01. Cash investments & fixed‑interest securities Flashcards

1
Q

Name 5 risks that apply to cash deposits?

A
  • Default risk.
  • Inflation risk.
  • Interest rate risk.
  • Reinvestment risk.
  • Shortfall risk.
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2
Q

What is default risk?

A

Risk that the financial institution becomes insolvent and is not able to repay the investor’s capital.

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3
Q

What is inflation risk?

A

Risk of both capital and interest being eroded by inflation.

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4
Q

What is interest rate risk?

A

Risk of interest rate worsening e.g. negative interest rates.

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5
Q

What is reinvestment risk?

A

Risk that it may not be possible to secure the same higher level of interest on reinvestment.

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6
Q

What is shortfall risk?

A

Risk that the investor’s investment objectives, e.g. saving for retirement, will not be met due to lack of capital appreciation.

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7
Q

What is the maximum compensation payable under the FSCS to cash depositors?

A

Up to 100% of the first £85,000.

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8
Q

Regarding FSCS compensation, the golden rule is not to have more than £___ with any one ___.

A
  • £85,000
  • institution
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9
Q

The FSCS target is for most depositors to be paid compensation within ___ days and the remainder within ___ working days.

A
  • 7 days
  • 20 working days.
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10
Q

What are 3 common dangers of investing in an offshore account?

A
  • High interest rates may seem attractive, but are usually offered by high inflation countries with potentially collapsing currencies.
  • Strong currencies do not strengthen continuously against sterling: they fluctuate. Currencies regarded as strong may not rise enough to compensate for their lower interest rates.
  • May not be the same level of supervisory structure as the UK, meaning institutional collapse may be more likely.
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11
Q

What are the two types of restricted access account?

A
  • Notice accounts.
  • Term deposit accounts.
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12
Q

Structured deposits pay interest based on the performance of what?

A

An equity index (usually the FTSE 100).

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13
Q

The typical structure for structured deposits offers the investor a return over a fixed term, which is the greater of what 2 things?

A
  • Their original investment; or
  • A % (e.g. 110%) of the change in the FTSE 100 [a bet].
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14
Q

Structured deposits tend to require a commitment of how many years?

A

5 years or more.

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15
Q

Name 2 risks associated with structured products?

A
  • Inflation risk (cash element).
  • Counterparty risk (derivatives element).
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16
Q

To transfer from cash ISAs to stocks & shares ISAs or vice versa, individuals must be aged ___ or over.

A

18 years

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17
Q

When can investors contribute into Help to buy ISAs until?

A

30 November 2029.

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18
Q

Which NS&I products are tax-free?

A

Premium bonds.
ISAs.
Certificates.
Kids ISAs (JISAs).

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19
Q

NS&I Guaranteed Income & Growth Bonds have the following characteristics:

  • investors must be aged ___ or over;
  • there is a fixed term of ___ year;
  • the minimum investment amount is £___;
  • interest is paid ___ but is ___ and can be set against the ___.
  • Income bonds paid ___ a month.
A
  • 16 years
    -1year
  • £500
  • gross / taxable / PSA
  • once
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20
Q

Green Savings Bonds have the following characteristics:

  • investors must be aged ___ or over
  • issue 4 fixed interest of ___%
  • ___ year fixed term
  • invest up to a total of £___ per person
  • interest is added on each ___
  • interest is paid ___ but is ___ and can be set against the ___.
A
  • 16 years
  • 4.20%
  • 3 year
  • £100,000
  • anniversary
  • gross / taxable / PSA
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21
Q

What are the 3 main types of securities that are traded in the money markets (wholesale)?

A
  • Treasury bills.
  • Commercial bills.
  • Certificates of deposit.
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22
Q

Why are Treasury bills issued by governments?

A

To finance government’s ST cash needs.

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23
Q

Who manages the issue of Treasury bills?

A

DMO.

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24
Q

Treasury bills are routinely issued at ___ by ___ and can have maturities of up to ___.

A
  • weekly auctions
  • the DMO
  • 12 months.
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25
Q

What is the minimum requirement for the purchase of nominal treasury bills by an individual?

A

£500,000 nominal of bills.

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26
Q

Do treasury bills pay interest?

A

No, they are priced at less than their par and at maturity the govt. pays the holder the full par value.

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27
Q

What are certificates of deposit (CDs)?

A

Receipts from banks for deposits placed with them.

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28
Q

CDs carry a ___ rate of interest, usually related to ___.

A
  • fixed
  • SONIA.
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29
Q

CDs have a ___ term to maturity but can be ___ in the money markets which makes the yields on CDs slightly ___ than on ordinary deposits.

A
  • fixed
  • traded
  • less
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30
Q

Most CDs are issued with maturities of __ to ___, with the interest paid on maturity.

A

1 to 3 months

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31
Q

What are commercial bills?

A

ST negotiable debt instruments issued by companies to fund their day-to-day cash flows.

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32
Q

Is the market for commercial bills more or less liquid than the market for treasury bills?

A

Less.

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33
Q

Commercial bills are issued at a discount to their maturity value, with typical maturities of what?

A

Between 30 & 90 days.

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34
Q

Name 2 types of money market fund and briefly describe them.

A
  • Short-term money market fund:
    weighted average maturity of no more than 60 days and a weighted average life of no more than 120 days.
  • Standard money market fund:
    aim to make slightly higher returns by investing in assets with extended maturity periods of six and twelve months.
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35
Q

Fixed-interest securities are issued by governments, companies and other official bodies as a method of raising money to finance what?

A

Their longer term borrowing requirements.

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36
Q

How long do fixed-interest securities typically run for?

A

Between 2 to 30 years.

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37
Q

Name 3 reasons why companies often raise long-term finance by issuing bonds rather than borrowing from banks.

A
  • Bond market offers a wide range of lenders to tap into.
  • Bonds are often the cheapest method of borrowing money.
  • Banks may not be prepared to lend the amount required.
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38
Q

What are 3 common characteristics of bonds?

A
  • Fixed rate of interest, known as the coupon.
  • Fixed redemption value, known as the par value.
  • Are repaid after a fixed period, at the redemption date.
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39
Q

The title of a bond will always give three key features:

A
  • Issuer’s name.
  • Coupon.
  • Maturity date.
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40
Q

A bond coupon is calculated as interest on what value of the bond?

A

The nominal value.

41
Q

How often do most bonds typically pay interest?

A

Twice a year.

42
Q

What is the “clean price”?

A

The price before accrued interest is added.

43
Q

What is the “dirty price”?

A

The total amount paid by a purchaser, which is the clean price plus or minus any interest adjustment.

44
Q

When a bond with cum dividend is purchased, what price does the buyer have to pay?

A

The “dirty price” i.e. the clean price plus the interest that has accrued from the date of the last interest payment up to the settlement date.

45
Q

“Dirty price” cum dividend purchases: who gets the next interest payment and who gets compensated?

A
  • The buyer gets the next interest payment.
  • The seller for the interest to which they were entitled but did not receive.
46
Q

“Dirty price” ex dividend purchases: who gets the next interest payment and who gets compensated?

A
  • The seller gets the next interest payment if the sale is within a week of the interest payment date.
  • The seller compensates the buyer.
47
Q

Bond purchases ex div: Interest in respect of the period for which the buyer owned the bond, but which was paid to seller, is ___.

A

deducted from the clean price.

48
Q

What is the primary market?

A

Where the arranging and selling of original issues of bonds takes place.

49
Q

What is the secondary market?

A

Once a bond has been issued, where any subsequent trading takes place.

50
Q

What are 4 major markets where substantial bond trading activity in the UK takes place?

A
  1. Government sector.
  2. Corporate sector.
  3. Sterling loans to foreign borrowers.
  4. Eurobond market.
51
Q

What is a Eurobond?

A

An international bond, denominated in a currency other than that of the country where it is issued.

52
Q

What does the interest yield (aka “running/flat/current yield”) measure and what is its formula?

A

The income return an investor receives on the amount paid for a bond.

(Coupon / clean price) x 100

53
Q

The redemption yield is a more accurate calculation of the yield on a bond as it takes into account what 2 things?

A
  • income payments from a bond; and
  • the capital gain or loss from holding the bond until maturity.
54
Q

What is the redemption yield formula?

A

Interest yield + or - (Gain or loss to maturity / no. of years to maturity) / Clean price x 100

55
Q

What is the most useful measure of a bond’s return and why?

A

The redemption yield as it reflects the returns from both the interest & final redemption payments.

56
Q

What is the tax perspective on gilts for:

  • CGT
  • Income tax
A
  • No CGT if held directly).
  • Taxable at marginal rate.
57
Q

In addition to interest rate risk, inflation risk, default risk, name 2 other key risks associated with bonds.

A
  • Currency risk.
  • Liquidity risk.
58
Q

What is currency risk?

A

Movements in exchange rates affect the value of the holding.

59
Q

What is liquidity risk?

A

Many bonds trade infrequently and so can be difficult to sell them readily at an acceptable price.

60
Q

When interest rates rise, what will happen to the following & why?

  • bond prices
  • yield
A
  • falls (due to reduced demand)
  • rises (as the coupon is fixed)
61
Q

Volatility will be greater for bonds with ___ coupons and ___ periods to redemption

A
  • smaller
  • longer
62
Q

What does the duration of a bond measure?

A

The sensitivity to interest rates.

63
Q

What is the modified duration?

A

The expected change in a bond’s price given a movement in interest rates.

64
Q

If inflation or interest rates rise, bond prices tend to do what?

What type of bond is the exception?

A
  • Fall.
  • An index-linked bond, where the value will rise with any increase in inflation.
65
Q

What happens to bond values in:

  • A period of economic growth?
  • A recession?
A
  • Economic growth can fuel inflation, —> rising interest rates, declining bond values.
  • If an economy is in recession, interest rates may be reduced to stimulate a recovery, bond prices rise.
66
Q

If a company’s credit rating is marked down, the market price of its bonds will ___ because they are seen as riskier investments, and investors will require an ___ yield to compensate.

A
  • fall
  • increased
67
Q

What 2 categories do credit ratings broadly fall into?

A
  • Investment grade bonds: BBB or higher (S&P), Baa3 (Moody’s) - lower default risk.
  • Non-investment grade bonds:
    Below BBB/Baa3 - higher default risk. “Junk bonds” / Sub-prime.
68
Q

What are the 3 main types of yield curve?

A
  1. Normal.
  2. Flat.
  3. Inverted.
69
Q

What does a normal yield curve look like?

A

In normal circumstances, investors demand higher yields for holding longer-term bonds to cover the increased uncertainties over time. The yield curve is then a rising positive curve.

70
Q

When does a flat yield curve occur?

A

When economic factors are deemed stable, and no radical changes to inflation and interest rates are expected.

71
Q

What happens when a yield curve inverts?

A

The yield on longer-term bonds is less than on short-term bonds.

72
Q

When can an inverted (reverse) yield curve occur?

A

This can be caused by investor expectations that interest rates will fall in the short-term, while long-term interest rates are expected to be below current levels.

73
Q

Categories of gilts (DMO / financial press definitions) according to their time to redemption:

  • Shorts
  • Mediums
  • Longs
A
  • < 7 yrs / < 5 yrs
  • 7-15 yrs / 5-15 yrs
  • > 15 yrs
74
Q

Index-linked gilts issued before September 2005 use ___ whilst those issued from September 2005 use ___.

A
  • RPI 8 months before each payment date
  • RPI 3 months before each payment date.
75
Q

Index-linked gilts impact both the __ and the ___.

A
  • coupon
  • redemption value.
76
Q

Who often favour longer-term gilts [2] and why?

A
  • Pension funds.
  • Life assurance companies.
  • To match their longer term liabilities.
77
Q

What is the repo market?

A

“Repo” is short for sale and repurchase agreement, at an agreed price.

78
Q

What is the “strips” market?

A

“Separate trading of registered interest and principal securities”.

79
Q

What is “stripping”?

A

The process of separating a conventional interest-bearing gilt into its individual interest (coupon) and redemption payments, which can then be separately held and traded in their ownright.

80
Q

Do corporate bonds generally offer higher or lower yields than gilts?
Name 2 reasons why.

A
  • Higher.
    1. Higher credit risk (potential insolvency unlike a govt.)
    2. Also market generally less liquid therefore higher return expected.
81
Q

Secured corporate bond loans rank ___ unsecured loans in the event of the company being wound up.

A

before

82
Q

When a corporate bond loan is unsecured, where will the holder rank for repayment?

A

Alongside the ordinary creditors of the company.

83
Q

Why may companies favour the corporate bond market to raise capital over banks? [3]

A
  • often a company’s cheapest method of borrowing money
  • wider pool
  • banks may not be keen to lend
84
Q

What is a debenture?

A

A secured loan agreement between a lender and a borrower with business assets used as security.

85
Q

What 3 things will a debenture agreement include?

A
  • the interest rate, payment dates and redemption date.
  • the assets backing the debenture.
  • any conditions imposed on the borrower.
86
Q

What is:
- a fixed charge: and
- a floating charge?

A
  • A fixed charge is a charge over a specified asset or assets of the company, e.g. land where fixed-charge asset.
  • A floating charge is a general charge over any of the assets of the company that are not otherwise secured in favour of other lenders or banks:
87
Q

How do fixed and floating charges differ? [3]

A
  • Fixed-charge assets cannot be sold by company without consent of debenture holder.
  • Company can freely dispose of floating-charge assets but these assets can be sold to repay debenture holder if it defaults on loan.
  • A floating-charge debenture has a lower priority for payment if co. wound up.
88
Q

What are convertible bonds?

A

Usually unsecured loan stock that offer the holder the option of converting the bond into the ordinary shares of the issuing company under specified terms and conditions.

89
Q

Convertible bonds usually carry a ___ coupon than straightforward loans because of the right of conversion into ordinary shares at some future date.

A

lower

90
Q

Convertible bonds ___ qualify for exemption from CGT and losses___

A
  • do not
  • can be set against other taxable gains.
91
Q

What are floating rate notes (FRNs)?

A

Bonds issued by companies, esp. banks and other financial institution including governments, which pay a rate of interest not fixed but instead linked to a money market rate, such as SONIA.

92
Q

How often is the coupon reset for FRNs?

A

The coupon is reset every quarter to a specified level over the reference rate, e.g. SONIA.

93
Q

What are PIBS and what are they?

A
  • Permanent Interest Bearing Shares.
  • Loans to building societies with no redemption date and never-ending coupons.
94
Q

What are PSBs and what are they?

A
  • Perpetual Subordinated Bonds (think Pet Shop Boys!).
  • PIBS after demutualisation.
95
Q

Name 3 features of PIBS / PSBs.

A
  1. Undated.
  2. Lowest in pecking order in insolvency.
  3. Non-cumulative.
96
Q

The AMC of money market funds is likely to be in the region of ~.

A

0.15%

97
Q

What are the rules when transferring ISA money saved in the current tax year?

A

Must be for the whole amount saved in that tax year up to the date of transfer.

98
Q

Gilts are referred to as ~~~ as they pay no regular half-yearly interest.

A

zero coupon instruments

99
Q

What will happen with index-linked gilts to the interest & capital payments if RPI falls?

A

They will also fall.