01: Introduction to Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

What is CHEK2?

A

Human gene which, if mutated, increases risk of breast cancer. Deletion (S428F) increases risk 2-fold (vs. BRCA1/2, which increases risk 10-fold).

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2
Q

Describe the two types of changes which may occur to DNA.

A

Constitutional: Via the germ line; affects every cell.

Somatic: Mutation over time

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3
Q

What is gene expression profiling?

A

A measurement of the activity (the expression) of thousands of genes at once, to create a global picture of cellular function.

Example: Microarrarys

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4
Q

What is Long QT Syndrome? What are the different types, their causes, and their genetically-based treatments?

A

Autosomal dominantly inherited predisposition to cardiac arrhythmias and sudden death.

Genetically heterogenous syndrome (phenotype/genetic disorder may be caused by any one of a multiple number of alleles locus mutations). Due to a mutation in a single gene.

For KCNQ1 & KCNH2 (LQT1): triggered by exercise; mutation in rapid potassium channel; administer beta blockers (beta adrenergic antagonists suppress sympathetics).

For KCNH2 (LQT2): triggered by unexpected sound during sleep; mutation in slow potassium channel; avoid hypokalemia (reduced potassium repolarizing current; more potassium necessary).

SCN5A (LQT3): triggered by unexpected sound during sleep; mutation of sodium channel (failure to remain inactive); administer mexiletine (avoid tachyarrhythmic events induced by bradycardia).

Gene-specific pharmacology!

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5
Q

What is the utility of susceptibility testing?

A

Allows us to tailor preventative medicine via:

  • Lifestyle modification
  • Risk avoidance
  • Preventative pharmacotherapy
  • Increased surveillance
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6
Q

What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? What is the genetic basis of prognosis?

A

Disease in which the heart muscle becomes abnormally thick , making it harder for the heart to pump blood.

Caused by a mutation of cardiac troponin T. If mutation is Val606Met, high survival. If mutation is Arg92Gln, low survival, therefore pacemaker necessary.

This information is shown on a Kaplan-Meier survival curve.

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7
Q

What are genetic modifiers?

A

Genes that have small quantitative effects on the level of expression of another gene; when acting together, may cause disease (e.g., RAAS signaling pathway polymorphisms).

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8
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia? What is its genetic predisposition/putative environmental trigger?

A

Autosomal dominantly inherited disorder (mutation in RYR1) which results in a fast rise in body temperature and severe muscle contractions when the affected person gets general anesthesia.

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9
Q

Describe aneuploidy:

  1. Definition
  2. Difference from polypoidy
  3. Most common types
  4. Gender & age effects
A
  1. An abnormal number of chromosomes (extra or missing) within a cell; a type of chromosome abnormality.
  2. Polyploidy occurs due to altering set of chromosome number such as 2n, 3n, 5n, whereas aneuploidy occurs due to altering particular chromosome or part of a chromosome such as 2n-1(monosomic).
  3. Trisomy 16 most common, followed by Trisomy 21 & 22.
  4. Mostly in oogenesis, with maternal meiosis I errors being more common than maternal meiosis II errors. Incidence in 1-2% of sperm, 20-30% of oocytes. Down syndrome incidnece approaches 35% in women >40 years of age.
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10
Q

Name and describe the stages of mitosis.

A
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11
Q

Describe meiosis, including the difference between the genders.

A
  • Occurs only in ovaries and testes (in gamete cells).
  • Reduces number of chromosomes from diploid (2n=46) to haploid (n=23).
  • Male meiosis:
    • Begins at puberty & continues throughout life
    • Spermatocytes continually replaced by mitosis
    • Sperm maturation involves loss of histones and highly condensed DNA
    • Each cycle from spermatocyte to sperm takes ~40 days
    • Each complete (I&II) meiotic division produces 4 sperm
  • Female meiosis:
    • All oocytes are formed during fetal life, continually lost by apoptosis throughout life
    • Meiotic prophase begins at 14 weeks of gestation
    • Meiosis I arrested after diplotene and resumes only at time of ovulation
    • Meiosis II completed only after fertilization
    • Cell division is asymetrical, producing one large egg and three nonfunctional polar bodies.
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12
Q

What are the several substages of meiosis and what occurs in each?

A

Meiosis I: Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I

Prophase I further subdivided:

  • Leptotene (committment of cell to meiosis)
  • Zygotene (pairing of homologous chromosomes)
  • Pachytene (crossing/recombination occurs)
  • Diplotene (homologous chromosomes repel each other)
  • Diakinesis (greatest level of contraction)
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13
Q

At what stage do most meiotic errors occur?

A

Metaphase/Anaphase I

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14
Q

What are the meiotic error mechanisms, and what occurs in each?

A
  1. True non-disjunction: Homologues travel together to same pole (disomic gamete/trisomic embryo & nullisomic gamete/monosomic embryo)
  2. Achiasmate non-disjunction: Homologues that have failed to pair and/or recombine travel independently to the same pole (no recombination; disomic gamete/trisomic embryo & nullisomic gamete/monosomic embryo)
  3. Premature (precocious) separation of sister chromatids PSSC): chromatids rather than homologues segregate from one another (disomic game/trisomic embryo & nullisomic gamete/monosomic embryo AND normal gamete/normal embryo & normal gamete/normal embryo)

PSSC is more frequent than whole-chromosome non-disjunction

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15
Q

What most often causes aneuploidy, and what are its mechanisms?

A

Altered recombination causes aneuploidy. Reduce/abolished recombination can result from meiotic arrest, abnormalities in chromosome segregation (achiasmatic segregation), and increased levels of non-disjunction.

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16
Q

Describe the function and characters involved in “hotspots.”

A

Hotspots are regions where recombination most often occur. Contain degenerate DNA sequence of 13 nucleotides. PRDM9 (zing finger protein) binds here (three types: A, B, I). During cell division, sister chromatid cohesion facilitated by cohesin (has 4 subunits: 2 SMC, one SA, one Kleisin). During meiosis I, cohesin complexes removed during MI-AI transition, allowing segregation of recombined homologues to opposite poles (cohesin remains at centromere). Cohesin complexes released by separase; this enzyme is inhibited by securin until ubiquitinated by anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C).

17
Q

What is the link between advanced maternal age and aneuploidy?

A

Female aging characterized by depletion of cohesin; thus, chiasmata are destabilized and induces a loss of tight association between sister centromeres (leads to major anaphase I defects).

18
Q

What is the process of normal mitotic chromosome segregation?

A

Bi-orientation of sister kinetochores and attachment to microtubules emanating from opposite poles (amphitelic orientation) causes tension between sister kinetochores that stabilizes microtubule attachment.

19
Q

What are the types of aberrant kinetochore orientation in mitosis, and what lineages do they generate?

A
  1. Monotelic: Unoccupied microtubule attachment sites on unattached kinetochores accumulate mitotic checkpoint proteins –> create signal that keeps process moving forward.
  2. Syntelic: Both kinetochores attach on same side; mitotic checkpoint still active (prevent moving forward).
  3. Merotelic: Attachment of single kinetochore to microtubules from both spindle poles rather than one; does not activate mitotic checkpoint due to tension.

1 & 2 will generate mosaicism with two or three cell lineages (normal, trisomy or monosomy); 3 will generate mosaicism with two cell lineages (normal or monosomy)

20
Q

Describe the components and functions of the cell-cycle control system.

A

Coordinates the events of the cell cycle by cyclically switching on/off appropriate machinery.

Depends on a set of protein kinases composed of cyclin (regulatory subunit) and cyclin-dependent protein kinase (Cdk; catalytic subunit).

Different cyclin-Cdk complexes trigger different steps of the cell cycle: M-Cdk (mitosis), G1-Cdk (G1), G1/S-Cdk & S-Cdk (S phase)

Can be halted by two mechanisms:

1) Cdk inhibitor proteins
2) Components can stop being made

21
Q

What is the mitotic spindle checkpoint and how does it work?

A

Surveillance mechanism that regulates metaphase-to-anaphase transition.

Proteins localize to unattached kinetochores and generate a “wait anaphase signal.”

Monotelic and syntelic orientations are converted to bipolar attachments under this checkpoint.