1 Flashcards
What is maximum period an active duty member can reenlist for?
6 years
What is maximum period a reserve member can reenlist for
8 years
For a member that reenlists 24 hours or more after discharge, in order to keep the rate they held at the time of discharge they have to ____________
Reenlist between 3 months from separation or be in the open rate list
A reservist reenlisting between ____ of her/his discharge does not requires a physical exam
24 hours
Who approves the reenlistment for a reserve member serving on extended active duty?
CG PSC-EPM
Personnel coming from one of the following are not required to become a U. S. citizen before reenlisting
Micronesia
A reservist not reenlisting between 24 hours that have _____, won’t be allowed back in the SELRES without a waiver
More than 13 years combined service
ISTT should contact separating members within _____ from their EOE.
90 – 120 days
Which of the following is not authorized to effect reenlistments?
Retired CMC
The earliest a you can effect a reenlistment is ____
3 months
Which of the following forms are required to be forwarded to PSC as soon as a reenlistment is effected?
DD Form 4, CG-4170A, CG-2020D, SGLI-8286, SGLI-8286A
The Commandant will involuntarily extend all reserve enlistments in effect during war or national emergency for a period not later than _____
6 months from the end of the war or national emergency
A 14 month extension can be authorized for the following circumstances with the exception of ______
Complete a vessel deployment
How long does a reservist not in active duty need to be affiliated in order to qualify for the Selected Reserve Educational Assistance Program?
30 days
Which of the following is not a valid reason to delete an extension before its goes into effect?
When dropped from school for a DUI
The abbreviation SR stands for ______
General apprenticeship, recruit
Among the personnel listed below, Who is considered the senior person?
A FSCS with 26 years of total service (12 Coast Guard, 14 Navy) and 5 years as an E-8
For an award certificate, what is the correct way to write a member’s name?
Yeoman Second Class Bart E. Simpson
What is the maximum amount of credits you can get for advancement from your sea time?
30
<p>
| The Bronze Star Medal is worth \_\_\_\_\_ credits for advancement</p>
<p>
| 5 </p>
A Chief that wants to compete for advancement must have 2 years as an E-7 before her/his ________
Terminal eligibility date
An E-8 competing for advancement must have 12 years of ______
Active service
SED are always ____ before the exam month
3 months
When computing the SWE Marks Factor for an E-6, all the EERs for the previous _____ will be use
15 months prior to the SWE eligibility date
For members attending advance training that want to compete in the SWE, what EERs are used to compute their SWE Marks Factor?
Marks done before the member entered advance training
Who is authorized to sign EPQs?
Have to be at least one rank above the person and in the same rate
A SN attending YN “A” can re-test for his EPME EOCT _____
Every 7 days
A BM1 that got authorization change rates and to attend HS “A” school will report to the TRACEN as a _____
BM2
Earlier this year EM1 Jones came to the Coast Guard directly from the Navy without losing rank. She wants to know is she can take next May’s SWE. You tell her _____ .
She have to have 2 years TIR in active duty in any branch of the armed forces
EM1 Jones also wants to know how many sea duty points she will have for the SWE. You tell her _____
That CG PPC (adv) will make the determination of her sea points
A BM2 that laterals to OS3 will have his sea points PSD ____
Will carry any points made as an E-4 and above until he makes OS2
A member that is retired after he is declared unfit for duty and took the latest SWE will be ______
Advanced if his name is above the cut-off, the promotion will be done before he retires
Advancements resulting from the SWE process shall be effective _____
On the 1st and the 16th of the month
Personnel reduced to ___ will have their designators removed.
E-1
Aside from “a” school, when does a non-rate get a designator assign to her/him?
When the person appears in the eligibility list
Before a commanding officer can request a restoration/advancement of a formerly held rank/rate they need to observe the member for at least _____ but not more than _____ .
5 months
36 months
How soon after a reduction to E-1 can a commanding officer advance the member to E-2?
There is no time constraint
Personnel that get advanced after reduction in grade will not get a new promotion certificate.
False
Periods of evaluation for members considered for reduction by reason of incompetence are ______
3 months
Who can reduce a Chief Petty Officer for incompetence?
The Commandant
- Which of the following is not a legitimate reason for frocking an enlisted member?
To entitle the member to the proper travel entitlement
Which of the following is not a valid Eligibility Date?
1 January
Which of the following is a valid Terminal Eligibility Date?
1 January
Which of the following is not a valid reason to request a substitute SWE?
Change of CO’s recommendation
Strikers are not allowed to have any NJPs for ___ before being recommended for advancement
6 months
Which of the following rates is not open for striking?
OS
Placement on the striker list is done by ______
DTG in the message
OIC in ashore units need ______ before they can wear the OIC Insignia
Serve as a designated OIC for six months
When are miniature Coxswain Insignias authorized?
Never
Measuring the qualities that the Coast Guard values in people, falls under what type of factor?
Professional
EER Approving Official must be ____ .
OIC E-7 or above
E-2 EER are due _____.
July
Which of the following is a valid reason to skip a marking period?
Member is away TDY for more than 92 days
For reduction in rate by reason for incompetence the CO is required to do a EER effective ____
The day before the reduction in rate
In the EER process the terms: Low, Middle and high refer to ____
Performance standards
A mark of 6 is considered _____
Excellent
An E-6 with a sum of marks that falls below ___ in their performance factor will lose their eligibility for their good conduct award.
24
