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IDC Unit 7 > SMDR Review Questions > Flashcards

SMDR Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Potable water halogen residuals while underway or in non U.S. controlled ports is conducted how often?

A

Daily.

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2
Q

A sick call log is submitted how often and to who?

A

Daily,

CO.

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3
Q

Immunizations are conducted how often?

A

Daily.

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4
Q

Health record maintenance is conducted how often?

A

Daily.

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5
Q

Bacteriological testing is done how often?

A

Weekly.

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6
Q

3-M completion SKED program is done how often?

A

Weekly.

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7
Q

Stretcher bearer training is done how often?

A

Biweekly.

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8
Q

Verify outstanding supply requisitions via Material Obligation Validation how often?

A

Monthly.

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9
Q

What does MOV stand for?

A

Material Obligation Validation.

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10
Q

How often are habitability inspections conducted?

A

Quarterly.

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11
Q

How often are CSIB’s conducted?

A

Quarterly,

Monthly, if a transaction occurs.

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12
Q

CBRN inventory AMAL is known as what?

A

Force protection.

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13
Q

How often are drills and exercises?

A

Quarterly.

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14
Q

How often are SSEC/SSCC’s conducted?

A

Semiannual.

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15
Q

Who certifies the SSEC/SSCC?

A

NEPMU.

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16
Q

How often are health and dental records audits?

A

Semiannual.

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17
Q

How often are mass casualty drills?

A

Semiannual.

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18
Q

How often are Long Range Training Plans submitted?

A

Annually.

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19
Q

What does CLIP stand for?

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Program.

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20
Q

How often is a CLIP done?

A

Every two years (Biennial.)

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21
Q

How often is a competency for duty examination?

A

Situational.

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22
Q

What is the definition of the quality assurance program?

A

A structured/systemic process for evaluating the entire spectrum of clinical care,

Resolution of previously unidentified or unresolved problems.

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23
Q

Who assumes overall program oversight and coordination of the Quality Assurance Program?

A

Fleet Commander.

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24
Q

Who exercises overall control and accountability for the Quality Assurance program?

A

Type Commander.

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25
Q

Shipboard Medical Procedures Manual

Chapter 1?

A

General.

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26
Q

Shipboard Medical Procedures Manual

Chapter 2?

A

Training.

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27
Q

Shipboard Medical Procedures Manual

Chapter 3?

A

Fiscal/Supply Management.

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28
Q

Shipboard Medical Procedures Manual

Chapter 4?

A

Health Care.

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29
Q

Shipboard Medical Procedures Manual

Chapter 5?

A

Environmental Health and Prevmed Afloat

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30
Q

Shipboard Medical Procedures Manual

Chapter 6?

A

Medical Planning.

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31
Q

Shipboard Medical Procedures Manual

Chapter 7?

A

Blood program.

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32
Q

What is readiness evaluation 1 (READ-E 1)?

A

Mandatory ship self assessment.

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33
Q

What is readiness evaluation 2 (READ-E 2)?

A

TYCOM-led assessment of material.

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34
Q

What is readiness evaluation 3 (READ-E 3)?

A

A four week TYCOM-led validation event that is conducted during the post- deployment Sustainment Phase.

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35
Q

READ-E 3 should be scheduled how many days after returning from a deployment?

A

30-60 days.

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36
Q

What does CRAV stand for?

A

Command Readiness Assessment Visit.

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37
Q

What does IIG stand for?

A

INSURV inspection guides.

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38
Q

What emergency AMAL’s need to be 100 % at all times?

A

IDC Bag,

Gun Bags,

Jr HM Response Kit,

Battle Dressing Station,

Mass Casualty Boxes,

First Aid Boxes,

Boat Boxes,

Dental Boxes.

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39
Q

BDS Stretcher bearers are what TCCC tier?

A

Tier 2.

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40
Q

During the drill scenario, the MTT will demonstrate the ability to do what?

A

Plan,

Brief,

Execute,

Debrief.

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41
Q

A watch, quarter, and station bill must include what?

A

4 stretcher bearers,

1 phone talker.

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42
Q

The MRI checklist has how many sections?

A

6 sections.

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43
Q

MRI section 1?

A

Administration and training.

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44
Q

MRI section 2?

A

Supplies and equipment.

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45
Q

MRI section 3?

A

Emergency Medical Preparedness.

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46
Q

MRI section 4?

A

Ancillary Services.

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47
Q

MRI section 5?

A

Environmental Health Services.

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48
Q

MRI section 6?

A

Occupational Health Programs.

49
Q

What is C1?

A

Full ready > = 90%.

50
Q

What is C2?

A

Substantially Ready > = 80%.

51
Q

What is C3?

A

Marginally Ready > = 70%.

52
Q

What is C4?

A

Not Ready < 69%.

53
Q

A follow up report for an MRI must be submitted to who and how often after?

A

TYCOM,

Every 30 days.

54
Q

When is the final disposition report due after an MRI?

A

6 months.

55
Q

How often is a DRI conducted?

A

18 months,

Or,

120 days prior to deployment.

56
Q

COMUSFLTFORCOMINST 6600.1?

A

DRI.

57
Q

When is a supply management inspection (SMI) conducted?

A

Every 18 months.

58
Q

When is a board of inspection and survey?

A

About every 5 years.

Tax money being well spent.

59
Q

The board of inspection survey is reported to who?

A

Congress via the COC.

60
Q

What is an MFR?

A

Memorandum for the record.

Account of events of historical significance, not otherwise recorded.

61
Q

What are the admin documents maintained by the SMDR?

A

MFR,

Sick Call Log,

Training Log,

Heat Stress Log,

STI Log,

Potable Water Log,

Pest Control Log,

Temp Log,

Medical Waste/Disposal Log,

Consultation Log.

62
Q

OPNAVNOTE 5215?

A

Consolidated List of Effective Institutions,

Semi-annual listing.

63
Q

OPNAVNOTE 5400?

A

Standard Navy Distribution List.

Provides proper mailing address and titles for Naval Correspondence for DON activities.

64
Q

Standard Navy Distribution List, lists what?

A

PLAD’s or UIC’s.

65
Q

SECNAVINST 5210.2?

A

List of SSIC.

66
Q

SECNAVINST 5216.5?

A

Navy Correspondence Manual.

67
Q

NTP-3 Series?

A

Navy Telecommunications Users Manual.

68
Q

USN PLAD1?

A

Message Address Directory.

69
Q

Fully medically ready?

A

Current in all categories including dental class 1 or 2.

70
Q

Partially medically ready?

A

Lacking one or more immunizations, readiness laboratory studies, or medical equipment.

71
Q

Not medically ready?

A

Existence of a chronic or prolonged deployment limiting condition including Service members who are hospitalized or convalescing from serious illness or injury, or individuals in dental class.

72
Q

Medical readiness indeterminate?

A

Inability to determine the Service member’s current health status because of missing health information such as a lost medical record, an overdue PHA or being in dental class 4.

73
Q

Indoc training covers the locations of what?

A

First Aid Boxes (FAB),

Litters and Stretchers,

Mass Casualty Boxes (MCB),

Battle Dressing Station.

74
Q

What is the purpose of All Hands Medical Training?

A

How to use the medical equipment.

75
Q

Each crewmember must be knowledgeable in, and be able to demonstrate, the principles of what?

A

First aid and rescue.

76
Q

For GMT’s, the medical department shall act as a what?

A

A resource only.

77
Q

How many people are stretcher bearers?

A

4 non-medical,

1 phone talker.

78
Q

Stretcher bearer training requirements?

A

DC training,

PQS.

79
Q

Medical department training must be completed within what time?

A

6 months.

80
Q

All IDC’s must be trained per what instruction?

A

OPNAVINSTl 6400.1.

81
Q

The medical department must also have PQS’s in what?

A

DC and 3M,

Within 6 months.

82
Q

What is an HM striker?

A

The concept of the striker program is to identify and prepare eligible enlisted for attendance at “A” school.

Undesignated.

83
Q

What are the required training topics?

A

Medical Programs,

Health Promotions and Wellnesses Programs,

Navy Safety And Occupational Health Program.

84
Q

What is included in the medical program training?

A

Basic first aid,

Poison and antidotes,

Aspects of CBRN warfare.

85
Q

What is included in Health Promotions and Wellnesses Programs training?

A

Suicide awareness and prevention,

Tricare options and procedures,

Nutrition,

STD and pregnancy awareness,

Tobacco cessation.

86
Q

What is included in navy safety and occupational health program training?

A

Asbestos,

Sight conservation,

Electrical safety,

Lead control,

Marine sanitation device health hazards.

87
Q

What are the specialty training topics?

A

Food service,

Potable water,

Barber shop,

Laundry,

CHT system.

88
Q

What is derived from the LRTP and prepared for each department?

A

Short Range Training Schedule.

89
Q

How long is a short range training schedule?

A

3 months.

90
Q

What are the training exercises briefing requirements?

A

Medical training team,

Trusted agent,

Watch standers,

MTT brief,

91
Q

A safety walk through shall be commenced at least how long before each drill?

A

1 hour.

92
Q

Who notifies the CO when a member is hospitalized?

A

MTF.

93
Q

Hospitalizations of enlisted personnel in a transit status, the CO of the gaining command will be notified by who?

A

MTF.

94
Q

What does ISOS stand for?

A

International SOS.

95
Q

ISOS will assist with what?

A

Provide assistance in an emergency

Locating network primary,

Identifying specialty care providers

Medically monitoring your care

Provide you with medical advice, guidance when self-treating minor illnesses.

Scheduling medical appointments

Help ensure you receive the most appropriate care.

If necessary, move you or your family to another area to seek care.

96
Q

Tricare partners with ISOS to make what?

A

Tricare Global Remote Overseas Healthcare Program,

TGRO.

97
Q

What are the three TRICARE Overseas Program areas?

A

Tricare Pacific,

Tricare Eurasia - Africa,

Tricare Latin America and Canada (TLAC).

98
Q

What does TLAC stand for?

A

Tricare Latin America and Canada.

99
Q

ISOS Tricare Overseas Programs assist with what?

A

Refills for lost or forgotten medication,

Assistance with lost passports and extending visas,

Support replacing lost credit cards or tickets.

100
Q

Requests for transfer of patients to CONUS are normally sent via what?

A

TRAC2ES.

101
Q

What does TRAC2ES stand for?

A

Transportation Command Regulating and Command and Control Evaluation System.

102
Q

GPMRC/TPMRC transmits the hospital destinations to the requesting MTF by using what?

A

TRAC2ES, message, or telephone.

103
Q

Patients transferred to another MTF and who are expected to return to duty are regulated to where?

A

The closest MTF having the capability to provide the care.

104
Q

Patients transferred to another MTF who are not expected to return to duty are regulated to where?

A

An MTF which is nearest the patient’s place of residence for humanitarian reasons.

105
Q

Who issues the cite number for a patient transfer?

A

GPMRC/TPMRC.

106
Q

Transfer requests are submitted to GPMRC/TPMRC by what?

A

TRAC2ES, message, or telephone.

107
Q

When transferring an emergency patient, what must first be determined?

A

The receiving MTF has capability to provide the required medical care and obtain acceptance.

108
Q

An emergency patient after the fact report is submitted within how many hours?

A

48 hours to GPMRC/TPMRC by the transferring MTF.

109
Q

LIMDU periods are to be reported to who?

A

Members command,

Personnel Support Detachment (PSD).

110
Q

LIMDU periods are to be reported to who?

A

Members command,

Personnel Support Detachment (PSD).

111
Q

Authority to convene a medical board is granted when any physician trained and certified to be a member of a medical board determines that what?

A

A member has a condition or physical defect which may permanently interfere with his or her ability to reasonably perform the duties of their rate.

112
Q

How long is a period of temporary limited duty?

A

30 days.

113
Q

Who are the convening authorities for a med board?

A

Commanding Officer of Hospitals/Clinics,

CNO,

CMC,

Etc.

114
Q

Med boards will be composed of how many medical officers?

A

2,

A third can be assigned at the discretion of a convening authority.

115
Q

If a class 1 or 2 aviation officer appears before a board to return to full duty, who must be a part of the board?

A

Flight surgeon.

116
Q

If a patient is a reservist on a med board, who also needs to be a member of the board?

A

A reservist.

117
Q

Who makes the determination if a patient is unfit for duty?

A

Central Physical Evaluation Board.

118
Q

What is Annex Q?

A

Medical.

119
Q

What is an OPLAN?

A

An OPLAN is intended to provide guidance for all aspects of an operation in order to accomplish the stated objectives.

IDC Unit 7 (6 decks)

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