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Accessions/Evals/Advancements > 1 > Flashcards

1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is maximum period an active duty member can reenlist for?

A

6 years

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2
Q

What is maximum period a reserve member can reenlist for

A

8 years

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3
Q

For a member that reenlists 24 hours or more after discharge, in order to keep the rate they held at the time of discharge they have to ____________

A

Reenlist between 3 months from separation or be in the open rate list

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4
Q

A reservist reenlisting between ____ of her/his discharge does not requires a physical exam

A

24 hours

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5
Q

Who approves the reenlistment for a reserve member serving on extended active duty?

A

CG PSC-EPM

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6
Q

Personnel coming from one of the following are not required to become a U. S. citizen before reenlisting

A

Micronesia

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7
Q

A reservist not reenlisting between 24 hours that have _____, won’t be allowed back in the SELRES without a waiver

A

More than 13 years combined service

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8
Q

ISTT should contact separating members within _____ from their EOE.

A

90 – 120 days

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9
Q

Which of the following is not authorized to effect reenlistments?

A

Retired CMC

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10
Q

The earliest a you can effect a reenlistment is ____

A

3 months

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11
Q

Which of the following forms are required to be forwarded to PSC as soon as a reenlistment is effected?

A

DD Form 4, CG-4170A, CG-2020D, SGLI-8286, SGLI-8286A

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12
Q

The Commandant will involuntarily extend all reserve enlistments in effect during war or national emergency for a period not later than _____

A

6 months from the end of the war or national emergency

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13
Q

A 14 month extension can be authorized for the following circumstances with the exception of ______

A

Complete a vessel deployment

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14
Q

How long does a reservist not in active duty need to be affiliated in order to qualify for the Selected Reserve Educational Assistance Program?

A

30 days

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a valid reason to delete an extension before its goes into effect?

A

When dropped from school for a DUI

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16
Q

The abbreviation SR stands for ______

A

General apprenticeship, recruit

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17
Q

Among the personnel listed below, Who is considered the senior person?

A

A FSCS with 26 years of total service (12 Coast Guard, 14 Navy) and 5 years as an E-8

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18
Q

For an award certificate, what is the correct way to write a member’s name?

A

Yeoman Second Class Bart E. Simpson

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19
Q

What is the maximum amount of credits you can get for advancement from your sea time?

A

30

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20
Q

<p>

| The Bronze Star Medal is worth \_\_\_\_\_ credits for advancement</p>

A

<p>

| 5 </p>

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21
Q

A Chief that wants to compete for advancement must have 2 years as an E-7 before her/his ________

A

Terminal eligibility date

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22
Q

An E-8 competing for advancement must have 12 years of ______

A

Active service

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23
Q

SED are always ____ before the exam month

A

3 months

24
Q

When computing the SWE Marks Factor for an E-6, all the EERs for the previous _____ will be use

A

15 months prior to the SWE eligibility date

25
Q

For members attending advance training that want to compete in the SWE, what EERs are used to compute their SWE Marks Factor?

A

Marks done before the member entered advance training

26
Q

Who is authorized to sign EPQs?

A

Have to be at least one rank above the person and in the same rate

27
Q

A SN attending YN “A” can re-test for his EPME EOCT _____

A

Every 7 days

28
Q

A BM1 that got authorization change rates and to attend HS “A” school will report to the TRACEN as a _____

A

BM2

29
Q

Earlier this year EM1 Jones came to the Coast Guard directly from the Navy without losing rank. She wants to know is she can take next May’s SWE. You tell her _____ .

A

She have to have 2 years TIR in active duty in any branch of the armed forces

30
Q

EM1 Jones also wants to know how many sea duty points she will have for the SWE. You tell her _____

A

That CG PPC (adv) will make the determination of her sea points

31
Q

A BM2 that laterals to OS3 will have his sea points PSD ____

A

Will carry any points made as an E-4 and above until he makes OS2

32
Q

A member that is retired after he is declared unfit for duty and took the latest SWE will be ______

A

Advanced if his name is above the cut-off, the promotion will be done before he retires

33
Q

Advancements resulting from the SWE process shall be effective _____

A

On the 1st and the 16th of the month

34
Q

Personnel reduced to ___ will have their designators removed.

A

E-1

35
Q

Aside from “a” school, when does a non-rate get a designator assign to her/him?

A

When the person appears in the eligibility list

36
Q

Before a commanding officer can request a restoration/advancement of a formerly held rank/rate they need to observe the member for at least _____ but not more than _____ .

A

5 months

36 months

37
Q

How soon after a reduction to E-1 can a commanding officer advance the member to E-2?

A

There is no time constraint

38
Q

Personnel that get advanced after reduction in grade will not get a new promotion certificate.

A

False

39
Q

Periods of evaluation for members considered for reduction by reason of incompetence are ______

A

3 months

40
Q

Who can reduce a Chief Petty Officer for incompetence?

A

The Commandant

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a legitimate reason for frocking an enlisted member?
A

To entitle the member to the proper travel entitlement

42
Q

Which of the following is not a valid Eligibility Date?

A

1 January

43
Q

Which of the following is a valid Terminal Eligibility Date?

A

1 January

44
Q

Which of the following is not a valid reason to request a substitute SWE?

A

Change of CO’s recommendation

45
Q

Strikers are not allowed to have any NJPs for ___ before being recommended for advancement

A

6 months

46
Q

Which of the following rates is not open for striking?

A

OS

47
Q

Placement on the striker list is done by ______

A

DTG in the message

48
Q

OIC in ashore units need ______ before they can wear the OIC Insignia

A

Serve as a designated OIC for six months

49
Q

When are miniature Coxswain Insignias authorized?

A

Never

50
Q

Measuring the qualities that the Coast Guard values in people, falls under what type of factor?

A

Professional

51
Q

EER Approving Official must be ____ .

A

OIC E-7 or above

52
Q

E-2 EER are due _____.

A

July

53
Q

Which of the following is a valid reason to skip a marking period?

A

Member is away TDY for more than 92 days

54
Q

For reduction in rate by reason for incompetence the CO is required to do a EER effective ____

A

The day before the reduction in rate

55
Q

In the EER process the terms: Low, Middle and high refer to ____

A

Performance standards

56
Q

A mark of 6 is considered _____

A

Excellent

57
Q

An E-6 with a sum of marks that falls below ___ in their performance factor will lose their eligibility for their good conduct award.

A

24

Accessions/Evals/Advancements (1 decks)

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