05. Defined Benefit Schemes Flashcards

1
Q

What is a defined benefit scheme?

A

One that provides a pension based on a % of salary at or close to retirement.

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2
Q

Why might a DC underpin be beneficial for employees who leave the scheme before normal pension age?

A

Because the preserved DC account should still grow and may well produce a better pension than the DB preserved pension.

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3
Q

What are career average schemes?

A

Those where the formula used to determine DB benefits is based on average earnings, thus reducing cost to employer of operating the scheme.

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4
Q

What are integrated schemes?

A

The pension provided is reduced in some way to take into account member’s State Pension.

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5
Q

What are AVC or FSAVC schemes used for?

A

To top up employer’s DB benefit schemes.

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6
Q

Where an AVC arrangement is offered within a DB scheme, it may be possible to use AVC contributions to buy what?

A

Added years of service in the scheme.

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7
Q

A DB scheme is governed by what?

A

A trust.

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8
Q

What is a bridging pension?

A

What a DB scheme can pay where the scheme’s normal pension age is lower than the SPA.

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9
Q

It is ___ and ___ to arrange membership for automatic enrolment of DC schemes vs DB ones.

A
  • quicker
  • cheaper
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10
Q

Common rules on scheme eligibility to join:

A
  • a minimum entry age
  • a probationary or ‘waiting period’
  • diff categories of employees
  • diff level of benefits for each cat
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11
Q

What are the 3 factors which will define DB retirement or death benefits?

A
  • definition of ‘pensionable service’
  • definition of ‘pensionable remuneration’
  • definition of ‘accrual rate’
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12
Q

Name factors which affects how much an employer must contribute into a DB scheme.

  • £
  • returns
  • rates
  • £: NRA
  • vol: NRA
  • dem
A
  • level of members’ final pensionable future remuneration
  • investment returns achieved
  • annuity rates available when member comes to retirement
  • cost of providing guaranteed benefits to members who leave scheme before NPA
  • number of members who die before NPA
  • profile of scheme membership e.g. age, marital status
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13
Q

What is the required frequency that the scheme’s actuary must calculate the level of employer contribution required?

A

At least every 3 years.

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14
Q

How are employee contributions set? [2]

A
  • as a % of pensionable salary
  • as a constant
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15
Q

Members who were contracted out between 6 Apr 1978 and 5 Apr 1997 built up an entitlement to what?

A

GMP

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16
Q

What is a pension increase exchange (PIE)?

A

Where the member is offered the option of giving up future guaranteed increases to their pension in return for a higher initial pension with no future increases other than statutory increases.

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17
Q

Name 3 reasons why PIEs are popular with DB schemes.

A
  • pensions that escalate in payment are expensive to provide
  • cost of the increases is an unknown liability; less longevity & inflation risk
  • employer does not suffer a large one off ‘cost’ in offering the PIE
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18
Q

Name 3 potential benefits to members of PIEs.

A
  • higher initial income when younger, active & healthy
  • may have a higher PCLS entitlement
  • better for those in poor health or with lower life expectancies
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19
Q

Name 3 drawbacks to members of taking PIEs.

A
  • may be worse off if live longer
  • as PCLS entitlement likely to be higher, max entitlement might be capped by LSA
  • higher initial pension may affect entitlement to means tested state benefits
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20
Q

What is an incentive exercise?

A

An invitation or inducement provided to a member to change the form of their accrued defined benefits rights in a UK registered pension scheme.

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21
Q

What 2 tests must be met for an incentive exercise to be applicable?

A
  • one objective of providing it is to reduce the risk or cost for the pension scheme or sponsors; and
  • it is not ordinarily available to members of the pension scheme.”

Excerpt From
Pensions and retirement planning
Helen Savage, BSc (Hons), Maria Shortland FPFS
This material may be protected by copyright.

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22
Q

DB schemes must undertake an actuarial scheme valuation every ___. However, this can be extended to every ___ years where the scheme’s trustees obtain actuarial reports in the intervening years.

A
  • year
  • 3
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23
Q

A ~~~ must be set for all private sector defined benefit schemes and under this objective, the scheme trustees must ensure that the scheme funding meets the scheme’s ~~.

A
  • statutory funding objective
  • technical provisions
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24
Q

What are a scheme’s technical provisions?

A

These are the amount of assets needed to cover the scheme’s future liabilities as they fall due.

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25
Q

The trustees must set up a ~~~~ and what must this detail?

A
  • statement of funding principles
  • how the statutory funding objective will be met.
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26
Q

A schedule of contributions must be produced, specifying the rates of contributions to be paid by both the employer and the members. This must be done within ~~ of the valuation’s effective date.

A

15 months

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27
Q

If the statutory funding objective has not been met, what must be done?

A

A recovery plan must be drawn up.

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28
Q

What is IAS 19?

A

Accounting standard which directions on the accounting treatment of defined benefit assets and liabilities which aims to make the cost to the company of running its pension scheme more transparent.

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29
Q

What does IAS 19 require?

A

It requires the pension scheme surplus or deficit to be brought onto the company’s balance sheet and the pension scheme cost into the income statement of the company profit and loss account.”

30
Q

When is a Section 143 valuation carried out and what does it establish?

A
  • Where a scheme enters the PPF.
  • Whether or not the scheme assets are sufficient to cover the PPF level of compensation.
31
Q

What options are available to trustees & employers who face pension scheme deficits? [6]

A
  • increase member & employer cont.s
  • reducing or stopping the accrual of future ben.s
  • revising investment strategy
  • transferring existing company assets to scheme
  • extending scheme’s NPA
  • ‘final salary’ to ‘career av. earnings’
32
Q

What is a pension Superfund?

A

A form of consolidation where the Superfund replaces the sponsoring employer who wants to end their liability to the pension scheme.

33
Q

What is the only qualification needed to be eligible to act as a trustee for a DB scheme?

A

The only qualification needed to be eligible to act as a trustee is the legal capacity to hold property.

34
Q

Name 4 who cannot act as a trustee.

A
  • minors
  • the insane
  • anyone disqualified under the Pensions Act 1995 (e.g. bankrupt)
  • someone prohibited by the TPR
35
Q

Trustees are obligated to report delays in the payment of contributions of more than how long to the TPR?

A

Delays of more than 30 days.

36
Q

“At least XX of trustees of an occupational pension scheme must be member nominated, unless [2]

A
  • one-third
  • every member of scheme is trustee
  • scheme has only 1 member
37
Q

Name 3 people the trustees must formally appoint.

A
  • auditor
  • actuary
  • fund manager
38
Q

“The scheme actuary appointed by the trustees ___ be a scheme trustee.

A

may not

39
Q

Name 3 conditions for the scheme auditor.

A
  • must be appointed by the trustees
  • must hold a practising certificate
  • must be a registered auditor
40
Q

Name 4 circumstances which would prevent a registered auditor who holds a practising certificate from acting as a scheme auditor.

A
  • member of the scheme
  • employee of the trustees
  • employer in relation to scheme
  • a trustee or connected to trustees
41
Q

“The Finance Act 2004 requires every pension scheme to have a ~~.

A

scheme administrator

42
Q

“A scheme administrator can appoint a ~ to act on their behalf for someduties.

A

practitioner

43
Q

What is a short service refund?

A

Where an employee who leaves the scheme after less than two years may be entitled to a return of their own personal contributions.

44
Q

A member who has completed how much service must be given the option of a CETV?

A

3 months service

45
Q

What is the tax treatment if a refund of a member’s contributions is awarded?

A
  • first £20k taxed @ 20%
  • excess taxed @ 50%
46
Q

When is the member entitled to a preserved pension? [2]

A
  • when the rules of the scheme permit; or
  • after 2 years of service
47
Q

What is short service benefit?

A

Where members who leave pensionable service under an occupational pension scheme with at
least two years’ ‘qualifying service’ are entitled to a minimum level of preserved benefit.

48
Q

A member of a defined benefit scheme with a preserved pension is usually known as what? [2]

A
  • a deferred member; or
  • a deferred pensioner
49
Q

Preserved pension revaluing rules for contracted in:

  • Benefits accrued up to 5 Apr 2009
  • Benefits accrued after 5 Apr 2009
A
  • revalued at CPI, capped at 5%
  • revalued at CPI, capped at 2.5%
50
Q

Preserved pension revaluing rules for contracted out:

  • GMP benefits [2]
  • post -97 benefits
A
  • increase in NAE (s.148 orders)
  • or fixed rate
  • revalued at CPI, capped at 5% / 2.5% (2009+)
51
Q

What must the CETV be?

A

The cash equivalent of the guaranteed benefits being given up.

52
Q

Name the 4 steps to calculating the CETV.

A

Step 1: Calculate the member’s preserved pension at the date of leaving
Step 2: Revalue the preserved pension up to the scheme’s normal pensionage
Step 3: Calculate the capital cost of buying the revalued pension at normal pensionage
“Step 4: Discount this capital cost at retirement to the present to provide its current capital value

53
Q

What leads to higher CETVs?

  • ~ annuity rates
  • ~ discount rates
  • ~ revaluation rates
A
  • lower
  • lower
  • higher
54
Q

What is the benefit to employers of offering enhanced transfer values? [3]

A

Reduces size of scheme’s liabilities, future risk & volatility.

55
Q

Name 4 conditions to transfer safeguarded benefits.

A
  • benefits are uncrystallised
  • member has ceased accrual within scheme
  • member has applied for & received statement of entitlement
  • member has made application to transfer benefits at least 1 year before they reach NPA.
56
Q

What value of safeguarded benefits must you get financial advice if transferring?

A

£30k exemption

57
Q

Members with safeguarded benefits have a statutory right to request a CETV once in every ~ month period.

A

12

58
Q

Within 1 month of a member applying for a statement of entitlement:

A

trustees must inform member of need to seek financial advice.

59
Q

Members must give confirmation to the trustees that they have taken independent advice within
~~ of the date on which the statement of entitlement was given to the member.

A

3 months

60
Q

Within 3 months of a member applying for a statement of entitlement:

A

the guarantee date must be set

61
Q

Within 10 days of the guarantee date:

A

trustees must provide statement of entitlement inc. formal quotation of CETV, confirmation trustees must check members have taken financial advice.

62
Q

Within 3 months of the guarantee date:

A

member must have submitted the application to proceed with the transfer.

63
Q

Within 3 months & 10 days of the guarantee date:

A

deadline for member to provide proof of independent advice.

64
Q

Within 6 months of the guarantee date:

A

having checked that independent advice was received by member, trustees must make transfer.

65
Q

What are an early leaver’s current statutory rights and options under a private sector defined benefit scheme if they leave with less than 3 months qualifying service?

A

No rights except refund of pensions cont.s.

66
Q

What are an early leaver’s current statutory rights and options under a private sector defined benefit scheme if they leave with between 3 months & 2 years qualifying service?

A
  • A refund of personal cont.s less tax; or
  • CETV
67
Q

What are an early leaver’s current statutory rights and options under a private sector defined benefit scheme if they leave with more than 2 years qualifying service?

A
  • A preserved pension payable at the scheme’s NRA; or
  • CETV
68
Q

What 2 things must a firm do before making a personal recommendation regarding a pension transfer?

A
  • determine proposed arrangement with flexible benefits to which client would move
  • carry out appropriate pension transfer analysis (APTA) & transfer value comparator (TVC).
69
Q

What proof must a firm obtain before going ahead with a pension transfer?

A

The firm must obtain proof that the client can demonstrate they understand the risks of transferring out of a defined benefit scheme.

70
Q

Name 4 factors a firm should take into account when demonstrating a transfer is in a client’s best interests.

A
  • client’s intention for accessing pension benefits.
  • client’s ATR.
  • client’s attitude & understanding of investment risk.
  • client’s realistic retirement income needs.
  • alternative ways of achieving client’s objectives instead of transfer.
71
Q
A