1-100 Flashcards

1
Q

This refers to the reaction of the body to the drug

A

Pharmacodynamics

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2
Q

What route of administration would give you 100 % bioavailability

A

IV, IA, IVA

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3
Q

Which route of administration would not bypass hepatic first pass

A

Oral

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4
Q

Which statement is True regarding
Bioavailability

A

Greatly affected by drug absorption

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5
Q

Rate of diffusion is explained by

A

NONE

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6
Q

Rate of diffusion is INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL to

A

Membrane thickness

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7
Q

Drug disposition includes

A

DME

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8
Q

Drug elimination starts from

A

M

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9
Q

Refers to the general area of study involving formulation, manufacture, stability and effectiveness of pharmaceutical dosage form

A

Biopharmaceutics

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10
Q

What term is used to describe the rate and
extent of drug absorption from a dosage form

A

Bioavailability

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11
Q

A substance to which a drug needs to
interact with to elicit a pharmacological effect

A

Receptor

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12
Q

The ability of a drug to exert pharmacologic action

A

Intrinsic activity

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13
Q

Aspirin, an acidic drug, is best absorbed in
the stomach where the pH = 1-2. This is
explained by

A

Henderson-Hasselbach Equation

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14
Q

Increased surface area

A

Increased absorption

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15
Q

True of Drug Absorption

A

The rate and extent of which (drug
absorption) is referred to as
Bioavailability

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16
Q

Activates receptor with maximal efficacy

A

Full agonist

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17
Q

Which of the following is FALSE

A

High molecular weight drugs diffuse
across a cell membrane more easily than
low MW drugs

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18
Q

What type of transport mechanism is
CARRIER mediated but does not utilize ATP

A

Facilitated Diffusion

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19
Q

Most common Transport mechanism
observed by most drugs

A

Passive diffusion

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20
Q

The following are characteristic of Active
transport mechanism, EXCEPT

A

NOTA

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21
Q

Which of the following is the basis for the
computation of the Loading dose

A

Volume of Distribution

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22
Q

Which is FALSE regarding first pass effect?

A

Rapid hepatic metabolism increases
bioavailability

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23
Q

Phase 1 Reaction

A

Includes REDOX reaction

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24
Q

This enzyme is the one lacking in infants:
hence the occurrence of Gray Baby
Syndrome after administration of
Chloramphenicol

A

UDPGT

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25
Phenobarbital when given to a patient on chronic warfarin is classified as
Pharmacokinetic antagonist
26
Process wherein drug reversibly leaves the bloodstream and enters the target organ
Distribution
27
The following follows Zero Order of Drug elimination, EXCEPT
Chloramphenicol
28
Adjustment of drug dose is warranted in
Pediatric, Kidney and Liver disease Px
29
Which of the following is an Enzyme Inducer
Rifampicin
30
In a drug following first order kinetics, if the initial concentration is 1000mg, how much drug is left after 6 hours. (Half life is 2 hours)
125 mg
31
Which drug is associated with Phocomelia, a congenital deformity wherein the extremities of a child failed to develop is usually associated with this drug that was previously used to relieve headache among pregnant women?
Thalidomide
32
A term that refers to A small change in the dose results in a significant change in the response that may lead to danger of toxicity.
Steep slope of dose response curve
33
It is the causative agent of Minamata disease wherein the villagers manifested CNS toxicity.
Hg
34
These factors determine the risk of toxicity from repeated exposure to toxic substances.
Dose, interval, genetic
35
A patient was rushed to the emergency room due to the uncontrolled capillary bleeding of his nose. You had noticed on his patient medical history that the patient had undergone Coronary Angioplasty Bypass Grafting with stenting. To prevent the occurrence of the cardiovascular accidents such as heart attack and stroke, the patient was given with Drug X. What should be the antidote to be given to the patient?"
Vit K
36
An 18-month-old boy presented in a semiconscious state with profound hypotension and bradycardia after ingesting several metoprolol tablets. Which among the drugs given below is the most appropriate antidote for this case?
Glucagon
37
A patient was rushed into the emergency room due to uncontrolled high blood pressure, severe headache, joint an pain, mood disorders, abdominal pain, and difficulty to concentrate. Upon careful interview with the patient, you confirmed that he was working as a gasoline boy during night and a painter during the day. Antidote?
EDTA
38
It refers to the clinical manifestation of heparin due to its platelet aggregation effect:
Thrombosis
39
It refers to the clinical manifestation of GPIIb/IIIa antagonists due to its inhibition of platelet’s attachment to fibrinogen
Bleeding
40
Drug reactions that occur rarely and unpredictably amongst the population.
Idiosyncratic
41
A drug that cause significant delay in the absorption of Paracetamol by reducing the rate of gastric emptying
Anticholinergic
42
The drug of choice in the treatment of arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication
Lidocaine
43
Post-synaptic neuron in the Sympathetic ANS pathway is
Adrenergic
44
Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine are most commonly used for which condition?
Myasthenia gravis
45
A new drug is currently being developed whose mechanism of action is stimulation of the Beta-3 receptors. In which condition will this drug have most likely usefulness?
Obesity
46
Among DM patient using insulin or Oral hypoglycemic agents, why are Beta blockers used with special caution if not totally avoided?
Mask hypoglycemic symptoms
47
The effects of muscarinic receptor activation in tissues like the exocrine glands and extravascular smooth muscles have been linked with the generation of which second messenger molecule?
IP3
48
In schizophrenic symptoms there is primarily
Increased DA
49
Chloramphenicol can cause
Bone marrow depression
50
A broad spectrum gram negative cephalosporin
Cefotaxime
51
What is the most important mechanism of termination of effects of released Norepinephrine which is the target of action of TCAs and cocaine
Reuptake
52
A given adrenergic agent induces uterine relaxation and bronchial muscle relaxation. These effects can be attributed to
B2 agonist
53
In combination therapy for TB, the following are commonly administered orally except
S
54
Furosemide is useful for the treatment of the ff, EXCEPT
Hypoglycemia
55
What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart?
B1
56
In terms of mechanism of action, which of the following drugs most closely resembles that of clonidine
Methyldopa
57
In the adrenal medulla, Norepinephrine is converted Epinephrine
PEMT
58
At what dose should dopamine be given as IV infusion to produce a predominantly dopaminergic effect?
0.5-5
59
Prolonged therapeutic administration of cortisone induces
Hypofunction of adrenal
60
Which of the following most likely cause Malignant hyperthermia?
Nm blocker
61
Which of the ff inhalational anesthetics is contraindicated for patients with Asthma especially those who had a recent Asthma exacerbation in the past month?
Desflurane
62
All of the ff general anesthetic agents can decrease Blood pressure, EXCEPT
Ketamine
63
This can decrease gastric emptying time
Mild exercise
64
What is the primary MOA of Indapamide?
Inhibition of Na-Cl Contransport
65
Which of following electrolyte abnormalities AGGRAVATE Digoxin toxicity ?
Hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, hypomagnesemia
66
To what generation of cephalosporin does Cefotetan belong?
2nd
67
The ff are 3rd generation Cephalosporins EXCEPT
Cefprozil
68
4th generation cephalosporin has an advantage as compared to the first – third generation by having a coverage against?
Pseudomonas
69
Class of antibacterial that has a coverage for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Ureidopenicillin
70
True of the combination of Amoxicillin and Clavulanic acid
Can be given q8h for 60d
71
Which of the ff is a TRUE statement?
Eradication of H. pylori should be prio in px w/ infection
72
Main stay treatment of Gastroesophageal reflux disease and Peptic Ulcer disease?
PPI
73
Which of the ff anesthetic agents can cause an INCREASE in BP?
Ketamine
74
PRILOCAINE is known to cause which of the ff ADR
Methemoglobinemia
75
Which inhalational anesthetic is contraindicated in patients with Asthma especially to those patients who has an acute asthma exacerbation in the past 3 weeks?
Desflurane
76
PTB Category I (New case of TB, except TB of CNS, bones and joints) Treatment regime
2HRZE; 4HR
77
Baseline Ophthalmologic Exam shall be done prior to starting which of the ff drugs?
Ethambutol
78
Drug that can effect to the closure of patent ductus arteriosus?
Indomethacin
79
Which of the ff drugs in an IRREVERSIBLE inhibitor of cyclooxygenase?
Aspirin
80
Which drug is the CURRENT DMARD of choice?
Methotrexate
81