Topic 2- Orginisation AND Alot of Infection and Response Flashcards

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1
Q

Specialise cells from ——— which for ——- which form —— ——-

A

Tissues
Organs
Organ systems

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2
Q

What a tissue?

A

A group of similar cells that work together to carry out a particular function (can include more then one type of cell)

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3
Q

Muscular tissue does what?

A

Contracts (to move whatever its attached to)

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4
Q

Glandular tissue does what?

A

Secrets chemicals like enzymes and hormones

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5
Q

Epithelial tissue does what?

A

Covers some parts of the body, e.g the inside of the gut

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6
Q

Epithelial cells hight:

A

Less than 0.1 mm

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7
Q

What’s an organ?

A

A group of tissues working together to perform a certain function

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8
Q

The Stomach is made up of what tissues?

A

Muscular tissues (churns up the food)
Glandular tissues (makes digestive juices)
Epithelial tissues (covers outside an inside of the stomach)

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9
Q

What an organ system?

A

A group of organs working together to perform a particular function

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10
Q

Digestive system is made up of what organs?

A

1)Glands which produces digestive juices (e.g pancreas and salivary glands)
2) the stomach and small intestine digests food
3) the liver, which produces bile
4) the small intestine, which absorbs soluble food molecules
5) the large intestine, absorbs water from undigested food, leaving faeces

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11
Q

What’s a catalyst and give an example of a biological catalyst:

A

A catalyst is a substance which increases the speed of our reaction, without being changed or used up in the reaction
E.g Enzymes

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12
Q

Enzymes reduce the need for high temperatures in the body and we ONLY have enzymes, to do what?

A

Speed up the useful chemical reactions in the body

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13
Q

What are enzymes made of:

A

They are large proteins made up of chains of amino acids , these enzymes are folded into unique shapes needed to do their job

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14
Q

What is the “lock and key” model

A

When a substrate fits into the active sight of an enzyme it splits up or joins the substrate. Enzymes usually only catalyse one specific reaction, because each shape is specific to fit into that one substance

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15
Q

What denatures an enzyme?

A

1) (temperature) if too hot some of the bonds holding the enzymes together break this changes the shape of the enzymes active site so the substrate won’t fit any more, all enzymes have an optimum temperature that they work best at.

2) (pH), if too high or low the pH interferes with the bonds holding the enzyme together
Who enzymes have an optimum pH that they work best at it’s often neutral pH seven but not always e.g pepsin is an enzyme used to breakdown proteins in the stomach, it works best at pH 2 which means it is well suited to the acidic conditions there.

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16
Q

Practical-
You can investigate the effect of pH on enzyme activity

A
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17
Q

How to calculate the rate of reaction

A

Rate= 1000/time

E.g at pH 6 the time taken for Amelia to breakdown all of the starch in a solution was 90 seconds.

So the rate of reaction is= 1000/90=11 s^-1

Rate also is:
Rate of reaction= change/time

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18
Q

Carbohydrases Converts Carbohydrates into

A

Simple sugars

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19
Q

Amylase is an example of carbohydrase, what does it break down?

A

Starch

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20
Q

Starch breaks down into:

A

Maltose (and other sugars e.g dextrins)

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21
Q

Where are the 3 places Amylase can be found?

A

1) salivary glands
2) the pancreas
3) The small intestine

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22
Q

Proteases converts proteins into:

A

Amino acids

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23
Q

Proteins break down into amino acids by

A

Protease enzymes

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24
Q

Where are the 3 places protease is made?

A

1) The stomach (it’s called pepsin there)
2) The pancreas
3) The small intestine

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25
Q

Lipases convers lipids into:

A

Glycerol and fatty acids

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26
Q

Lipids are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids by:

A

Lipase enzymes

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27
Q

Where are the 2 places lipases are made?

A

1) Pancrease
2) Small intestine
(Remember that lipids are fats and oils)

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28
Q

Where is bile produced?

A

In the liver

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29
Q

What does bile do?

A

Neutralises the stomach acids and Emulsifies fats

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30
Q

Where is bile stored before released into the small intestine?

A

Gall bladder

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31
Q

Is bile acidic or alkaline?

A

Alkaline, the hydronic acid in the stomach makes the pH to acidic for enzymes in the small intestine to work properly, bile neutralises the hydrochloric acid in the stomach and makes conditions alkaline, the enzymes in the small intestine work best in these alkaline conditions.

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32
Q

Salivary glands and digestion

A

Produces amylase enzymes

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33
Q

Stomach and digestion

A

1)Pummels food with its muscular walls
1)It’s produces the protease enzyme, pepsin

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34
Q

Why does the stomach produce hydrochloric acid give two reasons

A

1)To kill bacteria
2) to give the right pH for protease to work (pH 2, acidic)

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35
Q

What is the oesophagus also called

A

Gullet

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36
Q

Liver and digestion:

A

Where bile is produced.
Bile neutralises stomach acids and emulsified fats

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37
Q

Gall bladder and digestion:

A

Where bile is stored before released into the small intestine

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38
Q

Pancrease and digestion:

A

Produces protease, amylase and lipase enzymes. It releases these into the small intestine

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39
Q

Large intestine

A

Where excess water is absorbed from the food

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40
Q

Small intestine and digestion:

A

1)Produces protease, amylase, and lipase enzymes to complete digestion.
2) also where digested food is absorbed out of the digestive system and into the blood

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41
Q

Rectum:

A

Where the faeces (Made up mainly of indigestible food) are stored before they leave through the anus

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42
Q

Food tests-
What solution do you use to test for sugars?

A

Benedict’s solution

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43
Q

Food test-
What solution do you use to test for starch?

A

Iodine solution

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44
Q

Food test-
What solution do you use to test for proteins?

A

Biuret solution

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45
Q

Food test-
What solution do you use to test for lipids?

A

Sudan III

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46
Q

Describe how you would test for sugar using the Benedict’s test (practical)

A
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47
Q

Describe how you would test for starch using iodine solution (practical)

A
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48
Q

Describe how you would test for proteins using biuret solution (practical)

A
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49
Q

Describe how you would test for lipids using Sudan III solution (practical)

A
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50
Q

For the Benedict’s test what colours will we see during the experiment?

A

Normal= blue
Then to green, yellow or brick-red depending on how much sugar is in the food

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51
Q

For starch test (with iodine solution) what colours will we see during the experiment?

A

If the solution contains starch, the solution will change from browny-orange to black or blue-black.

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52
Q

For biurets test what colours will we see during the experiment?

A

From blue to purple If proteins are present, or stays blue if nothing is present

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53
Q

For Sudan III test what colours will we see during the experiment?

A

This solution stains lipids so if there are lipids in the solution the mixture will separate out into two layers. The top layer will be bright red if no lipids are present. No separate red layer will form at the top of the lipid.

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54
Q

What does the right ventricle pump?

A

Deoxygenated blood to the lungs to take into oxygen, the blood then returns to the heart

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55
Q

What does the left ventricle pump?

A

Oxygenated blood around all the other organs of the body. The blood gives up its oxygen at the body cells and the deoxygenated blood returns to the heart to be pumped out to the lungs again.

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56
Q

What’s the hearts job and is mostly made out of what?

A

The heart is a pumping organ that keeps the blood flowing around the body. The walls of the heart are mostly made of muscular tissue.

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57
Q

The heart has ‘valves’, what does this do?

A

Prevents backflow of blood.

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58
Q

What are the four chambers in the heart?

A

Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium and left ventricle

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59
Q

Describe the 5 steps for the blood flow cycle in the heart

A
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60
Q

Pacemaker in the heart: how it works

A

Your resting heart rate is controlled by a group of cells in the right atrium wall the act as a pacemaker

These cells produce a small electric impulse which spreads to the surrounding muscle cells causing them to contract

An artificial pacemaker is often used to control someone’s heartbeat if their natural pacemaker cells don’t work properly such as if they have an irregular heartbeat this device that’s implanted under the skin has a wire going to the heart. It produces an electric current to keep the heart beating regularly.

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61
Q

What are coronary arteries function for the heart?

A

To give the heart its own supply of oxygenated blood these coronary arteries branch of the aorta and surround the heart, making sure that it gets all the oxygenated blood it needs.

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62
Q

What are the names for the three different types of blood vessels and what are their functions?

A

Arteries- these carry the blood away from the heart

Capillaries- these are involved in the exchange of materials at the tissues

Veins- these carry the blood to the heart

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63
Q

Arteries specialisations

A
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64
Q

Capillary specialisations

A
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65
Q

Veins specialisations

A
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66
Q

How to calculate the rate of blood flow:

A

Rate of blood flow= volume of blood / number of minutes

E.g 1464 mL of blood passed through an artery in 4.5 minutes calculate the rate of blood flow through the artery in a ml/min

1464/4.5= 325 ml/min

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67
Q

What do red blood cells carry?

A

Oxygen

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68
Q

How are red blood cells suited for their function?

A

The shape is a biconcave disc. This gives a large surface area for absorbing oxygen.

They don’t have a nucleus. This allows more room to carry oxygen.

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69
Q

What’s the red pigment in blood cells called?

A

Haemoglobin

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70
Q

What does haemoglobin do?

A

In the lungs haemoglobin binds to oxygen to become Oxyhemoglobin (in body tissues the reverse happens Oxyhaemoglobin splits up into haemoglobin and oxygen to release oxygen to the cells)

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71
Q

What is the function of white blood cells?

A

To defend against infection

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72
Q

How are white blood cells suited for their function?

A

Some can go on welcomed microorganisms this process is called phagocytosis

Others produce antibodies to fight microorganisms as well as antitoxins to neutralise any toxins produced by the microorganisms

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73
Q

What do white blood cells have that red blood cells don’t?

A

A nucleus

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74
Q

What do platelets do?

A

blood clot wounds

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75
Q

Why do platelets help blood clot?

A

To stop your blood pouring out and to stop microorganisms getting in

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76
Q

What is plasma?

A

A liquid that carries everything in the blood

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77
Q

Name the 7 things plasma carries

A

1) red and white blood cells and platelets
2) nutrients like glucose and amino acids
3) carbon dioxide from the organs to the lungs
4) from the liver to the kidneys
5)hormones
6)proteins
7) antibodies and antitoxins produced by the white blood cells

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78
Q

What is coronary heart disease?

A

When the coronary arteries that supply the blood to the muscle of the heart get blocked by layers of fatty material building up.

This causes the arteries to become narrow so blood flow is restricted and there’s a lack of oxygen to the heart muscle. This can result in a heart attack.

79
Q

What can be used to keep the arteries open and lower risk for coronary heart disease?

A

Stents

80
Q

What does stents do?

A

Stents tubes that inserted inside arteries they keep them open making sure blood can pass through to the heart muscles. This keeps the persons heart beating and keeps them alive.

81
Q

What are the downsides to using stents?

A

Complications during operation such as a heart attack and risk of infection from the surgery there is also the risk of a patient developing a blood clot near the stent. This is called thrombosis

82
Q

Statins reduce what?

A

Statins reduce cholesterol in the blood

83
Q

What does ‘bad’ cholesterol potentially led to?

A

Fatty deposits to form inside arteries which can lead to coronary heart disease

84
Q

What is statins and what do they do?

A

Statins are drugs that can reduce the amount of bad cholesterol present in the bloodstream. This blows down the rate of fatty deposits forming.

85
Q

What are the advantages to statins?

A

Reduces the risk of strokes, ordinary heart disease and heart attacks

Increases the amount of beneficial type of cholesterol known as good cholesterol in your bloodstream which can then remove the bad cholesterol from the blood

Some studies suggest that statins may also help prevent some other diseases

86
Q

What are the disadvantages to statins?

A

A long-term drug that must be taken regularly

Sometimes causes negative side effects such as a headache or serious side effects such as kidney feeder liver damage and memory loss

The facts of statins isn’t instant. It takes time for their effect to kick in.

87
Q

Artificial heart:

A

If organs aren’t available right away (from someone who has resently died) or not the best options doctors may fit an artificial heart which are mechanical devices that pump blood for a person whose own heart has failed, only a temporary fix until the person can use a donated heart or recover their heart by allowing it to rest. in some cases they’re used as a permanent fix which reduces the need for a donor heart

88
Q

What is an advantages for using an artificial heart?

A

Less likely to get rejected by the body’s immune system

89
Q

What are some disadvantages to having an artificial heart surgery done?

A

Can lead to bleeding and infections during the transplant surgery and artificial hearts don’t work as well as healthy natural ones part of the body could wear out or the electrical motor could fail. Blood doesn’t flow through artificial hearts as smoothly which can cause blood clots and lead to strokes has to take drugs to their blood and make sure this doesn’t happen which can cause problems with bleeding if they hurt in an accident.

90
Q

Faulty heart valves can be replaced name two types of valves that can be used:

A

Biological valves, such as in cows or pigs and man-made valves such as mechanical valves

91
Q

Why might artificial blood decrease the risk of diseases being passed on?

A

Because it would replace the need for a blood transfusion from another person

It is a salt solution that is very safe if no air bubbles get into the blood and can keep a patient alive even if they lose 2/3 of their red blood cells because ideally it should replace the function of the red blood cells

92
Q

What are the two types of diseases?

A

Communicable and non-communicable

93
Q

What are communicable diseases?

A

Contagious diseases caused by pathogens

94
Q

What is noncommunicable diseases?

A

Cannot be spread between people or animals. Usually from someone’s lifestyle or inherited.

95
Q

Name three factors that can affect your health other than diseases:

A

1)Balanced diet
2)Stress
3)Life situation (e.g if you’re able to access medicines or buy healthy foods)

96
Q

What are some risk factors that can directly cause noncommunicable diseases?

A

Smoking can directly cause cardiovascular disease, lung disease and lung cancer as it damages the walls of arteries and the cells in the lining of the lungs

Obesity can directly cause type two diabetes by making the body less sensitive or resistant to insulin meaning that it struggles to control the concentration of glucose in the body

97
Q

Why might drinking be a risk factor for noncommunicable diseases?

A

Can cause liver disease the liver breaks down alcohol but the reaction can damage its cells liver cells may also be damaged when toxic chemicals leak from the gut due to damage in the intestines caused by alcohol
Too much alcohol can affect brain function two it can damage the nerve cells in the brain causing the brain to lose volume

Alcohol can also damage baby cells affecting its development and causing a wide range of health issues

98
Q

Why might smoking be a risk factor for noncommunicable diseases?

A

Smoking when pregnant reduces the amount of oxygen the baby receives in the womb and can cause a lot of health problems for the unborn baby

99
Q

Why might Radiation be risk factor for non-communicable diseases (e.g from x-rays)

A

Can damage a cells DNA in a way that makes the cell more likely to divide uncontrollably e.g ionising radiation (x-rays) is an example of carcinogen (which means something that can cause cancer)

100
Q

What do scientists mean by ‘correlation doesn’t always equal cause’

A

Some risk factors aren’t capable of directly causing a disease by related to another risk factor that is.

E.g lack of exercise and a high fat diet heavily linked to increase chance of cardiovascular disease but it’s the resulting high blood pressure and bad cholesterol levels that actually cause it

101
Q

What is cancer?

A

Uncontrolled cell growth and division

102
Q

What are the two types of cancer?

A

Benign and malignant

103
Q

What is benign?

A

This is where the tumour grows until there is no more room

The tumour stays in one place rather than invading other tissues in the body

This type isn’t normally dangerous, and the tumour isn’t cancerous

104
Q

What is malignant?

A

This is where the tumour grows and spreads to neighbouring healthy tissues

Cells can break off and spread to other parts of the body by travelling in the bloodstream

Malignant cells invade healthy tissues elsewhere in the body and form secondary tumours

They are dangerous and can be fatal. They are cancers.

105
Q

name four different types of lifestyle risk factors that can link with various types of cancer

A

Here are some:
Smoking (lung cancer)
Obesity (kidney cancer)
UV exposure (skin cancer)
Viral infection (liver cancer)

106
Q

How can you get viral infections?

A

Unprotected sex or sharing needles for drugs

107
Q

Factors can also be associated with the genetics-

A

You can inherit faulty genes that make you more susceptible to cancer

108
Q

How much you get UV exposure

A

From sunny climates or UV radiation

109
Q

Plant organs are made of tissues name the five types of plant tissues:

A

1)Epidermal tissue
2)Palisade mesophyll tissue
3)Spongy mesophyll tissue
4)Xylem and phloem
5)Maristem tissue

110
Q

Epidermal tissue function:

A

Covers the whole plant

111
Q

Palisade mesophyll tissue function:

A

Part of the leaf where photosynthesis happens

112
Q

Spongy Mesophyll tissue function:

A

Also in the leaf and contains big air spaces to allow gases to diffuse in and out of cells

113
Q

Xylem and phloem tissue functions:

A

Transports things like water mineral irons and food around the plant (through the roots, stems and leaves)

114
Q

Meristem tissue function:

A

Found at the growing tips of shoots and roots and is able to do it differentiate into lots of different types of plant cells allowing the plant grow

115
Q

What are the epidermal tissues covered in to help reduce water loss by evaporation?

A

Waxy cuticles

116
Q

How is the palisade layer adapted for its function?

A

Has lots of chloroplast therefore near the top of the leaf where they can get the most light

117
Q

The upper epidermis is transparent. Why is this?

A

So, like can pass through into the Palisade layer

118
Q

What is the stoma?

A

Carbon dioxide diffuse directly into the leaf , the opening and closing of the stoma is controlled by guard cells in response to the environmental conditions. The air spaces in the spongy mesophyll tissue increases the rate of diffusion of gases

119
Q

What is transpiration?

A

Loss of water from the plant

120
Q

What causes transpiration?

A

And transpiration is caused by the evaporation and diffusion of water from a plant surface.

121
Q

Where does transpiration usually occur in plants?

A

Most transpiration happens at the leaves

122
Q

Why does transpiration happen?

A

Transpiration is a side-effect of the ways leaves are adapted for photos and cyst because there is more water inside the plant then in the air the water escapes from the leaves through the stoma by diffusion

123
Q

Name the four main things transpiration rate is affected by

A

1) light intensity
2) temperature
3) air flow
4) humidity

124
Q

Why is the transpiration rate affected by light intensity?

A

The brighter the light the greater the transpiration rate

Stoma begin to close as it gets darker photosynthesis can’t happen in the dark so they don’t need to be open to let carbon dioxide in when the stomata are closed very little water can escape

125
Q

Why is the transpiration rate affected by temperature?

A

The warmer it is the faster transpiration happens

When it’s warm, the water particles have more energy to evaporate and diffuse out of the stomata

126
Q

Why is the transpiration rate affected air flow?

A

The better the airflow around the leaf (e.g strong wind) the greater the transpiration rate

When there’s good airflow, the water vapour is swept away, maintaining a low concentration of water in the air outside the leaf diffusion then happens quickly from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

127
Q

Why is the transpiration rate affected by humidity?

A

The dryer the air around the leaf the faster transpiration happens

Diffusion happens, fastest if there is a really high concentration in one place and a really low concentration in the other

If the humid there’s a lot of water in it already, so there’s not much of a difference between the inside and outside of the leaf

128
Q

What can be used to estimate the transpiration rate?

A

A Potometer

129
Q

(Practical?)
Name the five steps for estimating transpiration rate

A
130
Q

What are guard cells adapted for?

A

To open and close the stoma

131
Q

How is the stomata adapted for its function? (7 adaptations)

A

They have a kidney shape which opens and opens the stomata

When the plant has a lot of water, the guard sells fill with it and go plump and turgid this makes the matter open so glasses can be exchanged for photosynthesis

When the plant is short of water cells become flaccid making the stomatic clothes this helps to stop water vapour escaping

Thin out of wall and thickened in walls, make the opening and closing work

There are also sensitive sight and close at night to save water without losing out on photosynthesis

You usually find more on the underside of leaves. The lowest surface is shaded and cooler so less water is lost through the stomata than if they were on the upper surface.

Guard cells are adapted for gas exchange and controlling water within a leaf

132
Q

Name the four types of pathogens

A

Bacteria, viruses, protists and fungi

133
Q

Bacteria:

A

1/100th of your body cells
Reproduce rapidly inside your body

134
Q

How does bacteria make you ill?

A

They make you feel ill by producing toxins (poisons) that damage your cells and tissues

135
Q

Viruses:

A

About 1/100th the size of a bacterium
Reproduce rapidly inside your body

136
Q

How do viruses make you feel ill?

A

They live inside your cells and replicate themselves using the cells machinery to produce many copies of themselves

The cell will usually then burst releasing all the new viruses

It’s the cell damage that makes you feel ill

137
Q

Protists

A

Single celled eukaryotes

138
Q

How do protists make you feel ill?

A

Some process of parasites parasites to live on or inside other organisms and can cause some damage often transferred to the organism by a vector which doesn’t get the disease itself (e.g an insect like mosquitoes)

139
Q

Fungi:

A

Some fungi are single celled others have a body which is made up of hyphae (thread like structures)

140
Q

How do fungi make you feel ill?

A

These hyphae can penetrate human skin and surfaces of plants, causing diseases.

These hyphae can produce spores which can spread to other plants and animals

141
Q

Name 3 different ways pathogens can be spread:

A

1)Air
2)Water
3)Direct contact

142
Q

How might air help spread pathogens?

A

Pathogens can be carried in the air and breathe in

Some airborne pathogens are carried in the air as droplets produced when you sneeze or cough

143
Q

Given example of an air spread pathogen

A

Influenza virus that causes flu is spread this way

144
Q

How much water helps spread pathogens

A

Some pathogens can be picked up by drinking or bathing and dirty water

145
Q

Given an example of pathogen spread through water

A

Cholera, a bacterial infection spread through drinking contaminated water with diarrhoea from other sufferers

146
Q

How much direct contacts help spread pathogens?

A

Some pathogens can be picked up by touching contaminated surfaces, including the skin

147
Q

Given an example of pathogen spread through direct contact

A

Athletes foot, a fungus which makes skin itch and flake cough

Most commonly spread by touching the same things as an infected person e.g shower floors and towels

148
Q

Name 3 viral diseases:

A

1) Measles
2) HIV
3)Tabacco mosaic virus

149
Q

Measles: what it is, how it’s spread and what it does

A

Measles (viral disease) is spread by droplets from an infected person, sneeze or cough

Symptoms: red skin rash and signs of a fever (high temperature)

Serious complication: can lead to pneumonia (a lung infection) or inflammation to the brain (encephalitis)

Most of vaccinated against measles when they’re young

150
Q

HIV: what it is, how it’s spread, and what it does

A

HIV is a Viral infection, spreads through sharing bodily fluids (sexual contact and sharing needles when talking drugs)

Symptoms: flu like symptoms for a few weeks then during this time HIV can be controlled with antiretroviral drugs which stops the virus replicating in the body

The virus attacks the immune cells.
If the bodies immune system is badly damaged it can’t cope with other infections or cancers. This is known as late stage HIV or AIDS.

151
Q

Tobacco mosaic virus: what it is, how it’s spread, and what it does

A

A virus, that causes discoloured mosaic pattern on the leaves of tomato plants, this stops photosynthesis working as well, and so the virus affects growth.

152
Q

Name a fungal disease (just need to name 1)

A

Rose black spot

153
Q

Rose black spot: what it is, how it’s spread, and what it does, and how can you treat it?

A

A fungal disease, causes black/ purple spots to develop on the leaves of rose plants, turning them yellow and drop off.

Spreads through water and wind

Using fungicides and by stripping the plant of its affected leaves, and destroyed these leaves so it can’t spread to other rose plants

154
Q

Name a disease caused by protists: (just name 1)

A

Malaria

155
Q

Malaria: what it is, how it’s spread, and what it does, how to prevent yourself from it?

A

Caused by a protist which takes place inside a vector, being mosquitoes.

Mosquitoes pick up the malaria protest when they feed off an infected animal

Malaria causes repeating episodes of fever and can be fatal

Using insecticides and mosquito nets are a good way to prevent yourself from malaria

156
Q

Name 2 bacterial diseases:

A

1)Samonella
2)Gonorrhoea

157
Q

Salmonella: what it is, how it’s spread, what it does, and how you can prevent yourself from it

A

A bacterial infection caused by food poisoning

Can cause fever, stomach cramps, vomiting and diarrhoea

Caused by toxins that the bacteria produces

You can get Samonella from food prepared in unhygienic conditions
Or eating chicken that caught the disease while it was alive

(Most poultry is given a vaccination against salmonella to control the spread of the disease)

158
Q

Gonorrhoea: what it is, how it’s spread, what it does, and how you can prevent yourself from it

A

A bacterial disease, sexually transmitted (STD) so is passed on by unprotected sex

Somone with gonorrhoea will get pain when the urinate, or thick yellow/green discharge from the vagina/penis
Usually treated with an antibiotic called penicillin, but some strains of bacteria have become resistant to it

The spread of gonorrhoea can be treated with antibiotics and contraception/ barrier methods (condoms)

159
Q

Preventing disease-
Name 4 ways to help stop the spread of diseases

A

1) Being hygienic
2) Destroying vectors
3) Isolating infected Individuals
4) vaccinations

160
Q

How can being hygienic prevent/reduces the spread of disease?

A

1) washing your hands when preparing food or after you sneezed to prevent it passing on

161
Q

How can destroying vectors prevent/reduces the spread of disease?

A

1) getting rid of the organism that spreads diseases can stop it being passed on

2) insects can be killed using insecticides by destroying their habitat so they can no longer bread
(E.g malaria)

162
Q

How can isolating infected individuals prevent/reduces the spread of disease?

A

Prevents it from being passed on to someone else

163
Q

How can vaccinations prevent/reduces the spread of disease?

A

Means they can’t develop the infection and pass in on
(Like the chickens who get vaccinations against Samonella)

164
Q

Name the defence systems in your body: (6 condensed into 4)

A

1) Skin acts as a barrier
2) Hair and mucus in your nose
3) trachea and bronchi
4) The stomach (hydrochloric acid)

165
Q

How does the skin defend against diseases

A

Acts as a barrier, and secrets antimicrobial substances which kills pathogens

166
Q

How does hair and mucus in your nose defend against diseases

A

Traps particals that contains pathogens

167
Q

How does the trachea and bronchi defend against diseases

A

Secrets mucus to trap pathogens, and lined with cilia (hair-like structures) which waft up the muscus up to the back of the throat, where it can be swallowed

168
Q

How does your stomach defend against diseases

A

Produced hydrochloric acid which kills pathogens that have made it that far from the mouth

169
Q

What do white blood cells do?

A

Attack invading microbes

170
Q

Name the 3 lines of attack white blood cells can do

A

1) Engulf and digest foreign cells (this is called phagocytosis)
2) produces antibodies
3) Produces antitoxins (counteracts toxins produced by the invading bacteria)

171
Q

Explain how white blood cells producing antibodies help clear diseases

A

Invading path have unique molecules called antigens on its surface

When a white blood cell comes across a foreign antigen, they start produce proteins called antibodies that log onto the invading cells so they can be found and destroyed by other white blood cells. These antibodies are specific to that type of antigen. They won’t knock onto any others.

Antibodies are then produced rapidly and carried around the body to find all similar bacteria or viruses

If the same person is infected with the same pathogen again, the white blood cells will rapidly produce the antibodies to kill it.

The person is now naturally immune to the pathogen and won’t get ill.

172
Q

How does vaccinations work?

A

1) vaccinations involve injecting small amounts of dead or inactive pathogens which carry antigens so your body can produce antibodies to attack them even though the pathogens harmless

2)This means if the live pathogen then appears the white blood cells can rapidly mass produce antibodies to kill off the pathogen so you won’t get in ill

(when you’re infected with a new pathogen before getting a vaccination your white blood cells take a few days to learn how to deal with it and by that time you can get pretty ill)

173
Q

What are the pros to vaccinations?

A

Help control lots of communicable diseases that were common in the UK (such as smallpox, measles, mumps and rubella)

174
Q

What are the cons to vaccinations?

A

1)Sometimes they don’t work and if you don’t give you immunity

2) sometimes people have a bad reaction to the vaccine (e.g a fever or seizures ) but these bad reactions are very rare

175
Q

Painkillers or what kind of drug?

A

Aspirin

176
Q

Does aspirin tackle the cause of the disease?

A

No, it only helps reduce the symptoms

177
Q

Does penicillin actually kill the disease?

A

Yes, penicillin kills bacteria killing your own body cells

178
Q

Can an antibiotic destroy virus? (e.g. flu or cold viruses)

A

No antibiotics, help kill bacterial diseases, not viruses

179
Q

Bacteria can mutate, what does this mean?

A

Mutation causes bacteria to be resilient from an antibiotic (not get killed by)

180
Q

How can you slow down the rate of resistance strains development?

A

By avoiding over-prescribing antibiotics

Also importantly, finish the whole course of antibiotics. You don’t just stop once you feel better.

181
Q

Where do many drugs originate from?

A

Plants

182
Q

Aspirin is a painkiller used to lower fever where was it found?

A

From a chemical found in Willow

183
Q

digitalis is used to treat hot conditions. Where was it found?

A

A chemical found in fox gloves

184
Q

How was penicillin discovered?

A

Mould On a petri dish which was producing a substance that killed the bacteria ( which was penicillin ) discovered by Alexander Fleming

185
Q

What are the three main stages in drug testing?

A

1) drugs are tested on human cells and tissues in the lab

2) drugs are tested on live animals
In the uk any new drug must be tested on two different live animals

3) Human volunteers, in a clinical trail.

(if it passes this then it is tested on People suffering from the illness)

186
Q

What is the placebo effect?

A

A substance that’s like a drug but doesn’t do anything. This is so the doctor can see the actual difference the drug makes. (it’s when a patient expects the treatment to work and so feels better even though the treatment isn’t doing anything)

187
Q

Clinical trials are blind, the patient in the study doesn’t know whether they’re getting the drug or the placebo. What does it mean if a clinical trial is double blind?

A

Both the doctors and the patients don’t know who is getting the drug and who is getting the placebo and neither patient nor the doctor knows until all the results have been gathered. This is so that the doctors monitoring the patient and analysing the results are not subconsciously influenced by their knowledge.

188
Q

Why might drug testing and drug
trial’s results not get published until they’ve been peer reviewed?

A

This helps to prevent false claims

189
Q

Where are antibodies produced from?

A

A type of White blood cell called B-lymphocytes

190
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies?

A

Monoclonal antibodies are produced from lots of clones of a single white blood cell. The antibodies are identical and will only target once specific protein antigen.
(Hybridoma cells can be cloned to get lots of identical cells. The cells will produce the same antibodies and the antibodies can be collected and purified. You can get monoclonal antibodies that bind to anything you want. They’re really useful because they were only bind to target one molecule this means you can use them to target a specific cell or chemical in the body.)

191
Q

Where are monoclonal antibodies used?

A

In pregnancy tests

192
Q

How do pregnancy tests work?

A

Monoclonal antibodies are stuck down onto the test strip and urine climbs up the bottom of the test strip if HCG (a hormone only treated during pregnancy) is present, it will bind to it and that activates a colour change on the stick

193
Q

What are hybridoma?

A

B-lymphocyte fused with a tutor cell (this is because tumor cells divide quickly and b-lymphocyte doesn’t)