03a: PCI and EKG Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac cath may be beneficial in Angina Class I/II patients under which circumstances?

A
  1. Intolerant to anti-angina meds

2. Occupation high risk (ex: pilot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the general categories of diseases in which diagnostic cardiac catheterization is indicated.

A
  1. Coronary a disease
  2. Valvular disease
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Congenital disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the complications/risks of cardiac cath related to contrast agents.

A
  1. Anaphylaxis

2. Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: Death, MI, stroke are all risks of cardiac cath procedure.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The limitation of balloon angioplasty is:

A

high rate of restenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Exposed (bare-metal) stent struts are a nidus for (X) until (Y) of the stent occurs. For this reason, patients are treated (Z) therapy for about a month after procedure.

A
X = clot formation
Y = endothelialization
Z = antiplatelet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The main late complication of bare-metal stents is:

A

In-stent stenosis (due to SM hyperplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drug-eluding stents are embedded with paclitaxel. What does this drug do?

A

Chemotherapy agent that interferes with MT function (reduces SM hyperplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drug-eluding stents are embedded with sirolimus. What does this drug do?

A

Immunosuppressant (reduces SM hyperplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Main limitation of drug-eluding stents:

A

Time to endothelialization is prolonged (1 year instead of 1 month); extends the time during which the stent is prone
to thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In which patients has CABG been proven more efficacious than PCI?

A
  1. Left main stenosis over 50%
  2. 3-vessel disease (RCA, LAD, LCX)
  3. 2-vessel disease (LAD and another) with reduced EF
  4. Diabetes with multi-vessel disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the risk factors associated with acute renal failure during cardiac cath procedure?

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Hypotension
  3. Renal insufficiency
  4. High contrast dose
  5. Diabetes Mellitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: Balloon angioplasty has higher rates of repeat revascularization than CABG.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the criteria for a Q wave to be pathological?

A
  1. Width greater than 1 small box
  2. Height greater than 25% of QRS
  3. Seen in 2 contiguous leads
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which are the Limb Leads?

A

I, II, III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which are the Augmented Leads?

A

aVF, aVR, aVL

17
Q

Which are the precordial Leads?

A

V1-V6

18
Q

The “High Lateral” Leads are (X) and these regions supplied by (Y) artery.

A
X = I, aVL
Y = Circumflex
19
Q

The “Inferior” Leads are (X) and these regions supplied by (Y) artery.

A
X = II, III, aVF
Y = RCA
20
Q

The “Septal” Leads are (X) and these regions supplied by (Y) artery.

A
X = V1, V2
Y = LAD
21
Q

The “Anterior” Leads are (X) and these regions supplied by (Y) artery.

A
X = V3, V4
Y = LAD
22
Q

The “Lateral” precordial Leads are (X) and these regions supplied by (Y) artery.

A
X = V5, V6
Y = Distal LAD, RCA or Lateral Circumflex
23
Q

Normal PR interval

A

3-5 small boxes (120-200 ms)

24
Q

Normal QRS interval

A

Under 2.5 small boxes (90 ms)

25
Q

Normal QT interval

A

Under 11.5 small boxes (460 ms)

MEASURE TO END OF T-WAVE

26
Q

Criteria for LBBB

A
  1. Wide QRS
  2. V1: absent R, prominent S
  3. V6: broad, notched R
27
Q

RBBB criteria

A
  1. Wide QRS
  2. V1: rabbit ears
  3. V6: wide, slurred S wave
28
Q

LVH Voltage criteria

A
  1. aVL: R over 11 mm
  2. Lead I: R over 15 mm
  3. S in V1 + R in V5/6 equal 35 mm
29
Q

LVH Cornell criteria

A

S in V3 + R in aVL over 24 mm (men) or 20 mm (women)

30
Q

Sick Sinus Syndrome (SSS) is also known as (X). List three examples of manifestations of this disorder.

A

X = SND (Sinus Node Dysfunction)

  1. Inappropriate rest bradycardia
  2. Chronotropic incompetence
  3. Tachy-Brady syndrome (ex: a-fib overrides SA Node)
31
Q

SA node is diseased and exhibits chronotropic incompetence. What does that mean?

A

Node fails to increase impulse frequency when stimulated by X or SNS

32
Q

Patient with A-fib experiences periods of syncope when tachyarrhythmia suddenly stops due to prolonged period of (X). What is the culprit of this phenomenon?

A

X = asystole

Diseases SA Node results in prolonged recovery period after A-fib stops

33
Q

List the most common intrinsic etiologies that cause SA Node dysfunction

A
  1. Fibrosis (age-related)
  2. Ischemia (CAD)
  3. Surgical trauma
  4. Infiltration (sarcoidosis, amyloidosis)
34
Q

List the most common extrinsic etiologies that cause SA Node dysfunction

A
  1. Drugs that suppress pacemaker (b-blockers, CCB)

2. Metabolic

35
Q

2o Mobitz Type I: block occurs in (X) part of conduction system. Treat with (Y).

A
X = AV Node
Y = exercise or Atropine
36
Q

2o Mobitz Type II: block occurs in (X) part of conduction system. Treat with (Y).

A
X = His-Purkinje
Y = permanent pacemaker
37
Q

Junctions escape rhythm presents as (narrow/wide) QRS. And ventricular escape rhythm?

A

Narrow;

Wide