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Assessment and Evaluation > 06: Final Exam > Flashcards

06: Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

“Consistently endorsing (or consistently rejecting) items without much regard for their content” is known as:

A. Extremity
B. Acquiescence
C. Social Desirability
D. Malingering
E. Careless Responding
F. Guessing

A

B

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2
Q

“A threat to the validity of research and observation in which the person may convey a poor impression to the person doing the observation” is known as:

A. Extremity
B. Acquiescence
C. Social Desirability
D. Malingering
E. Careless Responding
F. Guessing

A

D

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3
Q

“Supposing the answer to an item” is known as:

A. Extremity
B. Acquiescence
C. Social Desirability
D. Malingering
E. Careless Responding
F. Guessing

A

F

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4
Q

“Consistently overusing or underusing utmost response options regardless of the respondents standing on the relevant construct” is known as:

A. Extremity
B. Acquiescence
C. Social Desirability
D. Malingering
E. Careless Responding
F. Guessing

A

A

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5
Q

Variance is the degree to which individual scores in a distribution differ from

A. each other
B. the highest score
C. mean
D. standard deviation

A

C

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6
Q

True or false: Variability can be negative.

A

False

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7
Q

The distance between the person’s score and the mean is known as the

A. raw score
B. standard deviation
C. z score
D. variance

A

B

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8
Q

What is another word for a person’s score in a normal distribution?

A. variance
B. z score
C. x score
D. raw score

A

B

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9
Q

True or false: Standard deviations can be positive or negative.

A

True

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10
Q

Criterion-referenced tests use ________ to provide measures of performance that are interpretable based on clearly defined criteria.

A

Cut off scores

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11
Q

Reference samples are used in what kind of assessments?

A

Normative assessments

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12
Q

True or false: Percentile ranks indicate the percentage of scores that are BELOW the specific test score.

A

True

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13
Q

True or false: Percentile ranks are used with both criterion-referenced and normative assessments

A

False

Only normative assessments

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14
Q

What is the difference between a Z score and T score?

A

Z-score: You know the population; the mean is 0 in a normal distribution; standard deviations, typically ranging from -3 to 3.

T-score: Based on a sample of the population; the mean is 50, and the standard deviations are always increments of 10 (and positive), typically ranging from 20 to 80.

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15
Q

How are test norms developed?

A

Test norms are given to a large group of research participants. Data is then analyzed for trends or patterns.

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16
Q

What is the COSMIN taxonomy?

A

The taxonomy comprises three domains with measurement properties within them.

Domain 1: Reliability
* Internal consistency
* Reliability (test-retest; intra-rater; inter-rater)
* Measurement error (test-retest; intra-rater; inter-rater)

Domain 2: Validity
* Content validity
——Face validity
* Criterion validity (concurrent validity, predictive validity)
* Construct validity
——Structural validity
——Hypothesis testing
——Cross-cultural validity

Domain 3: Responsiveness
* Responsiveness

——Interpretability

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17
Q

The ability of an instrument to detect change over time in the construct being measured is known as:

A. Interpretability
B. Clinically meaningful difference
C. Treatment effect
D. Responsiveness
E. Minimal clinically important difference (MCID)
F. Change score

A

D

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18
Q

The degree to which one can assign qualitative meaning to an instrument’s qualitative scores or change in scores is called:

A. Interpretability
B. Clinically meaningful difference
C. Treatment effect
D. Responsiveness
E. Minimal clinically important difference (MCID)
F. Change score

A

A

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19
Q

The difference between a baseline test score from a discharge test score is known as:

A. Interpretability
B. Clinically meaningful difference
C. Treatment effect
D. Responsiveness
E. Minimal clinically important difference (MCID)
F. Change score

A

F

20
Q

The mean difference between groups that is enough for patients to consider the difference significant (a threshold must be established as an outcome measure):

A. Interpretability
B. Clinically meaningful difference
C. Treatment effect
D. Responsiveness
E. Minimal clinically important difference (MCID)
F. Change score

A

B

21
Q

The difference in outcome scores between groups is known as:

A. Interpretability
B. Clinically meaningful difference
C. Treatment effect
D. Responsiveness
E. Minimal clinically important difference (MCID)
F. Change score

A

C

22
Q

The smallest change worthwhile to patients (referring to the difference between groups) is known as:

A. Interpretability
B. Clinically meaningful difference
C. Treatment effect
D. Responsiveness
E. Minimal clinically important difference (MCID)
F. Change score

A

E

23
Q

What is the difference between clinical change versus treatment effect?

A

Clinical change has a threshold as an outcome measure; if the change is above this, it is a clinically significant treatment.

The treatment effect is ANY change the treatment has.

24
Q

How is the standard error of measurement (SEM) used in establishing the minimal clinically important difference (MCID)?

A

SEM uses test-retest reliability

25
Q

How is the standard deviation (SD) used in establishing the minimal clinically important difference (MCID)?

A

SD is used to calculate the effect size

Small: 0.2
Medium: 0.5
Large: 0.8

26
Q

How are the anchor-based methods used in establishing the minimal clinically important difference (MCID)?

A

Uses an “explicit scale” post-treatment that serves as an external standard to compare changes in PROM (patient-reported outcome measure)

27
Q

A broad construct including the factors specific to each client is called…

A

context

28
Q

True or false: Context can affect a client’s access to occupations.

A

True

29
Q

The Activity Card Sort assesses what type of context?

A. Personal context
B. Cultural context
C. Social context
D. Virtual context
E. Temporal context
F. Physical context

A

C

30
Q

What role does context play in an individual’s life?

A

For people to truly achieve full participation, meaning, and purpose, they must not only function but also engage comfortably within their own distinct combination of contexts

31
Q

The Activity Card Sort, Late-Life Function and Disability
Instrument, Canadian Occupational Performance Measure, and WHO Disability Assessment Schedule are example of ___________________________ of context.

A

Standardized assessments

32
Q

Why might you use non-standardized assessments in pediatric or older adult contexts?

A

Peds: Emphasis on evaluations of elements of context that promote development

OAs: Emphasis on evaluation of safety, accessibility, workplace supports, community supports

Activity analysis and observation: May be in client’s natural environment

33
Q

“Abstaining from causing harm to others” describes what ethical principle in Occupational Therapy?

A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
E. Veracity
F. Fidelity

A

B

34
Q

“Promoting fairness and objectivity” describes what ethical principle in Occupational Therapy?

A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
E. Veracity
F. Fidelity

A

D

35
Q

“Truthfulness when representing OT” describes what ethical principle in Occupational Therapy?

A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
E. Veracity
F. Fidelity

A

E

36
Q

“All forms of action intended for the well-being and safety of clients” describes what ethical principle in Occupational Therapy?

A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
E. Veracity
F. Fidelity

A

A

37
Q

“Respect clients’ rights to self-determination, privacy, confidentiality, and consent” describes what ethical principle in Occupational Therapy?

A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
E. Veracity
F. Fidelity

A

C

38
Q

“Commitment to treat clients and others with respect, fairness, discretion, and integrity” describes what ethical principle in Occupational Therapy?

A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
E. Veracity
F. Fidelity

A

F

39
Q

Order the following steps in the correct order for developing a new standardized assessment.

A. Evaluate the items (e.g., reliability, correlations, variance, dimensionality)
B. Face validity
C. Determine format for measurement (e.g., Likert, response categories)
D. Generate item pool (consider redundancy, # items)
E. Cognitive interviewing (qualitative method)
F. Determine clearly what it is you want to measure
G. Administer items to development sample
H. Content validity
I. Optimize scale length

A
  1. F Determine measurements
  2. D Generate item pool
  3. C Determine measurement format
  4. H Content validity
  5. B Face validity
  6. E Cognitive interviewing
  7. G Development sample
  8. A Evaluate the items
  9. I Optimize scale length
40
Q

What is internal consistency?

A

The degree to which items are consistent with each other

41
Q

High item-total correlation means…

A

The item is consistent with the total test scores

42
Q

Low item-total correlation means…

A

The item is consistent with the test as a whole

43
Q

True or false: In psychometrics, the discriminate validity of a survey instrument, like an IQ-test, indicates that the results obtained by this instrument do not correlate too strongly with measurements of a similar but distinct trait.

A

True

44
Q

True or false: In psychometrics, a high correlation between two test scores from the same assessment suggests convergent validity.

A

False

If the scores of the two DIFFERENT methods are similar, this suggests that they indeed measure the same construct. A high correlation between the two test scores suggests convergent validity.

45
Q

Why would you use factor analysis?

A
  1. Make judgments regarding the number of factors reflected in a set of test items
  2. Determine is scales/factors cluster together to form an overall factor or if factors are independent
  3. To check that items intended to reflect a particular factor actually are connected to that factor and no others

Assessment and Evaluation (1 decks)

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