05b: Cirrhosis Flashcards

1
Q

Normal portal pressure is (X) mmHg. Clinical manifestations of portal HTN is seen at/over (Y) mmHg.

A
X = 2-6
Y = 12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Two mechanisms that cause portal HTN.

A
  1. Increased resistance to portal flow (mechanical obstruction)
  2. Secondary increase in portal blood flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Portal flow can be measured by which clinical tool?

A

Doppler ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

About 60% of cirrhosis cases are caused by which two etiologies?

A

HCV and EtOH (either separately or in combo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common cause of portal HTN worldwide is (X). And in the US is (Y).

A
X = schistosomiasis
Y = cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Portal HTN: Calculating the (X) gradient has been shown to have prognostic value in patients with cirrhosis. If below (Y) value, there’s significantly lower risk of bleeding from varices.

A

X = HVPG (Hepatic venous pressure gradient);

Y = 12 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most forms of cirrhosis are (pre-hepatic/hepatic/post-hepatic).

A

Hepatic (sinusoidal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Splenic/portal vein thrombosis is example of (pre-hepatic/hepatic/post-hepatic) cirrhosis.

A

Pre-hepatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CHF can lead to (pre-hepatic/hepatic/post-hepatic) cirrhosis.

A

Post-hepatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Schistosomiasis is example of (pre-hepatic/hepatic/post-hepatic) cirrhosis.

A

Hepatic (pre-sinusoidal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Budd-Chiari Syndrome caused by (X) and is example of (pre-hepatic/hepatic/post-hepatic) cirrhosis.

A

X = Hepatic v thrombosis

Post-hepatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Of all the clinical signs in decompensated cirrhosis, (X) is the most dramatic and cause of death in up to (Y) of all patients with cirrhosis.

A
X = esophageal varices bleeding
Y = 1/3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the 5 main parameters used in “Child” criteria to assess severity/mortality with bleeding varices in cirrhosis.

A

Acronym: ABCPE

Albumin, BR, asCites, PT, Encephelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Patient actively bleeding from esophageal varices requires emergent:

A
  1. Endoscopy (variceal ligation)

2. Resuscitation (IV fluids, blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which drugs used for Rx in acute esophageal variceal bleeding?

A

Octreotide (long-acting somatostatin analog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cirrhosis: (X) cells are responsible for the ECM deposition and fibrosis.

A

X = hepatic stellate cells (which act as myofibroblasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cirrhotic liver pathophysiology: sinusoidal fenestrations are (normal/wider/narrower).

A

Narrower (lost!) - hence increased resistance to blood flow within sinusoid lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(High/low) platelets may be marker of portal HTN. Why?

A

Low;

Blood backs up to spleen (splenomegaly) and platelets sequestered there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Increased intrahepatic resistance in cirrhosis is caused by both architectural and functional alterations. What are examples of functional alterations?

A

Active contraction of stellate/myofibroblast and vascular smooth muscle cells (modifiable by drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Octreotide used in cirrhosis patients for treatment of (X) complication. What are the mechanisms by which it does this?

A

X = esophageal varices bleeding (somatostatin analog)

  1. Decrease post-prandial hyperemia (by inhibiting glucagon release)
  2. Direct vasoconstriction of splanchnic arteriolar muscle (decrease collateral flow)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Screening followed by primary prophylaxis for variceal bleeding includes (X) drugs/procedure.

A

X = non-selective beta-blockers OR endoscopic band ligation (EBL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Esophageal variceal bleeding prophylaxis: (selective/non-selective) beta blockers used only for which effects?

A

Non-selective;

B1: decreases CO and splanchnic blood flow
B2: Allows unopposed alpha1 splanchnic vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: Part of treating active variceal bleed is to give antibiotic prophylaxis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

All patients with ascites should undergo (X) diagnostic procedure.

A

X = paracentesis (of 50cc fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
T/F: Chronic liver disease accounts for 40-50% of ascites cases.
False - almost 80%!
26
Ascites: albumin in ascites fluid is (lower/equal/higher) compared to that in plasma.
Lower
27
Which three measurements are taken from paracentesis of ascites fluid?
1. Albumin 2. Total protein 3. Cell count
28
(X) gradient is calculated following paracentesis of ascites fluid. If it's greater than 1.1, what are the main potential causes of the ascites?
X = SAAG (serum-ascites albumin gradient/gap) 1. Cirrhosis 2. Cardiac
29
List the four main etiologies that are responsible for 99% of ascites cases.
1. Cirrhosis 2. Cardiac 3. Malignancy 4. Infection
30
(X) gradient is calculated following paracentesis of ascites fluid. If it's less than 1.1, what are the main potential causes of the ascites?
X = SAAG (serum-ascites albumin gradient/gap) 1. Malignancy 2. Infection
31
Since both cirrhoses and (X) ascites have SAAG (greater/less) than 1.1, (Y) is used to differentiate between them.
X = cardiac Greater; Y = total protein (Cirrhosis will have TP under 2.5 and cardiac greater than 2.5)
32
Treatment of ascites: (star the most important factor)
1. Na restriction 2. Diuretics* 3. (Maybe) large V paracentesis
33
T/F: Fluid restriction doesn't help treat ascites.
True - just Na restrict; fluid restrict only if hyponatremic
34
What's spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
Spontaneous infection of ascitic fluid without any apparent intraabdominal source of infection
35
(X) is used to diagnose spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.
X = paracentesis (WBC over 500 with PMNs over 50% in ascetic fluid)
36
Rx for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.
1. Antibiotics (ceftriaxone) 2. IV albumin (circulatory support) 3. Secondary prophylaxis (antibiotics)
37
T/F: ICP is elevated in hepatic encephalopathy and anatomic lesions can be found in MRI.
Partly false - ICP elevated, no lesions
38
T/F: Most severe form of hepatic encephalopathy (coma) is irreversible in 80% of patients.
False - reversible in up to 50%
39
Main toxin responsible for hepatic encephalopathy is (X), which is produced by (Y) and normally metabolized to (Z) in a functional liver.
``` X = ammonia Y = colonic bacterial ureases Z = urea ```
40
Mortality of untreated SBP can be greater than (X)%.
X = 80!
41
T/F: Elevated ammonia levels are used to make diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy.
False - level does not correlate to severity
42
Hepatic encephalopathy treatement:
1. Lactulose | 2. Rifaximin (antibiotic)
43
How does lactulose treat hepatic encephalopathy?
Metabolized by gut flora to FAs that lower colonic pH (ammonium formed and excreted)
44
Liver Disease classification: list the acute etiologies causing lobular disease.
Viral, drug, toxin
45
Liver Disease classification: list the chronic etiologies causing lobular disease.
1. Steatohepatitis 2. Viral 3. Autoimmune 4. Metabolic
46
Liver Disease classification: list the acute etiologies causing duct disease.
1. Obstruction | 2. Cholangitis
47
Liver Disease classification: list the chronic etiologies causing duct disease.
1. Primary biliary cholangitis 2. Biliary stricture 3. Sclerosing cholangitis
48
Viral and drug etiologies of liver disease cause (X) type of cell degeneration. Alcohol and metabolic etiologies cause (Y) type.
``` X = hydropic (ballooning/swelling) degeneration Y = steatosis (fatty accumulation) ```
49
Viral and drug etiologies of liver disease cause (X) type of cell death. Alcohol and metabolic etiologies cause (Y) type.
``` X = apoptosis and necrosis Y = necrosis and necroptosis ```
50
Liver pathology: Inflammatory response with high PMNs should make you think of (X) etiology.
X = alcohol
51
Liver pathology: (Purple/pink), acidophilic bodies indicative of (X) cell (degeneration/death).
Pink; | X = apoptosis (death)
52
Liver pathology: Mallory's hyaline indicative of (X) cell (degeneration/death).
X = necroptosis (death)
53
List the four necrosis patterns seen in liver disease (pathologically).
1. Spotty 2. Zonal 3. Piecemeal 4. Massive
54
Liver pathology: List the four "zones" that can be necrotic in zonal necrosis pattern.
1. Centrilobular 2. Mid-zonal 3. Peri-portal 4. Bridging necrosis
55
List the three etiologies that come to mind when centrilobular necrosis seen in liver disease.
1. Viral hepatitis (acute) 2. Drug/toxin-mediated (acetaminophen) 3. Ischemia
56
List the three most important causes of massive/fulminant hepatic necrosis.
1. Viral hepatitis 2. Toxicity (acetaminophen esp) 3. Idiosyncratic drug reaction
57
Liver pathology: (X) drugs can cause cholestasis without inflammation, resulting in (normal/elevated) (BR/ALT/AST/ALP).
X = anabolic steroids (androgens, estrogen) | Normal ALT/AST, elevated BR, ALP
58
T/F: Fibrosis is part of the histological pattern in steatosis.
True - pericellular and septal fibrosis
59
Ito cells in liver play a role in which pathological process?
Fibrosis
60
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease related to (X) syndrome.
X = metabolic (insulin resistance) Triad: DM (II), obesity, dyslipidemia
61
List the 3 main inherited metabolic diseases causing deposits and liver pathology. What accumulates in each? Star the most common.
1. Hemochromatosis (Fe)* 2. Wilson's (Cu) 3. Alpha-1 antitrypsin def (a-1 antitrypsin)
62
Liver biopsy: (X) stain for iron shows its abundant presence in (hepatocytes/ducts/scar tissue). What color would this patient's liver be?
X = Prussian blue All; Rust-colored
63
Wilson's disease associated with mutation in (X). What are some prominent histological features you would expect to see?
X = ATP7B (metal ion transporter) Mallory's hyaline, steatosis, vacuolated nuclei
64
PAS-diastase positive inclusions in liver suggests which disease?
Alpha-1 antitrypsin def (abnormal protein can't leave hepatocyte ER)
65
The hallmark histological lesion for (X) disease is a portal duct-centered inflammatory process that is typically granulomatous.
X = primary biliary cholangitis/cirrhosis