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PHPY 303 > 01- Reproduction > Flashcards

01- Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

What are chromosomes and what is their main function?

A

Nuclear structures containing a linear thread of DNA

They transmit genetic informaton

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2
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

A full set of chromosomes in a cell

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3
Q

What are two characteristics of the Y chromosme?

A

It is small and acrocentric (centromere is located at one end)

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4
Q

What does mitosis result in?

A

The formation of two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes and DNA content

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5
Q

What are the five phases of mitosis?

A

Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

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6
Q

Where does meiosis occur?

A

Germ cells such as spermatogonia or oogonia

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7
Q

What does meiosis result in?

A

Four haploid daughter cells that do not carry the same genetic information

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8
Q

What occurs in cell division 1 of meiosis?

A

Recombination and the reduction to a haploid number of chromosomes

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9
Q

What occurs in cell division 2 of meiosis?

A

Chromatids of each chromosome are seperated

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10
Q

What is the product of spermatogenesis?

A

One spermatogonium yields four spermatids

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11
Q

What is the result of oogenesis?

A

One oogonium yields one mature oocyte and two polar bodies

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12
Q

What determines the genotypic sex of an offspring?

A

The sex chromosomes from the parents

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13
Q

What does genotypic sex influence?

A

The gonadal sex

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14
Q

What does the gonadal sex determine?

A

The phenotypic sex, which is fully established at puberty

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15
Q

What is an epigenetic modification?

A

A change in phenotype without a change in genotype

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16
Q

What are the two main epigenetic modifications?

A

DNA methylation and histone modification

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17
Q

What does epigenomes direct in a fetus?

A

Development of undifferentiated stem cells at the right time and sequence

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18
Q

What occurs in the undifferentiated gonad during testis development?

A

The testis develop from the medulla and the cortex regresses

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19
Q

What occurs in the undifferentiated gonad during ovary development?

A

The ovary develops from the cortex while the medulla regresses

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20
Q

When is the male sex established and how?

A

When the primary sex cords differentiate into seminiferous tubules under the influence of the testis-determining factor

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21
Q

Where is testis-determining factor located?

A

On the short arm of the Y chromosome

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22
Q

How is an XX male formed and what are the consequences?

A

TDF is translocated due to abnormal exchange of genetic material, so is present on the X chromosome.
They will be sterile, have small testes, and display feminine characteristics

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23
Q

What is an example of gonadal dysgenesis due to abnormal gonadal differentiation and what are the characteristics?

A 
Turner Syndrome (XO)
Gonads appear as a streak on the pelvic sidewall, short stature, primary amenorrhea, sexual infantilism, and other congenital abnormalities
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24
Q

What can SRY-gene anomaly cause and what are two examples?

A

Discordance between genotype and gonadal phenotype
Hermaphrodites that have no Y chromosome but have testis and pseudohermaphrodites which have one type of gonadal tissue but morphological characteristics of both sexes

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25
Q

What happens to the indifferent duct system in male development?

A

The paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct degenerates and the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct develops the vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, and ejaculatory duct

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26
Q

What happens to the indifferent duct system in female development?

A

The mesonephric (Wolffian) duct degenerates and the paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct develops into the oviducts (fallopian tubes), uterus, and upper third of the vagina

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27
Q

What happens if the testes are removed before differentiation?

A

Testosterone and anti-mullerian hormone are not present, so the ducts develop in the female pattern (mullerian develops and wolffian degenerates)

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28
Q

What happens if the ovaries are removed before differentiation?

A

Ducts develop in the regular female pattern

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29
Q

What do AMH and testosterone do during duct development?

A

AMH is responsible for the regression of the mullerian duct and testosterone is responsible for the development of the wolffian duct

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30
Q

Which enzyme is necessary to convert testosterone into dihydrotestosterone?

A

5alpha-reductase

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31
Q

What is the critical period for testicular development?

A

9 weeks of gestation

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32
Q

What is testosterone necessary for in male development?

A

The wolffian phase of male sexual differentiation and internal male duct development

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33
Q

What is dihydrotestosterone necessary for in male development?

A

Virilization of the urogenital sinus, the prostate, the penile urethra, and the external genitalia during embryogenesis. Secondary sexual characteristic development during puberty also requires this.

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34
Q

Which cells produce AMH?

A

Sertoli cells

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35
Q

Which cells begin to produce testosterone after AMH production has begun?

A

Leydig cells

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36
Q

What occurs if there is lack of androgen production or functioning androgen receptors?

A

Sexual ambiguity

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37
Q

What do sertoli cells produce?

A

Androgen binding protein

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38
Q

What occurs to male development if testosterone is absent after male selection has occurred?

A

The wolffian system remains rudimentary and normal male internal ductal development does not occur

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39
Q

What happens is 5alpha-reductase or DHT are absent?

A

There is impaired virilization of the external genitalia

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40
Q

Deficiencies in what cause virilization in females and ambiguous genitalia as a result of hypersecretion of adrenal androgens?

A

21alpha-hydroxylase, 11beta-hydroxylase, and 3beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

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41
Q

What does a 21alpha-hydroxylase deficiency cause both chemically and phenotypically?

A

The reduction in the conversion of progesterone to 11-deoxycorticosterone (instead forms aldosterone)
Also reduces the conversion of 17alpha-hydroxyprogesterone to 11-deoxycortisol
This causes the clitoris to be enlarged and labioscrotal folds to be fused

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42
Q

What occurs in feminization syndrome?

A

The testes of a genetic male fail to descend due to 5alpha-reductase deficiency and complete androgen resistance

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43
Q

What occurs in male pseudohermaphroditism?

A

There is ambiguous external genitalia or female appearing genitalia due to a defect in the mechanisms by which androgens act on target tissues

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44
Q

What occurs in 5alpha-reductase deficiency?

A

There is ambiguous genitalia in males due to the lack of DHT

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45
Q

How does the affinity of DHT and testosterone compare?

A

DHT binds with 100 fold greater affinity

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46
Q

What is AMH?

A

A homodimer of two monomeric glycoprotein subunits that are linked y disulfide bonds

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47
Q

What is the difference between endocrine, paracrine, and autocrine?

A

Endocrine acts on distant tissues
Paracrine acts on neighbouring cells of the same tissue
Autocrine acts on the same cell that released the molecule

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48
Q

What are the two primary function of gonads?

A

Producing gametes and sex hormones

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49
Q

What does the prostate grand secrete and how much of the semen does it make up?

A

A slightly acidic milky fluid that makes up 50-75% of the semen

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50
Q

What pH range is semen in and why?

A

It is alkaline to neutralize the acidic vaginal conditions. This allows the prolonged life of spermatozoa

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51
Q

Where does sperm maturation occur?

A

Epididymis

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52
Q

What are the functions of the hypothalamus?

A

Secretion of regulatory hormones for the pituitary gland, production of vasopressin and oxytocin, and control of sympathetic output to the adrenal medulla

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53
Q

What does the male hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis control?

A

Production of male gametes and androgen biosynthesis

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54
Q

Which two gonadotropins are released due to stimulation via gonadotropin-releasing hormone?

A

Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone

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55
Q

Where is gonadotropin-releasing hormone synthesized?

A

Small-bodied peptidergic neurons in the arcuate nucleus and preoptic area

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56
Q

Where does LH bind in men and what does it do?

A

Leydig cells

Stimulates the transcription of proteins involved in the biosynthesis of testosterone

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57
Q

Where does FSH bind in men and what does it do?

A

Sertoli cells

Stimulates gene transcription for androgen-binding protein, aromatase, growth factors, and inhibin

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58
Q

Where does negative feedback occur in the hypothalamic-pituitary-testicular axis?

A

Testosterone inhibits the release of GnRH and LH

Inhibin inhibits the release of FSH

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59
Q

What family of hormones are LH, FSH, hCG, and TSH?

A

Glycoprotein hormones

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60
Q

What is different about the four glycoprotein hormones and what does this allow?

A

The beta subunits, which confers specific functional and immunological characteristics

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61
Q

Where is hCG secreted?

A

Mainly by the placenta, and in small amounts in the testes and pituitary gland

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62
Q

What is the pattern of secretion of LH and FSH before and after puberty in men?

A

As a child FSH secretion is higher than LH

As an adult LH secretion is higher than FSH

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63
Q

What is androgen binding protein?

A

A protein synthesized by FSH that is secreted into the seminiferous tubule to keep testosterone levels high

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64
Q

What is P-450 aromatase?

A

An enzyme which converts testosterone into estradiol

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65
Q

What are growth factorsused for in men?

A

Support sperm cells and spermatogenesis

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66
Q

What are inhibins?

A

Members of the transforming growth factor beta gene family which are important for feedback

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67
Q

What cross-talk occurs between sertoli cells and leydig cells?

A

Testosterone from leydig cells acts on sertoli cells

Estradiol and growth factors from sertoli cells act on leydig cells

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68
Q

What are the five elements required for optimal spermatogenesis?

A

Leydig cells, sertoli cells, LH, FSH, and testosterone

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69
Q

What is the first step in cholesterol synthesis?

A

Cytochrome P-450 side-chain-cleavage enzyme removes the side chain of cholesterol to form pregnolone

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70
Q

How does LH impact synthesis of testosterone?

A

It stimulates the reaction by increasing the affinity of the enzyme for cholesterol and simulating synthesis of the enzyme

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71
Q

What is the second step of testosterone synthesis?

A

17alpha-hydroxylase adds a hydroxyl group to pregnolone, forming 17alpha-hydroxy-pregnolone

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72
Q

What is the third step of testosterone synthesis?

A

17,20-desmolase removes the side chain from 17alpha-hydroxypregnenolone to form dehydroepiandrosterone

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73
Q

How do androgen receptors function and what family are they from?

A

Function as homodimers and from the nuclear receptor family

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74
Q

What sites in the DNA do activates steroid hormone receptors bind to?

A

Hormone response elements

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75
Q

What is most testosterone bound to in circulation?

A

Sex-hormone binding globulin, serum albumin, and corticosteroid-binding globulin

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76
Q

Interactions between what two elements cause increased transcription, leading to the synthesis of specific proteins involved in growth and development?

A

Androgen-AR complex and nuclear chromatin

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77
Q

What occurs alongside the drop in testosterone levels associated with aging men?

A

Decreased bone formation, muscle mass, growth of facial hair, appetite, and libido

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78
Q

Where is testosterone metabolized?

A

The liver and prostate

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79
Q

What are androgenic and anabolic effects of testosterone?

A

Androgenic are growth of the reproductive tract and development of secondary sex characteristics
Anabolic are growth-promoting effects on somatic tissue

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80
Q

What can abnormal retention of the testes cause?

A

Severe damage to the seminiferous tubules and diminished testicular function

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81
Q

What nervous system do the testes, epididymis, male accessory glands, and erectile tissue receive innervation from?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

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82
Q

What additional regions does the penis receive innervation from and how?

A

Somatic efferent and afferent systems via the pudendal nerve

83
Q

How do parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation get to the penis?

A

Via the pelvic nerve, and the right and left hypogastric nerves

84
Q

What happens to the corpora cavernosa during erection?

A

The smooth muscle relaxes and there is increased blood flow, which increases the volume and rigidity of the tissue

85
Q

What does NO do for a penis becoming erect?

A

Diffuses to the vascular smooth muscle cells and causes vasodilation

86
Q

What does tonic sympathetic activity do to the penis?

A

Causes flaccidity

87
Q

What does contraction of the striated ischiocavernosus muscle do during the final phase of erection?

A

Increases pressure inside the corpora cavernosa

88
Q

What does contraction of the striated bulbospongiosus muscle do during erection?

A

Increases engorgement of the corpus spongiosum

89
Q

What is erectile dysfunction?

A

Inability to develop or maintain an erection during sexual act

90
Q

What medications can be used to treat erectile dysfunction?

A

Sildenafil, vardenafil, and tadalafil

91
Q

How do oral treatments of erectile dysfunction work?

A

They prevent the degradation of cGMP

92
Q

What is seminal emission?

A

Movement of the ejaculate into the prostatic or proximal urethra

93
Q

How does emission occur?

A

There are peristaltic contraction of the ampullary portion of the vas deferens, seminal vesicles, and prostatic smooth muscle

94
Q

What is retrograde ejaculation?

A

The sphincter of the bladder fails to constrict, so there is semen entering the urinary bladder

95
Q

What can be used to treat ejaculatory dysfunction?

A

Phentolamine, ephedrine, and imipramine

96
Q

What is present in the cortex of the ovary?

A

Developing follicles and corpus luteum, and the stroma

97
Q

What is present in the medulla?

A

Large blood vessels and other stromal elements

98
Q

When are FSH levels higher than LH and when are LH levels higher than FSH?

A

FSH levels are higher before puberty and during menopause

LH levels are higher during the reproductive years

99
Q

How do the levels of estrogen required to suppress gonadotropin output change as you age and why?

A

They increase as you age, because the sensitivity of the hypothalamic-pituitary system to inhibition falls

100
Q

How is GnRH released?

A

In a pulsatile fashion once per hour

101
Q

How much LH is released due to GnRH in the early and late follicular phases?

A

In the early phases there is a small rise in LH

In the late phase there is a large release of LH

102
Q

Where is the pulse generator for GnRH located?

A

The arcuate nucleus of the medial basal hypothalamus

103
Q

What does continuous release of GnRH cause?

A

Downregulation of gonadotrophs GnRH receptors, which suppresses gonadotropin release

104
Q

Where do LH and FSH act?

A

Theca cells and granulosa cells respectively

105
Q

At what concentrations do estrogens and progestins exert negative feedback?

A

Estrogens work at low or high concentrations

Progestins work only at high concentrations

106
Q

When do estrogen and progesterone cause positive feedback?

A

At the end of the follicular phase

107
Q

What do inhibins do in females?

A

Inhibit FSH secretion by the gonadotrophs of the anterior pituitary and decrease androgen production

108
Q

What do activins do in females?

A

Increase FSH release and stimulate estrogen synthesis

109
Q

What are the goals of treatment using pulsatile GnRH or continuous GnRH?

A

Pulsatile GnRH increases gonadotropin secretion and continuous GnRH inhibits gonadotropin secretion

110
Q

What is Kallmann syndrome?

A

Disordered migration of GnRH cells during embryonic development which leads to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia

111
Q

What is endemetriosis?

A

Abnormal presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity

112
Q

How does continuous secretion of GnRH treat endemetriosis?

A

It inhibits the replenishment of the receptor for GnRH in the gonadotrophs in the anterior pituitary, which diminishes seretion

113
Q

How does continuous administration of GnRH treat leiomymas?

A

Proliferation of lesions is reduced

114
Q

What is required for estrogen synthesis during the follicular phase?

A

LH, FSH, theca cells, and granulosa cells

115
Q

What is required for estrogen synthesis during the luteal phase?

A

LH, FSH, theca-lutein, and granulosa-lutein cells

116
Q

What do theca and theca-lutein cells do in estrogen synthesis?

A

Take up cholesterol and produce adrenal androgens using 17alpha-hydroxylase and 17,20-desmolase

117
Q

What do granulosa and granulosa-lutein cells do in estrogen synthesis?

A

Use aromatase to make estrogen

118
Q

What are granulosa-lutein cells able to do during the luteal phase due to LH binding?

A

Synthesize large amounts of progesterone

119
Q

What kind of receptors do theca and granulosa cells have?

A

Theca cells have only LH receptors

Granulosa cells have LH and FSH receptors

120
Q

During which phase is estrogen high and which phase is progestin high?

A

Estrogen is high during the follicular phase and progestin is high during the luteal phase

121
Q

What does the formation of the corpus luteum do to granulosa-lutein cells?

A

Increases vascularity which facilitates delivery of LDL cholesterol

122
Q

What happens to androstenedione produced in the theca-lutein cells?

A

It moves to the granulosa-lutein cells for aromatization and formation of estradiol

123
Q

What is the principal function of estrogen?

A

Stimulate cellular proliferation and growth of sex organs and other tissues related to reproduction

124
Q

What is most estrogen in the blood bound to?

A

Sex-hormone binding globulin and albumin

125
Q

What do progestins stimulate in reproductive tissue?

A

Glandular secretion

126
Q

What are the phases of the ovarian cycle?

A

The follicular phase and the luteal phase

127
Q

What are the phases of the endometrial cycle?

A

Menstrual phase, proliferative phase, and the secretory phase

128
Q

In what state does the endometrium go into after birth, which it stays in until puberty?

A

Regressed state with glands that are atrophic and lack vascularization

129
Q

What occurs in the follicular phase and the luteal phase?

A

In the follicular phase the follicle develops

In the luteal phase the remaining follicular cells develop into the corpus luteum

130
Q

What occurs in the menstrual phase?

A

Estrogen and progesterone levels are reduced and the corpus luteum, and the vascular and glandular integrity of the endometrium degenerates.

131
Q

What is left in the uterus after menses?

A

A thin layer of non-epithelial stromal cells

132
Q

Where do epithelial cells remain after mesntuation?

A

In the lower uterine segments and around the fallopian tubes

133
Q

What causes the endometrium to be restored in proliferative phase?

A

Proliferation of the basal stromal cells on the denuded surface of the uterus

134
Q

What stimulates proliferation and differentiation of the endometrium?

A

Estrogen

135
Q

What does estrogen induce the synthesis of?

A

Growth factors and progestin receptors

136
Q

What does progesterone do during the proliferative phase?

A

Opposes estrogen by turning it into inactive substances and inhibits epithelial cell proliferation. It promotes proliferation of the endometrial stroma

137
Q

What does progesterone stimulate in the early luteal phase?

A

Increase in secretory activity by glandular cells

138
Q

What occurs in the late secretory phase to the endometrium?

A

Vascularization

139
Q

What is predecidualization?

A

Stromal cells that surround spiral arteries of the uterus enlarge and develop eosinophilic cytoplasm with prominent golgi and ER

140
Q

What makes up the zona compacta?

A

Decidual cells spreading throughout the upper layer of the endometrium

141
Q

What allows the zona spongiosa to be distinguished?

A

Edema of the midzone of the endometrium

142
Q

What makes up the functional layer of the endometrium?

A

The superficial zona compacta and the mid-level zona spongiosa

143
Q

What is the functional layer of the endometrium?

A

It is the layer that proliferates early in the cycle, interacts with the embryo, and is shed after pregnancy or during menstruation.

144
Q

What is the deepest later of the endometrium?

A

The zona basalis

145
Q

What is sometimes referred to as the ischemic phase?

A

Rhythmic spasms and relaxation of the spiral arteries

146
Q

Why doesn’t menstrual blood clot?

A

Due to fibrolysins released from necrotic endometrial tissue

147
Q

What are the three types of birth control pill?

A

Monophasic, multiphasic, and progestin-only

148
Q

How do oral contraceptives work?

A

They decrease the secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone

149
Q

What do low levels of LH and FSH from oral contraceptives cause?

A

Low FSH causes insufficient stimulation for normal folliculogenesis
Low LH prevents ovulation

150
Q

What occurs in menopause?

A

Cyclic reproduction function ceases, menstruation comes to an end, and childbearing is no longer possible

151
Q

What are the four phases of sexual response?

A

Excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution

152
Q

What controls most of the excitement in female arousal?

A

Parasympathetic fibers emanating from the sacral plexus

153
Q

What coordinates female orgasm?

A

The spinal cord reflex that results in rhythmic contractions of the perineal muscles

154
Q

Which nerve is the primary intervention to the perineum and the female external genitalia?

A

Pudendal nerves

155
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

The ampulla, which is the upper third of the fallopian tube

156
Q

What is capacitation?

A

A physiological process which spermatozoa must undergo to acquire the ability to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum

157
Q

What is the acrosomal reaction?

A

A process by which the membrane surrounding the acrosome fuses with the plasma membrane of the sperm to liberate the contents of the acrosome due to increased internal calcium levels

158
Q

What does the sperm-ZP3 interaction cause?

A

The acrosomal reaction to occur

159
Q

What does the increase in intracellular calcium from the acrosomal reaction cause in the egg?

A

The oocyte’s second meiotic division and the cortical reaction

160
Q

What does the cortical reaction cause?

A

Hardening of the zona pellucida

161
Q

What are the nucleus of the mature egg and sperm cells called?

A

The male and female pronucleus’

162
Q

What does the fertilized ovum turn into in the fallopian tube?

A

Morula

163
Q

What is a blastocyst?

A

A ball-like structure with a fluid-filled inner cavity

164
Q

How long after ovulation does implantation occur?

A

6-7 days

165
Q

What occurs in predecidualization?

A

Stromal cells transform into decidual cells

166
Q

How does the blastocyst avoid rejection?

A

Releasing immunosuppressive agents

167
Q

What does hCG do?

A

Sustains the corpus luteum in the face of rapidly falling LH levels and is immunosuppressive

168
Q

What is ovarian stimulation?

A

Obtaining multiple oocytes by giving high doses of gonadotropin to trigger the development of numerous follicles

169
Q

What is oocyte retrieval?

A

Oocytes are recovered by aspirating them from individual follicles

170
Q

What is intracytoplasmic sperm injection?

A

Micromanipulation techniques are used to inject a sperm cell into the cytoplasm of each egg

171
Q

What is human placental lactogen (hCS1 and hCS2)?

A

Polypeptide hormones which facilitate the energy supply to the developing fetus

172
Q

What can hPL do to the mother?

A

Reduce insulin sensitivity causing hyperglycemia and gestational diabetes

173
Q

What is the major source of progesterone and estrogen after 8 weeks of gestation?

A

The placenta

174
Q

What portions of hormone synthesis is the placenta not capable of?

A

Manufacturing adequate cholesterol, and lacks three enzymes needed to synthesize estrone, estradiol, and estriol

175
Q

What changes in the mother during pregnancy?

A

Increase in cardiac output, blood volume, alveolar ventilation, and demand for protein, iron, and folic acid.

176
Q

What are prostaglandins produced from?

A

Arachidonic acid

177
Q

What happens in the direct pathway for prostaglandin production?

A

An agonist binds a receptor which activates phospholipase A, and then phospholipase A releases arachidonic acid from the membrane phospholipids

178
Q

What is produced from the cyclooxygenase pathway of arachadonic acid?

A

Thromboxanes, prostacyclins, and prostaglandins

179
Q

What is produced in the 5-lipoxygenase pathway of arachidonic acid?

A

Leukotrienes

180
Q

What is produced in the epoxygenase pathway of arachidonic acid?

A

HETEs and EETs

181
Q

What promotes the uterus to be quiescent?

A

Progesterone and relaxin

182
Q

What are the characteristics of stage 0 of labour?

A

Uterine tranquility and refractoriness to contraction

183
Q

What are characteristics of stage 1 of labour?

A

Uterine awakening

From the initiation of parturition to complete cervical dilation

184
Q

What are characteristics of stage 2 of labour?

A

This is active labour

From cervical dilation to the delivery of the fetus

185
Q

What are characteristics of stage 3 of labour?

A

This is the birth

From the delivery of the fetus to the expulsion of the placenta

186
Q

Which two prostaglandins are highly involved in uterine smooth muscle contraction?

A

PGF and PGE

187
Q

What stimulates decidual cells to increase their PGF synthesis?

A

Oxytocin

188
Q

What are the three major effects of prostaglandins?

A

Stimulation of uterine smooth-muscle contraction, promotes the formation of gap junctions between uterine smooth-muscle, and induction of softening, dilation, and thinning out of the cervix

189
Q

What does aspirin do in regards to labour?

A

Inhibits cyclooxygenase, which reduces prostaglandin synthesis and activity

190
Q

Where is oxytocin synthesized?

A

The supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus

191
Q

What does oxytocin cause in the uterus?

A

Contraction of the uterine smooth muscle and increased intrauterine pressure

192
Q

How much and when do oxytocin receptros increase?

A

20 weeks
36 weeks increases by 80 fold
During labour increases by 200 fold

193
Q

What is the primary stimulus for oxytocin release during labour?

A

Distension of the cervix

194
Q

What does relaxin do?

A

Softens and helps dilate the cervix

195
Q

What are the two positive feedback loops in labour?

A

Uterine contractions stimulate prostaglandins which increase the intensity of uterine contractions
Uterine activity stretches the cervix, which increases oxytocin causing more uterine activity

196
Q

Which hormones lead to full development of breasts during pregnancy?

A

Prolactin, human chorionic somatomammotropin, estrogen, and progesterone

197
Q

What do mammogenic hormones promote?

A

Proliferation of alveolar and duct cells

198
Q

What do lactogenic hormones promote?

A

Initiation of milk profuction by alveolar cells

199
Q

What do galactokinetic hormones promote?

A

Contraction of myoepithelial cells and thus milk ejection

200
Q

What do galactopoietic hormones do?

A

Maintain milk production

201
Q

What is cow milk higher in than human milk?

A

Protein from its high casein concentration and electrolytes

202
Q

What effects does suckling have?

A

Inhibition of dopamine to allow for prolactin levels to stay high
Inhibition of GnRH to prevent LH and FSH release causing menstruation

203
Q

How does dopamine inhibit prolactin?

A

Inhibition of cAMP production, activation of K channels, and inhibition of Ca channels

PHPY 303 (3 decks)

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