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Module 4 Diagnostic Exam > 1-100 > Flashcards

1-100 Flashcards

1
Q

This refers to the reaction of the body to the drug

A

Pharmacodynamics

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2
Q

What route of administration would give you 100 % bioavailability

A

IV, IA, IVA

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3
Q

Which route of administration would not bypass hepatic first pass

A

Oral

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4
Q

Which statement is True regarding
Bioavailability

A

Greatly affected by drug absorption

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5
Q

Rate of diffusion is explained by

A

NONE

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6
Q

Rate of diffusion is INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL to

A

Membrane thickness

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7
Q

Drug disposition includes

A

DME

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8
Q

Drug elimination starts from

A

M

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9
Q

Refers to the general area of study involving formulation, manufacture, stability and effectiveness of pharmaceutical dosage form

A

Biopharmaceutics

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10
Q

What term is used to describe the rate and
extent of drug absorption from a dosage form

A

Bioavailability

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11
Q

A substance to which a drug needs to
interact with to elicit a pharmacological effect

A

Receptor

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12
Q

The ability of a drug to exert pharmacologic action

A

Intrinsic activity

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13
Q

Aspirin, an acidic drug, is best absorbed in
the stomach where the pH = 1-2. This is
explained by

A

Henderson-Hasselbach Equation

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14
Q

Increased surface area

A

Increased absorption

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15
Q

True of Drug Absorption

A

The rate and extent of which (drug
absorption) is referred to as
Bioavailability

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16
Q

Activates receptor with maximal efficacy

A

Full agonist

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17
Q

Which of the following is FALSE

A

High molecular weight drugs diffuse
across a cell membrane more easily than
low MW drugs

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18
Q

What type of transport mechanism is
CARRIER mediated but does not utilize ATP

A

Facilitated Diffusion

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19
Q

Most common Transport mechanism
observed by most drugs

A

Passive diffusion

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20
Q

The following are characteristic of Active
transport mechanism, EXCEPT

A

NOTA

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21
Q

Which of the following is the basis for the
computation of the Loading dose

A

Volume of Distribution

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22
Q

Which is FALSE regarding first pass effect?

A

Rapid hepatic metabolism increases
bioavailability

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23
Q

Phase 1 Reaction

A

Includes REDOX reaction

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24
Q

This enzyme is the one lacking in infants:
hence the occurrence of Gray Baby
Syndrome after administration of
Chloramphenicol

A

UDPGT

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25
Q

Phenobarbital when given to a patient on
chronic warfarin is classified as

A

Pharmacokinetic antagonist

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26
Q

Process wherein drug reversibly leaves the
bloodstream and enters the target organ

A

Distribution

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27
Q

The following follows Zero Order of Drug
elimination, EXCEPT

A

Chloramphenicol

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28
Q

Adjustment of drug dose is warranted in

A

Pediatric, Kidney and Liver disease Px

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29
Q

Which of the following is an Enzyme Inducer

A

Rifampicin

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30
Q

In a drug following first order kinetics, if the initial concentration is 1000mg, how much drug is left after 6 hours. (Half life is 2 hours)

A

125 mg

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31
Q

Which drug is associated with Phocomelia, a congenital deformity wherein the extremities of a child failed to develop is usually associated with this drug that was previously used to relieve headache among pregnant women?

A

Thalidomide

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32
Q

A term that refers to A small change in the
dose results in a significant change in the
response that may lead to danger of toxicity.

A

Steep slope of dose response curve

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33
Q

It is the causative agent of Minamata disease wherein the villagers manifested CNS toxicity.

A

Hg

34
Q

These factors determine the risk of toxicity
from repeated exposure to toxic substances.

A

Dose, interval, genetic

35
Q

A patient was rushed to the emergency room due to the uncontrolled capillary bleeding of his nose. You had noticed on his patient medical history that the
patient had undergone Coronary Angioplasty Bypass Grafting with stenting. To prevent the occurrence of the cardiovascular accidents such as heart attack and stroke, the patient was given with Drug X. What should be the antidote to be given to the patient?”

A

Vit K

36
Q

An 18-month-old boy presented in a semiconscious state with profound hypotension and bradycardia after ingesting several metoprolol tablets. Which among the
drugs given below is the most appropriate
antidote for this case?

A

Glucagon

37
Q

A patient was rushed into the
emergency room due to uncontrolled high
blood pressure, severe headache, joint an pain, mood disorders, abdominal
pain, and difficulty to concentrate. Upon
careful interview with the patient, you
confirmed that he was working as a gasoline
boy during night and a painter during the day. Antidote?

A

EDTA

38
Q

It refers to the clinical manifestation of
heparin due to its platelet aggregation effect:

A

Thrombosis

39
Q

It refers to the clinical manifestation of
GPIIb/IIIa antagonists due to its inhibition of platelet’s attachment to fibrinogen

A

Bleeding

40
Q

Drug reactions that occur rarely and
unpredictably amongst the population.

A

Idiosyncratic

41
Q

A drug that cause significant delay in the
absorption of Paracetamol by reducing the rate of gastric emptying

A

Anticholinergic

42
Q

The drug of choice in the treatment of arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication

A

Lidocaine

43
Q

Post-synaptic neuron in the Sympathetic
ANS pathway is

A

Adrenergic

44
Q

Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine are most
commonly used for which condition?

A

Myasthenia gravis

45
Q

A new drug is currently being developed
whose mechanism of action is stimulation of the Beta-3 receptors. In which condition will this drug have most likely usefulness?

A

Obesity

46
Q

Among DM patient using insulin or Oral
hypoglycemic agents, why are Beta blockers used with special caution if not totally avoided?

A

Mask hypoglycemic symptoms

47
Q

The effects of muscarinic receptor activation in tissues like the exocrine glands and extravascular smooth muscles have been linked with the generation of which second messenger molecule?

A

IP3

48
Q

In schizophrenic symptoms there is primarily

A

Increased DA

49
Q

Chloramphenicol can cause

A

Bone marrow depression

50
Q

A broad spectrum gram negative
cephalosporin

A

Cefotaxime

51
Q

What is the most important mechanism of
termination of effects of released
Norepinephrine which is the target of action of TCAs and cocaine

A

Reuptake

52
Q

A given adrenergic agent induces uterine
relaxation and bronchial muscle relaxation. These effects can be attributed to

A

B2 agonist

53
Q

In combination therapy for TB, the following are commonly administered orally except

A

S

54
Q

Furosemide is useful for the treatment of the ff, EXCEPT

A

Hypoglycemia

55
Q

What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart?

A

B1

56
Q

In terms of mechanism of action, which of the following drugs most closely resembles that of clonidine

A

Methyldopa

57
Q

In the adrenal medulla, Norepinephrine is
converted Epinephrine

A

PEMT

58
Q

At what dose should dopamine be given as IV infusion to produce a predominantly
dopaminergic effect?

A

0.5-5

59
Q

Prolonged therapeutic administration of
cortisone induces

A

Hypofunction of adrenal

60
Q

Which of the following most likely cause
Malignant hyperthermia?

A

Nm blocker

61
Q

Which of the ff inhalational anesthetics is
contraindicated for patients with Asthma
especially those who had a recent Asthma
exacerbation in the past month?

A

Desflurane

62
Q

All of the ff general anesthetic agents can
decrease Blood pressure, EXCEPT

A

Ketamine

63
Q

This can decrease gastric emptying time

A

Mild exercise

64
Q

What is the primary MOA of Indapamide?

A

Inhibition of Na-Cl Contransport

65
Q

Which of following electrolyte abnormalities AGGRAVATE Digoxin toxicity ?

A

Hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, hypomagnesemia

66
Q

To what generation of cephalosporin does
Cefotetan belong?

A

2nd

67
Q

The ff are 3rd generation Cephalosporins
EXCEPT

A

Cefprozil

68
Q

4th generation cephalosporin has an
advantage as compared to the first – third
generation by having a coverage against?

A

Pseudomonas

69
Q

Class of antibacterial that has a coverage for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Ureidopenicillin

70
Q

True of the combination of Amoxicillin and
Clavulanic acid

A

Can be given q8h for 60d

71
Q

Which of the ff is a TRUE statement?

A

Eradication of H. pylori should be prio in px w/ infection

72
Q

Main stay treatment of Gastroesophageal
reflux disease and Peptic Ulcer disease?

A

PPI

73
Q

Which of the ff anesthetic agents can cause an INCREASE in BP?

A

Ketamine

74
Q

PRILOCAINE is known to cause which of the ff ADR

A

Methemoglobinemia

75
Q

Which inhalational anesthetic is
contraindicated in patients with Asthma
especially to those patients who has an acute asthma exacerbation in the past 3 weeks?

A

Desflurane

76
Q

PTB Category I (New case of TB, except TB
of CNS, bones and joints) Treatment regime

A

2HRZE; 4HR

77
Q

Baseline Ophthalmologic Exam shall be
done prior to starting which of the ff drugs?

A

Ethambutol

78
Q

Drug that can effect to the closure of patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Indomethacin

79
Q

Which of the ff drugs in an IRREVERSIBLE
inhibitor of cyclooxygenase?

A

Aspirin

80
Q

Which drug is the CURRENT DMARD of
choice?

A

Methotrexate

81
Q
A

Module 4 Diagnostic Exam (1 decks)

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