yellow Jersey

A

Abh aircraft handling flight deck officer
Air boss arresting O plane directors

325
Q

White jersey

A

QA safety air transport landing signal O medical

326
Q

Brown jersey

A

Plane captains

327
Q

Blue jersey

A

Aircraft handling. Chock crew elevator operators

328
Q

Green jersey

A

Cat/ arresting gear crew helicopter signalman photographer

329
Q

Red jersey

A

Crash salvage ordinance handling

330
Q

Purple jersey

A

Fuel crew.

331
Q

Carrier marking pkp

A

12in wide red stripe with white 3in PKP

No coaming white 18in circle red 5in PKP

332
Q

Salt water station marking

A

18in wide red stripe white 3in W

No combing red triangle 18in per side yellow W

333
Q

Co2 bottle marking

A

12in wide red stripe 3in co2

No coaming white 18in circle red 5in co2

334
Q

AFFF station marking

A

18in wide green stripe 3in AFFF

No combing 18in green square 3in white AFFF

335
Q

Bomb jettison ramp marking

A

Yellow stripe painted up and over deck on edges of ramp marked in front by 4in red and yellow alternating stripes with 12 in black bomb emblem

336
Q

Steam smothering marking

A

18 in black stripe with 3in white steam stencil in middle

337
Q

What is SE used for in in aircraft handling

A

Do not pass internet aircraft
Driven parked adjacent to aircraft
If running must be manned

338
Q

Danger areas for aircraft

A

Intake exhaust moving surfaces compressed gasses explosives hazmat eye hearing shock

339
Q

Procedure for grounding aircraft

A

Attach ground to spot on surface then attach to grounding point on aircraft

340
Q

Chain tie down requirements

A

6 initial
9 up to 45kts
14 46-60 knots
20 above 60kts

341
Q

Mandatory hand signals

A

Stop
Wave off
Hold

342
Q

Towing speed shall not exceed

A

5mph or slowest walker

343
Q

How many people are required to do an aircraft move

A

6
Move director
Brake rider
Tractor driver
Wing walkers

344
Q

Safety hazard related to intake

A

Suction pulls in personnel and fod

345
Q

Safety hazard related to exhaust

A

Burns and pushing objects and personnel

346
Q

Safety hazard related to propeller

A

High wind danger of props hitting objects and personnel

347
Q

Safety hazard related to Rotor blades

A

Danger of high wind hitting objects and personnel only approach when directed by aircrew

348
Q

Safety hazard related to hot brakes

A

Fire tire explosion approach from front or back never from side.

349
Q

Purpose of wind indicator

A

Wind sock shows wind direction and speed of wind

350
Q

Airfield rotating beacon

A

Shows where the airfield is with lights. Green green white

351
Q

Tower visual communication

A

Series of light signals used in place of voice communication

352
Q

Who provides management, coordination and leadership for security and force protection

A

Force protection program officer

353
Q

What is the threatcon scale

A

Determines the condition for defense of homeland and abroad assets

354
Q

What is the defcon scale

A

Determines the posture set to prepare for the likelihood of war

355
Q

What is fpcon based on

A

Terrorist threat level
Capability to penetrate existing
physical security
Risk of terrorist attack
Assets ability to carry out mission if
attacked
Protected assets criticality to their mission.

356
Q

Fpcon normal

A

general global threat of possible terrorist activity

357
Q

Fpcon alpha

A

Increased general threat of terrorist activity

358
Q

Fpcon bravo

A

Increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity

359
Q

Fpcon Charlie

A

Incident has occurred or intel says likely

360
Q

Fpcon delta

A

Immediate area where terrorist activity has occurred

361
Q

DEFCON 5

A

Normal peace time readiness

362
Q

DEFCON 4

A

Increased intel and security measures

363
Q

DEFCON 3

A

Increase in force readiness

364
Q

DEFCON 2

A

Further increase in readiness

365
Q

DEFCON 1

A

Maximum force readiness

366
Q

What is defcon a sub system of

A

Series of alert conditions
Emergcon
Watchcon
Fpcon

367
Q

What is the objective of the namp

A

To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards

368
Q

Who is in charge of the namp

369
Q

Who is the CNO

A

Admiral Gilday

370
Q

Mo duties

A

Head of maintenance department responsible to the co for accomplishing the departments mission

371
Q

Amo responsibilities

A

Assistant to the mo to conduct the duties

372
Q

MMCO maintenance material control officer responsibilities

A

Overal responsible for the production and material support of maintenance dept responsible for preparing and publishing the mmp

373
Q

MMCPO

A

Senior enlisted advisor for maintenance department reports to the mo and advises the co in all matters affecting aircraft operations

374
Q

QAO responsibilities

A

Ensure qars recieve continuous training in inspecting testing and quality control methods. Ensure cross training is given

375
Q

Material control officer MCO

A

Handles finances and material requisition

376
Q

Responsibilities of maintenance control

A

Manage maintainers and put out the priority maintenance to be done. Manage aircraft and schedule maintenance

377
Q

Explain three levels of maintenance

A

O- organizational. Upkeep and repair of aircraft at the squadron

I- intermediate supports O level with repairs to equipment that cannot be repaired at OLevel

D- depot. For more in-depth airframe repairs and over haul maintenance

378
Q

Two types of maintenance in the namp

A

Rework
Upkeep

379
Q

What is a turnaround

A

Conducted between flights to insure integrity before next flightGood for 24 hours

380
Q

What is a daily

A

To detect defects in greater depth than a turnaround valid 72 hours without a flight

381
Q

What is a special inspection

A

Scheduled Inspections done at specific intervals, days hours or amount of functions done

382
Q

What is a conditional inspection

A

Work done un scheduled due to a specific over limit condition or other circumstances

383
Q

Phase

A

Devises scheduled inspections into smaller packages of same work content done sequentially and at specific intervals

384
Q

Acceptance inspection

A

Conducted when receiving new aircraft or returns from depo level maintenance

385
Q

Transfer inspection

A

Performed when an aircraft is being transferred

386
Q

(Rcm) reliability centered maintenance

A

Ensure assets continue to work and their users require

387
Q

(ASPA)

A

Aircraft service period adjustment

388
Q

Pmi

A

Periodic maintenance intervals

389
Q

Purpose of fcf

A

To verify the aircraft is functioning properly. 30 days no fly

390
Q

Who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight

A

Personnel qualified and in writing from the co

391
Q

QA purpose

A

The prevention of the occurrence of defects

392
Q

What is management

A

Efficient attainment of objectives

393
Q

Programs qa owns

A

Ctpl
Namdrip
Safety
Qa audit program
Se misuse and abuse
Aircraft confined space

394
Q

Successful fod program

A

Identifies and corrects eliminates causal factors for fod

395
Q

Tool control program

A

Quick way to account for all tools

396
Q

Procedures for missing tool

A

Stop work notify work center supervisor

Notify maintenance control
And qa

Conduct fod searches on and around the aircraft

Tool not found missing tool report must be generated

397
Q

Fuel surveillance program

A

Prevent contamination of fuel

398
Q

Function of material control

A

Supply ordering and receiving parts for maintenance.

399
Q

Flight operations fund

A

For fuel
Flight clothing
Office supplies
Gasses
Jerseys

400
Q

Amf find

A

Paint rags cleaning agents used for preventative maintenance and corrosion control

401
Q

Financial liability form property loss

402
Q

Missing/lost / stolen report

A

Used for most submission

403
Q

Contents of flight packet

A

Procurement documents
Instructions for safeguarding and shipping damaged aircraft instructions for getting supplies or services. Witness statements
Sf94/95
Vids maf daily turnaround mrcs
Fuel sample sheets three oil sample results. For cross country flights.

404
Q

Natops established

405
Q

Namp established

406
Q

Why was natops established

A

To improve combat readiness and achieve a reduction in aircraft mishaps

407
Q

Natops procedures for engine start run shutdown

A

Chock chain inspect for fod fire equipment nearby

408
Q

What does a warning mean

A

May result in injury or death

409
Q

Caution

A

May cause damage to aircraft

410
Q

Note

A

Emphasized operating procedures

411
Q

Shall

412
Q

Should

A

Recommended

413
Q

May

414
Q

Will

A

Does not indicate degree of requirement of procedure

415
Q

Birthday of naval aviation

A

May 8 1911

416
Q

What happened 14nov 1910

A

Engine ely makes first takeoff from warship.

417
Q

20 Jun 1913

A

Ensign billingsly first naval aviation death

418
Q

22 Oct 1917

A

MIT created classes for what became the predecessor of QA

419
Q

20 mar 1922

A

Use Langley became first commissioned aircraft carrier.

420
Q

1948

A

First jet to land on carrier
FJ1 fury
Uss Boxer

421
Q

5 may 1961

A

Alan Shepard first American in space

422
Q

20-21 jul 1969

A

Neil Armstrong walk on the moon

423
Q

Coral sea

A

May 1942
First battle fought exclusively with aircraft from carriers

424
Q

Midway

A

Jun 1942
Turning point of the pacific war. Broke Japanese code

425
Q

1994

A

First female naval aviator to qual in combat aircraft

Eisenhower first ship to receive permanent assigned women

426
Q

Guadalcanal

A

November 1942.
Uss juneau had 5 Sullivan brothers on it when sunk

427
Q

Mission of naval logistics

A

To provide and sustain operational readiness by getting the right support to the right places at the right time.

428
Q

Importance of planning to naval forces

A

Presents a clear and defined focus and an objective to meet and how to meet it.

429
Q

Recon / surveillance

A

Search and interception recording and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy. And relay

430
Q

Anti sub

A

Detection and destruction

431
Q

Amphibious assault

A

Bombardment of shore forces. Transport of troops

432
Q

Logistics support

A

Shipment of materials by air

433
Q

Search and rescue

A

Spotting and recovery of personnel

434
Q

Mine warfare

A

Spotting and destruction of enemy mines

435
Q

First aircraft carrier

A

Uss langley
20 March 1922

436
Q

First jet powered naval aircraft

A

Fh 1 phantom

437
Q

First naval aviator in space

A

Alan Shepard

438
Q

Master chief petty officer of the navy

A

Most senior enlisted. Advisor to the CNO on enlisted matters

439
Q

Why was the sailors creed developed

A

To implement the code of conduct
In 1993

440
Q

When and why were the core values developed

A
  1. To provid principles and guidance to sailors
441
Q

Oldest commissioned navy vessel

A

Uss constitution

442
Q

What is the navy’s birthday

A

Oct 13 1775

443
Q

Conditions that led to the formation of the navy

A

2nd continental congress determined we needed a navy and commissioned two ships

444
Q

What is motion

A

The act of changing places or movement

445
Q

Three types of movement

A

Speed
Velocity
Acceleration

446
Q

Force

A

Causes a change of motion in an object

447
Q

Inertia

A

Willingness of an object to remain at rest

448
Q

Acceleration

A

Rate of change of speed or velocity in relation to time

449
Q

Speed

A

Rate of movement over distance

450
Q

Velocity

A

The quickness or speed of an object in given time or direction

451
Q

Newton’s first law

A

Objects at rest will remain at rest or remain at motion unless acted upon

452
Q

Newton’s second law

A

If Objects in motion are acted upon by external force the change will be directly proportional to the force applied

453
Q

Newton’s third law

A

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

454
Q

Bernoullis principle

A

Fluid flowing reaches a restriction speed will increase and pressure will decrease

How wings work speed over the top low pressure. Speed slow under high pressure creating lift

455
Q

Axis of aircraft

A

Longitudinal - nose to tail. Ailerons
Latitudinal wings stabs
Vertical top to bottom rudders

456
Q

Flap

A

Leading and trailing edge create lift

457
Q

Spoiler

A

Used to decrease lift.

458
Q

Speed brakes

A

Used to slow aircraft in air

459
Q

Slats

A

Movable control surface attached to leading edge of a wing improving lateral control

460
Q

Airfoil

A

Shape of a wing

461
Q

Difference between airfoil fixt wing and helicopters

A

Fixed glides when losing power
Helo falls or auto rotation

462
Q

Collective

A

Main rotor of a helicopter

463
Q

Angle of attack

A

Angle at which air meets a wing or airfoil

464
Q

Auto rotation

A

Method used to help a helo land when loss of power

465
Q

Components of landing gear

A

Shock strut assembly tires wheels brakes retract extension assembly
Side struts and supports

466
Q

Safety precautions airing tires.

A

Air from front or rear. Keep personnel away from outside of tire. Deflate before removing

467
Q

Turbojet

A

Projects column of air to the rear at high velocity to propel aircraft forward.

468
Q

Turbo shaft

A

Delivers power through a shaft to move something other than a prop. Helicopter

469
Q

Turbo prop

A

Engine converts power to mechanical to spin prop

470
Q

Turbo fan

A

Like turbo prop but has internal blades axial flow fan

471
Q

Jp4

A

Low flash point never used on ships

472
Q

Jp5

A

Only one authorized on ships lowest flashpoint approved for use on ships 140 degrees f

473
Q

Jp8

A

Flashpoint of 100 degrees f

474
Q

Hazards associated with jet fuel

A

Explosion. Flames. Vapor inhalation
Toxic. Can cause illness or death

475
Q

Nalcomis stands for

A

Naval aviation logistics command management information system

476
Q

What is OOMA

A

Managerial tool that provides aircraft and SE information and data entry and reference of adhoc reports

477
Q

What modules does ooma consist of

478
Q

What does ooma track

A

Nmcs/pmcs status
Flyable discrepancies
Non aircraft related discrepancies
Alss status
SE status
Mme status

479
Q

Responsibilities of maintenance control

A

Monitors aircraft status maintains cognizance of incomplete maintenance actions and sets priorities reports material readiness
Briefs pilots before flight
Ensures work orders are cut
Review and approve work orders
Reviews completed work orders
Assigns priority codes to parts orders
Inniates mafs/ work orders

480
Q

Jcn

A

9 character alpha numerical code for data collection

481
Q

Type maintenance

A

Prefilled based on type of work order selected

482
Q

Type wo

A

Two char code describing maintenance to be performed

483
Q

Accumulated job status history

A

History of w/o from start to finish

484
Q

Worker hours

A

Includes names and tools hours and cdi/ QAR inspected signatures

485
Q

Work center

A

Identifies work center responsible for the work

486
Q

Work unit code

A

Designator for specific components

487
Q

DM Maf

A

Discrepancy maintenance

488
Q

TS maf

A

Trouble shooting

489
Q

CM maf

A

Cannibalization maintenance

490
Q

AD maf

A

Assist maf

491
Q

FO maf

A

FOM facilitation of other maintenance

492
Q

CL maf

A

Conditional look

493
Q

CF maf

A

Conditional fix phase

494
Q

SX maf

A

Special inspection one work center

495
Q

SC maf

A

Special inspection control

496
Q

TD maf

A

Technical directive

497
Q

What does optimized IMA provide

A

The capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes at the I-Level by allowing system users to input collect process store review and report information required by the maintenance activity

498
Q

What are the six core capabilities

A

Forward presence
Deterrence
Sea control
Power projection
Maritime security
Humanitarian assistance

499
Q

Hsc

A

Helicopter sea combat

500
Q

Hsm

A

Helicopter maritime strike

501
Q

Ht

A

Helicopter training

502
Q

VAQ

A

Tactical electronic warfare

503
Q

VAW

A

Carrier airborne early warning

504
Q

VC

A

Fleet composite

505
Q

VFA

A

Strike fighter

506
Q

VP

A

Fixed wing patrol

507
Q

VQ

A

Air reconnaissance

508
Q

VR

A

Aircraft logistics support

509
Q

VRC

A

Carrier logistics support

510
Q

VT

A

Training fixed wing

511
Q

VX/VXE

A

Test and evaluation

512
Q

Confidential

A

Blue
Disclosure could reasonably cause damage to national security

513
Q

Secret

A

Red
Disclosure cold cause serious damage to national security

514
Q

Top secret

A

Orange
Exceptionally grave damage to national security

515
Q

NOFORN

A

Not releasable to foreign nations

516
Q

FOUO

A

For official use only

517
Q

Define hazmat

A

Any hazardous material to health or environment

518
Q

Define hazwaste

A

After hazmat is used the discarded material is hazwaste

519
Q

How often is hazmat lockers inspected and for what

A

Weekly and quarterly
Spilling
Expiration
Proper packaging
Labeling

520
Q

Where do you find info for hazmat being used

521
Q

What are the six categories of hazmat

A

Flammable/ combustible
Aerosol
Toxic
Corrosive
Oxidizing
Compressed gasses

522
Q

AUL

A

Authorized use list
Inventory
What is allowed to be used in the facility

523
Q

Steps of hazmat spill

A

Discovery
Notification
Initiate action
Evaluation
Containment
Damage control
Dispersion of gas or vapor
Cleanup Decon
Disposal
Certification of re entry
Follow up report

524
Q

Spills outside us

A

Initiate action to clean
Contact NOSC - Navy on scene coordinator by naval message
Nosc will implement applicable response plan

525
Q

Marking of hazmat containers

A

Clearly identify the material name
Manufacturers name and address
Nature of hazard target organ affected

526
Q

Precautions when handling flammables

A

Keep away from spark or flame
Avoid buildup of vapors
Use safety cans
Use bottle carriers for glass
Use spark free tools
Don’t use series wound motors

527
Q

Hanger designed to provide

A

Environmental protection for maintenance and storage

528
Q

Three types of hangers

A

Type 1 for carrier aircraft
Type 2 marine aircraft osprey c130
Type 3 larger land based aircraft

529
Q

Shore hangar peculiar setup

A

Red fire lane adjacent to bulkhead
Portable co2 fire extinguishers
Aircraft electrical systems
hangar door
Aircraft grounding receptacles 10ohm or less

530
Q

Hangar protection requirements

A

AFFF system
Over head sprinkler system
Optical detection system
Appropriate drainage to contain AFFF
Draft curtains to prevent sprinkler heads cooling

531
Q

Estimated cost of accidental AFFF activation

A

Excess of 80,000 dollars
Damage to aircraft
Recharge
Run off retention
AFFF removal
Manpower expenses

532
Q

Largest shipboard hangar

A

Aircraft carrier
110 ft wide 685ft long 25ft tall
More than 60 aircraft

533
Q

How long does it take to close hangar bay door to stop spread of fire

A

18 seconds

534
Q

Significant difference between hangar bay 1 2 3

A

1 and 2 have stbd elevator
3 has port elevator

535
Q

Type of fire suppression in ship hangar

A

AFFF system and fire extinguishers

536
Q

Who signed energy efficiency act

537
Q

Energy efficiency act goals

A

Values energy as a strategic resource

Understands how energy security is vital to executing navy’s mission

Is resilient to future energy challenges

538
Q

Air encon program

A

Optimize fuel consumption by naval aviation units

539
Q

Air encon pillars

A

Developing energy awareness throughout naval aviation

Building a culture of innovation and sharing best practices

Eliminating energy consuming inefficiencies through the organization

540
Q

What does SMART stand for

A

Short cycle mission recovery tanking

Intended to offset wastefulness of fuel

541
Q

Pure smart

A

Using centerline ars

542
Q

Hybrid smart

A

3 wet
Centerline ARS and two tanks

543
Q

Hybrid smart plus

A

5 wet and an ars
Or 3 wet recovery tanker

544
Q

Led lighting

A

Light emitting diode
Lighter energy efficient
Longer life

545
Q

What month is national energy action month

546
Q

How is the navy changing its energy culture

A

By linking energy consumption to behavior through awareness and accountability.

547
Q

Next aviation energy warrior

A

Two way communication
Energy road map
Naval energy
Energy vision
Airencon
Green fleet
Social media

548
Q

Aoe ship

A

Largest auxiliary ship carry missiles and fuel ammo and general cargo

Eaws (1 decks)

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