LE2 - Ped

Question 1

In the HPG axis, GRH will give a positive feedback on the pituitary to release this hormone
A. LH
B. FSH
С. АСТН
D. Both (a) and (b) are correct

Answer 1

D. Both (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation: In the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis, Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the pituitary gland to release both Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH), which are crucial for the regulation of the reproductive system in both males and females.

Question 2

The first visible sign of puberty among girls and boys is:
A. Thelarche and penile growth
B. Thelarche and testicular enlargement
C. Menarche and testicular enlargement
D. Menarche and penile growth

Answer 2

B. Thelarche and testicular enlargement
Explanation: The first visible sign of puberty in girls is thelarche (the beginning of breast development), and in boys, it is testicular enlargement. These are the physical markers indicating the onset of puberty.

Question 3

The correct sequence of male sexual development:
A. Testicular development, pubic hair, peak height velocity
B. Testicular development, pubic hair, peak weight velocity
C. Pubic hair, peak weight velocity, testicular development
D. Pubic hair, peak height velocity, testicular development

Answer 3

A. Testicular development, pubic hair, peak height velocity
Explanation: The typical sequence of puberty in males starts with testicular development, followed by the appearance of pubic hair, and then reaches the peak height velocity. This sequence reflects the general pattern of changes during male puberty.

Question 4

Among females, the following sequence of pubertal development is correct: *
A. Pubic hair, thelarche, menarche
B. Growth spurt, thelarche, menarche
C. Thelarche, growth spurt, menarche
D. Thelarche, menarche, growth spurt

Answer 4

C. Thelarche, growth spurt, menarche
Explanation: In females, the usual sequence of puberty begins with thelarche (breast development), followed by a growth spurt, and finally menarche (the onset of menstruation). This sequence outlines the standard progression of female pubertal development.

Question 5

Among males, peak height velocity occurs:
A. Simultaneously with genital 5
B. Two years later than female’s height spurt
C. Simultaneously with peak weight velocity
D. Between SMR 2 and SMR 3

Answer 5

B. Two years later than female’s height spurt

Question 6

All of the following vaccines can be given at birth except:
A. Measles
B. OPV
C. Hepatitis B
D. BCG

Answer 6

A. Measles
Explanation: The measles vaccine is not administered at birth. It is typically given at a later stage, usually after the child is at least 9 months old, as part of the routine childhood vaccination schedule. In contrast, OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine), Hepatitis B, and BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guérin for tuberculosis) can be administered at birth.

Question 7

Which of the following vaccines should be contraindicated in 4 y/o boy receiving immunosuppressive?
A. Hepatitis A vaccine
B. Varicella vaccine
C. Inactivated polio vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine

Answer 7

B. Varicella vaccine
Explanation: The varicella vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine, is generally contraindicated in individuals who are immunocompromised or receiving immunosuppressive therapy due to the increased risk of vaccine-induced disease. Hepatitis A, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not live vaccines and are generally considered safe for immunocompromised individuals.

Question 8

The following disorders that is not included in the Philippine Newborn Screening:
A. Galactosemia
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
D. Phenylketonuria
E. Maple syrup urine disease

Answer 8

B. Tyrosinemia
Explanation: As of my last update, tyrosinemia was not included in the standard newborn screening panel in the Philippines. The Philippine Newborn Screening includes tests for conditions such as Congenital Hypothyroidism, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Phenylketonuria, Galactosemia, and Maple Syrup Urine Disease, among others.

Question 9

The most common adverse reaction after vaccination is:
A. Fever
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Encephalopathy
D. Arthralgia

Answer 9

A. Fever
Explanation: Fever is the most common adverse reaction following vaccination, often reflecting the body’s immune response to the vaccine. It is generally mild and temporary. Other reactions like anaphylaxis, encephalopathy, and arthralgia are much less common.

Question 10

Screening for eye and visual defects is recommended for all of the following patients EXCEPT: *
A. Premature infants <32 weeks
B. Infants with metabolic disorders
C. Family history of congenital cataracts
D. Infants with Vitamin B deficiency

Answer 10

D. Infants with Vitamin B deficiency
Explanation: Screening for eye and visual defects is particularly important for premature infants (less than 32 weeks gestation), infants with metabolic disorders, and those with a family history of congenital cataracts, due to the increased risk of visual problems. There is no specific recommendation for universal eye and visual defect screening solely based on Vitamin B deficiency, making it the exception among the listed options.

Question 11

True statements about pulse measurements in children:
A. The thumb is used to palpate the femoral, radial, brachial or carotid or over the apex of cardiac precordium
B. Use of one, two or three fingers is preferred to palpate precordial pulsation
C. The radial artery pulse is best assessed in the acute management of critically ill children
D. Carotid artery pulse is used to determine the pulse rate in a neonate because it is easily accessible

Answer 11

B. Use of one, two or three fingers is preferred to palpate precordial pulsation

The radial artery pulse is commonly used in the acute management of critically ill children due to its accessibility.

The use of one, two, or three fingers (excluding the thumb) is preferred for palpating pulses, but specifically for the precordial pulsation, the statement is more nuanced, focusing on palpation over the apex of the cardiac precordium.
The carotid artery, not the radial artery, is often used in emergency situations for quick assessment of circulation in infants and children, but with caution to avoid compressing both sides simultaneously.

Question 12

The method of temperature measurement that is noninvasive, painless, instantaneous that provides the most accurate measurement of core temperature is:
A. Axillary
B. Oral
С. Ear
D. Rectal

Answer 12

D. Rectal

Question 13

Immediate complications of orotracheal or nasotracheal intubation include all EXCEPT:
A. Esophageal intubation
B. Right mainstem intubation
C. Barotrauma
D. Subglottic stenosis

Answer 13

D. Subglottic stenosis
Explanation: Subglottic stenosis is a potential long-term complication of intubation, not an immediate one. Immediate complications of orotracheal or nasotracheal intubation can include esophageal intubation, right mainstem intubation, and barotrauma. These complications are typically associated with the procedure’s execution and can occur during or immediately after the procedure.

Question 14

The preferred site for intraosseous puncture for infusion of fluids and electrolytes for a 5 year old boy with difficult venous access is:
A. Proximal tibia
B. Distal femur
C. Distal fibula
D. Superior iliac crest

Answer 14

A. Proximal tibia
Explanation: The proximal tibia is the preferred site for intraosseous (IO) puncture in children, including a 5-year-old boy with difficult venous access. This site is chosen due to its large marrow cavity, ease of access, and relative safety. The distal femur, distal fibula, and superior iliac crest are less commonly used for IO access in emergency situations.

Question 15

The procedure that is best reserved for management of an obstructed airway due to foreign body aspiration in INFANTS under 1 year is: a.
A. Jaw thrust maneuver
B. Selleck maneuver
C. Chest thrusts or back blows
D. Heimlich maneuver

Answer 15

C. Chest thrusts or back blows
Explanation: For infants under 1 year old, the recommended procedure for managing an obstructed airway due to foreign body aspiration is to use back blows and chest thrusts. The Heimlich maneuver is not recommended for infants under 1 year due to the risk of causing injury. The jaw thrust maneuver is used to open the airway without moving the neck, and the Sellick maneuver (cricoid pressure) is used during intubation to prevent aspiration, but neither is used for dislodging a foreign body in infants.

Question 16

1. According to WHO’s definition of adolescence, the period of development
   Corresponds roughly to the period between the ages of: *
   A. 10 and 18 years
   B. 10 and 19 years
   C. 10 and 20 years
   D. 10 and 24 years

Answer 16

B. 10 and 19 years
Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) defines adolescence as the period in human growth and development that occurs after childhood and before adulthood, from ages 10 to 19.

Question 17

2. Which of the following statements regarding puberty and adolescence is TRUE?
   A. Puberty is a critical transition in a person’s life that includes physical, emotional and psychosocial changes
   B. Puberty and adolescence are not the same, puberty is only part of adolescence
   C. Puberty is the period of psychological and social transition between childhood and adulthood
   D. There will always be variation in timing and pace of development, as well as the pattern of occurrence

Answer 17

B. Puberty and adolescence are not the same, puberty is only part of adolescence
Explanation: Puberty is the physical process of sexual maturation, while adolescence encompasses not only puberty but also the psychological and social transitions from childhood to adulthood.

Question 18

3Which of the following statements regarding somatic growth among adolescents is TRUE?
A. Boys would have more height or grow taller than girls but girls grow taller earlier than boys
B. Females have an increase in lean body mass while males develop higher proportion of body fat
C. Muscle growth precedes skeletal growth
D. Growth spurt follows a centrifugal pattern, trunk would grow first before the enlargement of
Arms and legs, followed by hands and feet

Answer 18

A. Boys would have more height or grow taller than girls but girls grow taller earlier than boys
Explanation: This statement accurately describes the typical pattern of growth during adolescence. Girls generally start their growth spurts earlier, leading to an earlier peak in height growth, while boys start later but often end up taller due to a longer duration of growth.

Question 19

4. Puberty includes the following EXCEPT: *
   A. Development of secondary sexual characteristics
   B. Increase in height
   C. Mood changes
   D. Change in body composition
   E. None of the above

Answer 19

E. None of the above
Explanation: All the options listed (development of secondary sexual characteristics, increase in height, mood changes, and change in body composition) are components of the changes that occur during puberty.

Question 20

5. The key hormone involved in growth during the adolescent period is:
   A. Somatostatin
   B. Thyroxine
   C. Growth hormone
   D. Insulin

Answer 20

C. Growth hormone
Explanation: Growth hormone plays a crucial role in stimulating growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration, making it key for growth during adolescence.

Question 21

6 This neuro-endocrine axis is ultimately responsible for the secondary sexual characteristics, menarche, and thelarche
A. Hypothalamic- pituitary- adrenal axis
B. Hypothalamic- pituitary- gonadal axis
C. Hypothalamic- pituitary- growth hormone axis
D. None of the above

Answer 21

B. Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis
Explanation: The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis plays a central role in controlling the development of secondary sexual characteristics, the onset of menarche, and thelarche by regulating the production of sex hormones.

Question 22

7. This neuroendocrine axis responsible for secondary sexual characteristics, menarche and thelarche produces
   A. Androgen
   B. Androstenedione
   C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
   D. Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS)

Answer 22

D. Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS)
Explanation: DHEAS is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands and is one of the androgens involved in the development of secondary sexual characteristics. While the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is directly responsible for the production of sex hormones like estrogen and testosterone, the adrenal glands produce DHEAS, which also plays a role in the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

Question 23

8. In the HPG axis, GRH will give a positive feedback on the pituitary to release this hormone
   A. LH
   B. FSH
   C. ACTH
   D. Both (a) and (b) are correct

Answer 23

D. Both (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the pituitary gland to release both Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH), which are essential for the functioning of the reproductive system in both males and females.

Question 24

9. In the HPG axis, CRH will give a positive feedback on the pituitary to release this hormone
   A. LH
   B. FSH
   С. АСТН
   D. Both (a) and (b) are correct

Answer 24

C. ACTH
Explanation: Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) stimulates the pituitary gland to release Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH), not LH or FSH. ACTH then stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol and other glucocorticoids, which are involved in the body’s stress response.

Question 25

10. The first visible sign of puberty among girls and boys is: *
    A. Thelarche and penile growth
    B. Thelarche and testicular enlargement
    C. Menarche and testicular enlargement
    D. Menarche and penile growth

Answer 25

B. Thelarche and testicular enlargement
Explanation: The first visible sign of puberty in girls is thelarche (the onset of breast development), and in boys, it is testicular enlargement. These signs indicate the beginning of puberty.

Question 26

11. The correct sequence of male sexual development: *
    A. Testicular development, pubic hair, peak height velocity
    B. Testicular development, pubic hair, peak weight velocity
    C. Pubic hair, peak weight velocity, testicular development
    D. Pubic hair, peak height velocity, testicular development

Answer 26

A. Testicular development, pubic hair, peak height velocity
Explanation: The typical sequence of puberty in males starts with testicular development, followed by the appearance of pubic hair, and then reaches the peak height velocity. This sequence reflects the general pattern of changes during male puberty.

Question 27

12. Among females, the following sequence of pubertal development is correct: *
    A. Pubic hair, thelarche, menarche
    B. Growth spurt, thelarche, menarche
    C. Thelarche, growth spurt, menarche
    D. Thelarche, menarche, growth spurt

Answer 27

C. Thelarche, growth spurt, menarche
Explanation: In females, the usual sequence of puberty begins with thelarche (breast development), followed by a growth spurt, and finally menarche (the onset of menstruation). This sequence outlines the standard progression of female pubertal development.

Question 28

13. The following conditions increases during adolescence EXCEPT:
    A. Laryngeal and pharyngeal size
    B. Aerobic capacity
    C. Hematocrit
    D. Deciduous teeth

Answer 28

D. Deciduous teeth
Explanation: During adolescence, individuals do not experience an increase in deciduous (baby) teeth. Instead, these teeth are replaced by permanent teeth. Increases in laryngeal and pharyngeal size, aerobic capacity, and hematocrit are typical physiological changes that occur during adolescence.

Question 29

14. Among females, peak height velocity occurs:
    A. Simultaneously with menstruation
    B. Two years later than male’s height spurt
    C. Simultaneously with peak weight velocity
    D. Between SMR 2 and SMR 3

Answer 29

D. Between SMR 2 and SMR 3
Explanation: In females, peak height velocity typically occurs between Tanner stages 2 and 3 (SMR 2 and SMR 3), which is before the onset of menstruation. Tanner stages are used to describe the physical development in children, adolescents, and adults.

Question 30

15. Among males, peak height velocity occurs:
    A. Simultaneously with genital 5
    B. Two years later than female’s height spurt
    C. Simultaneously with peak weight velocity
    D. Between SMR 2 and SMR 3

Answer 30

b. Two years later than female’s height spurt
This option correctly reflects the general pattern that males experience their peak height velocity approximately two years later than females. This delay is due to the later onset of puberty in males compared to females. While peak height velocity in males does occur in the context of Tanner stages (often between SMR 3 and 4 for males), emphasizing the relative timing to females provides a clear comparison of developmental timelines between the genders.

Question 31

16. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?
    A. Cognitive development closely correlates with physical maturation
    B. Psychosocial development closely correlates with pubertal status
    C. Teens move from formal operational to concrete thinking
    D. All of the above

Answer 31

B. Psychosocial development closely correlates with pubertal status
Explanation: Psychosocial development during adolescence can be closely correlated with pubertal status, as the physical changes of puberty often influence an individual’s self-perception and social interactions. Cognitive development and its correlation with physical maturation vary widely among individuals, and teens typically move from concrete to formal operational thinking, not the other way around.

Question 32

17 Neuromaturation continues into the third decade. The following are changes that occur in the brain EXCEPT: *
A. Decrease in gray matter
B. Decrease in white matter
C. Increase in myelination
D. Increase in efficient communication and connectivity between different brain regions

Answer 32

B. Decrease in white matter
Explanation: During adolescence and into the third decade of life, the brain experiences an increase in white matter, not a decrease. This increase in white matter is associated with increased myelination, which improves the efficiency of nerve impulse transmission. There is a decrease in gray matter due to synaptic pruning, and there is an increase in efficient communication and connectivity between different brain regions.

Question 33

18 Which is TRUE of synaptic pruning?
A. It occurs around 7 years old
B. It occurs mostly in the frontal lobe
C. It does not follow the principle of use it or lose it
D. All of the above

Answer 33

B. It occurs mostly in the frontal lobe
Explanation: Synaptic pruning is a process that refines brain function by reducing the number of synapses, making neural networks more efficient. It occurs throughout the brain but is particularly significant in the frontal lobe, which is involved in higher-order functions such as decision-making, planning, and social behavior. The process follows the principle of “use it or lose it,” meaning synapses that are not frequently used are more likely to be pruned away.

Question 34

19. Adolescents are emotional, impulsive and thrill seekers because there is a later
    development of the pre-frontal cortex which is in-charge of: *
    a. Emotions and motivations
    b. Physical coordination and reward
    c. Judgment and present orientation
    d. Impulse control and Planning

Answer 34

d. Impulse control and Planning
Explanation: The pre-frontal cortex is responsible for higher-order cognitive functions such as impulse control, planning, decision-making, and moderating social behavior. Its later development in adolescents compared to other brain areas contributes to their characteristic impulsivity, thrill-seeking behaviors, and challenges in planning and controlling impulses.

Question 35

20. This is a late event in normal adolescent development:
    a. Development of abstract thinking
    b. Preoccupation with body image
    c. Experimental substance use
    d. Being highly susceptible to peer pressure

Answer 35

a. Development of abstract thinking
Explanation: Development of abstract thinking is a hallmark of cognitive development in adolescence but tends to fully crystallize later in the adolescent years. This cognitive milestone allows for the appreciation of complex concepts and hypothetical situations.

Question 36

21. What characteristics best describe the individual who is in the stage of late adolescence? *
    a. Concrete thinker, idealistic, believes he/she is omnipotent
    b. More realistic, into philosophical thinking; risk taking peaks at this period
    c. More idealistic, more conscious about body image, prefers peer over family
    d. Concerned about future career, intimate relationships, accepts family’s values

Answer 36

d. Concerned about future career, intimate relationships, accepts family’s values
Explanation: Individuals in late adolescence are typically more focused on their future, including career planning and developing intimate relationships. They also begin to integrate and accept their family’s values as they form their own identity and prepare for adulthood.

Question 37

22. What characteristics best describe the individual who is in the stage of late adolescence?
    a. Cognitive development correlates closely with pubertal maturation.
    b. Adolescents move from formal operational thought to concrete thinking.
    c. Adolescent’s decision making and subsequent behavior are large determinants of their morbidity and mortality.
    d. Adolescents consistently use abstract and hypothetical thinking as part of their cognitive development.

Answer 37

c. Adolescent’s decision making and subsequent behavior are large determinants of their morbidity and mortality.
Explanation: This statement is true across the adolescent period. Adolescents’ decision-making and behaviors significantly impact their health and safety, contributing to morbidity and mortality rates. This includes behaviors related to driving, substance use, and sexual activity.

Question 38

23. Adolescent thinking can be characterized by the following except:
    a. Prone to exaggeration and over dramatization
    b. Have the sense of invincibility
    c. Self-centered
    d. Altruistic

Answer 38

d. Altruistic
Explanation: While adolescents can demonstrate altruistic behavior, this option is not characteristic of adolescent thinking in general, especially when compared to the other options. Adolescence is often marked by egocentrism, which can manifest as self-centeredness, a sense of invincibility, and prone to exaggeration, rather than a focus on altruism.

Question 39

24. An 18 year old female patient has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Considering her developmental stage, what will be will the most likely psychosocial concern of this adolescent? *
    a. Body image
    b. Effect on schooling / vocation
    c. Acceptance by peers
    d. Need for privacy

Answer 39

b. Effect on schooling / vocation
As the most likely psychosocial concern, it reflects the importance of how the diagnosis might impact her educational and vocational aspirations. At this age, individuals are often making critical decisions about their future career paths, and managing a chronic illness like diabetes could introduce challenges in navigating these decisions. Concerns might include managing diabetes care alongside school or work responsibilities, potential limitations on career choices depending on the severity of the condition, and the need for accommodations at school or work.

Question 40

25. Among the developmental tasks, which is the hallmark of adolescent development? *
    a. Separation from parents
    b. Increasing importance of peers
    c. Sexual awareness and interest
    d. Body image

Answer 40

a. Separation from parents
Explanation: Separation from parents is a key developmental task during adolescence as individuals seek to establish their own identity and autonomy. This process involves both physical and emotional aspects and is crucial for the transition to independent adulthood.

Question 41

26. Tasks of adolescence include all of the following EXCEPT: *
    a. Establishing own identity
    b. Achieving independence
    c. Acceptance of sexuality
    d. Economic independence

Answer 41

d. Economic independence
Explanation: While achieving economic independence is an important milestone, it is not typically considered a central developmental task of adolescence. The primary tasks during this period focus more on establishing identity, achieving emotional and psychological independence, and accepting one’s sexuality.

Question 42

27. In Tanner staging, when the breast is described as having a secondary mound where the areola and papilla projects above the breast, this is classified as: *
    a. B2
    b. B3
    с. B4
    d. B5

Answer 42

c. B4
Explanation: Tanner stage B4 for breast development is characterized by the secondary mound formation where the areola and papilla form a secondary mound above the level of the breast.

Question 43

28. In Tanner staging, when there is development of the glans penis and darkening of the scrotal skin, it is classified as:
    a. G2
    b. G3
    c. G4
    d. G5

Answer 43

c. G4
Explanation: Tanner stage G4 for genital development in males includes further enlargement of the penis with development of the glans, darkening of the scrotal skin, and increased scrotal size.

Question 44

29. In Tanner staging, when the pubic hair is described as moderate amount that is darker, coarser and starts to curl, it is classified as:
    a. PH 2
    b. PH 3
    c. PH 4
    d. PH 5

Answer 44

b. PH 3
Explanation: Tanner stage PH3 for pubic hair development is characterized by a moderate amount of darker, coarser, and more curled hair, extending laterally.

Question 45

30. Which among the following describes a teen during the early adolescence?
    a. Establish a relationship with parents
    b. Socializes with same sex peers
    c. Choose selectively among different peer groups
    d. Intermittently seek and reject parental acceptance

Answer 45

b. Socializes with same sex peers
Explanation: In early adolescence, teens often socialize more with same-sex peers as they begin navigating the complexities of social relationships and developing their social identity. This stage is marked by a strong inclination towards forming friendships and social networks with peers of the same sex.

Question 46

31. What aspect of development is greatly affected by environmental and cultural influences?
    A. Physical
    B. Cognitive
    C. Psychosocial
    D. AOTA

Answer 46

c. Psychosocial
If we’re emphasizing psychosocial development in the context of environmental and cultural influences, it’s true that these factors profoundly impact adolescents’ psychosocial development. Cultural norms, societal expectations, and the environment in which an adolescent grows up can significantly shape their social interactions, identity formation, self-esteem, and relationships with peers and family. While physical and cognitive developments are also influenced by these factors, psychosocial development is particularly sensitive to the social context, including cultural and environmental influences. This aspect of development encompasses the changes in relationships, emotions, and social skills that occur during adolescence.

Question 47

32. Which among the following describes a teen during the middle adolescence? *
    A. Considers parental advice and guidance
    B. Seeks more privacy at home
    C. Less vulnerable to peer group influence
    D. Peak of Parent-child conflict

Answer 47

D. Peak of Parent-child conflict
Explanation: Middle adolescence is often characterized by the peak of parent-child conflict. This period is marked by teens seeking independence, questioning authority, and testing boundaries, which can lead to increased conflicts with parents.

Question 48

33. Which among the following describes a teen during the late adolescence?
    A. Engages in sexual talk, gossips and jokes
    B. Interested in same sex attraction
    C. Development of emotional intimacy
    D. Relationship based on sexual attraction

Answer 48

C. Development of emotional intimacy
Explanation: In late adolescence, individuals start to develop deeper emotional intimacies in their relationships. This period is characterized by more mature relational dynamics compared to earlier stages of adolescence.

Question 49

34. A girl came in to your clinic and you noted that she is very preoccupied with her Looks and keeps on looking at the mirror and fixing her hair. Her mother also said that She is always making herself more attractive. You then make a conclusion that she is in her *
    A. Early adolescence
    B. Middle adolescence
    C. Late adolescence
    D. Adult

Answer 49

B. Middle adolescence
Explanation: Preoccupation with body image and appearance is common in middle adolescence. Teens at this stage are highly concerned with how they are perceived by others and often spend considerable time on their appearance.

Question 50

35. A 12 year old girl came in because she no menstruation yet. Physical exam shows Fine pubic hair at the medial aspect of the labia; there is slight elevation of breast and Papilla forming a small mound. What is the girl’s sexual maturation rating? *
    A. Breast stage 2, pubic hair stage 2
    B. Breast stage 2, pubic hair stage 3
    C. Breast stage 3, pubic hair stage 2
    D. Breast stage 3, pubic hair stage 3

Answer 50

A. Breast stage 2, pubic hair stage 2
Explanation: The description matches Tanner stage 2 for both breast and pubic hair development. Breast stage 2 is characterized by a small mound of breast and papilla elevation, and pubic hair stage 2 involves sparse, lightly pigmented, straight hair, primarily along the labia.

Question 51

36. Which of the following best characterizes early adolescences? *
    A. A boy wanting his own room and not interested with family activities
    B. A girl trying out alcohol due to peer pressure
    C. A boy decided on becoming an architect
    D. All of the above

Answer 51

A. A boy wanting his own room and not interested in family activities
This choice specifically highlights the aspect of seeking more privacy at home and beginning to reject parental advice and involvement in their decision-making, which is a key characteristic of early adolescence as it relates to the theme of separation from parents.

Question 52

37. “Sense of immortality and immunity” is greatest during this psychosocial development stage of adolescence.
    A. Early
    B. Middle
    C. Late
    D. All of the above

Answer 52

B. Middle
Explanation: The sense of immortality and immunity, often referred to as the “personal fable,” is most pronounced during middle adolescence. Teens at this stage tend to feel invincible and may engage in riskier behaviors due to a belief in their own uniqueness and invulnerability.

Question 53

38. Sexual interest and awareness would begin during what psychosocial development stage of adolescence?
    A. Early
    B. Middle
    C. Late
    D. All of the above

Answer 53

A. Early
Explanation: Sexual interest and awareness typically begin in early adolescence. This is when puberty starts, leading to an increase in hormones and the beginning of sexual maturation, which sparks an increased interest in sexual matters.

Question 54

39. An adolescent is preoccupied in making him/herself attractive is common during what psychosocial development stage? *
    A. Early
    B. Middle
    C. Late
    D. All of the above

Answer 54

B. Middle
Explanation: Preoccupation with appearance is especially common in middle adolescence. During this stage, teens become more concerned with how they are perceived by others and begin to place a greater emphasis on their physical appearance and attractiveness.

Question 55

40. Peer group is very important during adolescence, but what psychosocial development stage of adolescence would it become less important?
    A. Early
    B. Middle
    C. Late
    D. All stages

Answer 55

C. Late
Explanation: While peer groups are crucial throughout adolescence, their importance tends to diminish in late adolescence. As teens mature and develop a stronger sense of individual identity, they begin to prioritize personal goals and intimate relationships over peer group conformity.

Question 56

41. An adolescent very conscious about her looks and doubting if the changes going on are normal are very characteristic of what psychosocial development stage of adolescence? *
    A. Early
    B. Middle
    C. Late
    D. All of the above

Answer 56

A. Early
Explanation: Being highly conscious about looks and doubting if bodily changes are normal are characteristic concerns of early adolescence. This stage marks the onset of puberty, bringing about rapid physical changes that can lead to self-consciousness and uncertainty.

Question 57

42. Which of the following statements) about adolescent involvement with peer groups is/are TRUE? *
    A. Peer pressure may be positive pressure for the teen
    B. Peer groups are mostly limited to same sex peers
    C. Teens tend to have the same identity throughout different peer groups
    D. All of the above

Answer 57

A. Peer pressure may be positive pressure for the teen
Explanation: Peer pressure can indeed have positive effects, such as encouraging academic achievement, involvement in community or extracurricular activities, and adopting healthy habits. While peer groups can influence teens in various ways, not all peer pressure is negative, and teens do not necessarily maintain the same identity across different groups or limit their peer interactions to same-sex peers.

Question 58

43. Which of the following describes socialization during early adolescence *
    A. They socialize with opposite sex peers
    B. Girls’ group are centered on interest with certain toys/activities
    C. Boy’s group are centered on a particular activity
    D. All of the above

Answer 58

C. Boy’s group are centered on a particular activity
Explanation: During early adolescence, boys’ social groups often revolve around specific activities or interests, such as sports or video games. Girls’ groups during early adolescence tend to be more relationship-oriented, although this isn’t an option provided here.

Question 59

44. Re-establishment of relationship with parents usually occurs during this psychosocial development stage of adolescence:
    A. Early
    B. Middle
    C. Late
    D. All stages

Answer 59

C. Late
Explanation: In late adolescence, as individuals mature and gain a better understanding of their identity and others’, they often re-establish closer relationships with their parents, moving towards an adult-like relationship.

Question 60

45 Romantic relationship among teens may exist at what psychosocial development stage of adolescence?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. All stages

Answer 60

b. Middle
This reflects the stage when many teens start to show a significant interest in romantic and sexual relationships, aligning with the developmental changes and social dynamics characteristic of middle adolescence.

Question 61

46. The value of sexual maturity rating is:
    A. Basis for assessing the reproductive capacity
    B. Basis for predicting the final size of the breast, testes, penis, scrotum
    C. Basis for assessing the physical and physiological development
    D. Basis for assessing the sexual activity.

Answer 61

B. Basis for predicting the final size of the breast, testes, penis, scrotum

Question 62

47. Spermarche, appearance of acne and axillary perspiration among boys usually occur during this period:
    A. SMR 2
    B. SMR 3
    C. SMR 4
    D. SMR 5

Answer 62

B. SMR 3
Explanation: Spermarche (the first ejaculation), the appearance of acne, and the onset of axillary perspiration typically occur around Tanner stage 3, as these are signs of advancing puberty in boys.

Question 63

48. The mean age when peak height velocity among girls occur. *
    A. 8 years old
    B. 10 yrs old
    C. 12 yrs old
    D. 14 yrs old

Answer 63

C. 12 yrs old
Explanation: The mean age for peak height velocity in girls is around 12 years old. This is the period during which girls experience their fastest rate of growth in height during puberty.

Question 64

49. Which of the following statements about changes of physical growth in adolescents is not accurate? *
    a. The average duration of the growth spurt is 4-6 years.
    b. Growth is predominantly controlled by growth hormone.
    c. The growth spurt occurs 18-24 months in females than in males
    d. Nearly 50% of ideal adult body weight and 25% of body height are gained during the pubertal growth spurt

Answer 64

c. The growth spurt occurs 18-24 months in females than in males
Explanation: This statement is inaccurately phrased. The growth spurt actually occurs earlier in females than in males, typically around 2 years earlier, not 18-24 months in females than in males. The onset of puberty and the associated growth spurt begin earlier in girls than in boys.

Question 65

50. What is the average duration of puberty?
    a. 1-2 years
    b. 3-4 years
    c.4-5 years
    d. 5-6 years

Answer 65

b. 3-4 years

Question 66

51. The best technique of external cardiac compression (closed chest massage) for neonates and infants is: *
    a. Two thumbs
    b. Heel of one hand
    c. Two fingers
    d. Two hands

Answer 66

c. Two fingers
The two-finger technique is specifically designed for use in neonates and infants, as it allows for effective compression of the chest with appropriate depth and control, ensuring sufficient blood flow to sustain vital organs during periods of inadequate cardiac output.

Question 67

52. A newborn baby is delivered preterm and needs intravenous access for fluid resuscitation. Which of the following statements about proper umbilical cannulation technique is NOT accurate?: *
    a. French 8 catheter or feeding tube is inserted
    b. Insert about 5-6 cm of the catheter until free flow of blood
    c. It remains patent or retains the catheter for about 10 days
    d. Flush catheter with NSS to check for patency and free flow

Answer 67

c. It remains patent or retains the catheter for about 10 days
Explanation: The statement that the catheter remains patent or is retained for about 10 days is not accurate. Umbilical catheters, whether for venous or arterial access, are typically not intended to be left in place for such a long duration due to the risk of infection and other complications. The duration for which an umbilical catheter is left in place can vary, but it is generally used for a shorter term, and its use is closely monitored.

Question 68

53. In otoscopy to allow easier insertion of the speculum and straighten the external auditory meatus for proper visualization of tympanic membrane, the pinna of the ear should be pulled:
    a. Forward and upward
    b. Backward and upward
    c. Backward and downward
    d. Forward and downward

Answer 68

b. Backward and upward
Explanation: For adults and older children, the pinna should be pulled backward and upward to straighten the external auditory canal for better visualization during otoscopy. For infants, the pinna is pulled downward and backward.

Question 69

54. The preferred vessel for venous cutdown in children with difficult vascular access is the:
    a. Femoral
    b. External jugular
    c. Brachial vein
    d. Saphenous vein

Answer 69

d. Saphenous vein
Explanation: The saphenous vein at the ankle is the preferred site for venous cutdown in children with difficult vascular access. This site is chosen due to its accessibility and the lower risk of complications compared to other sites.

Question 70

55. In newborns, the commonly used method of blood collection procedure to determine hematocrit, bilirubin and glucose is via
    A. Antecubital vein
    B. Venous cutdown
    C. Finger prick or heelstick
    D. Scalp vein puncture

Answer 70

C. Finger prick or heelstick
Explanation: The finger prick or heelstick method is commonly used for blood collection in newborns and infants to test for various parameters, including hematocrit, bilirubin, and glucose levels. This method is preferred due to its minimal invasiveness and suitability for the small blood volume required for these tests.

Question 71

56. Roger is a 7-year old boy diagnosed as having hypertension secondary to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. Using auscultation method of BP measurement, which of the following steps is NOT appropriate? *
    A. Have the patient in a standing position
    B. Attach to the extremity a cuff that is at least one half or two- thirds the length of the upper arm (or thigh)
    C. Palpate the pulse of the brachial artery or of the popliteal artery or dorsalis pedis artery
    D Close the air valve and inflate the cuff to approximately 50 mmHg above the expected systolic pressure
    E. Place the diaphragm or bell of the stethoscope lightly over the artery

Answer 71

A. Have the patient in a standing position
Explanation: For accurate blood pressure measurement, especially in children, it is recommended to have the patient seated or lying down, not standing. The standing position can affect blood pressure readings due to the effects of gravity and may not provide the most accurate assessment of resting blood pressure.

Question 72

57 Complications of orotracheal intubation include all EXCEPT:
A. Broken teeth
B. Bronchospasm
C. Hypoxemia
D. Laceration of tongue or gums

Answer 72

D. Laceration of tongue or gums
Explanation: While orotracheal intubation can lead to several complications, laceration of the tongue or gums is less common compared to other complications like broken teeth, bronchospasm, and hypoxemia. The procedure is performed with care to avoid damage to oral structures, though minor injuries can occur.

Question 73

58. Which of the following statements about growth measurements is children and adolescents is NOT correct?
    A. Height can be measured accurately in standing position
    B. The lower segment can be measured from the upper edge of the symphysis pubis to the soles of the foot
    C. The arm span length is measured on a horizontal plane from the center of the back to the tip of the longest finger multiply by 2
    D. Weight of a child can be recorded indirectly by having a parent hold the child in her arms obtaining the weight of both the parent and child subtracting the weight of the parent from the total weight.
    E . AOTA

Answer 73

E. AOTA
Explanation: All provided options (A, B, C, D) are correct practices for measuring growth in children and adolescents. Height is accurately measured in a standing position; the lower segment measurement and arm span length measurement descriptions are accurate; and weighing a child indirectly by having a parent hold the child is a common practice when direct weighing is not feasible.

Question 74

59. True statements about pulse measurements in children:
    A. The thumb is used to palpate the femoral, radial, brachial or carotid or over the apex of cardiac precordium
    B. Use of one, two or three fingers is preferred to palpate precordial pulsation
    C. The radial artery pulse is best assessed in the acute management of critically ill children
    D. Carotid artery pulse is used to determine the pulse rate in a neonate because it is easily accessible

Answer 74

b. Use of one, two or three fingers is preferred to palpate precordial pulsation

Question 75

60. The method of temperature measurement that is noninvasive, painless, Instantaneous that provides the most accurate measurement of core temperature is:
    A. Axillary
    B. Oral
    C. Ear
    D. Rectal

Answer 75

D. Rectal
Explanation: The rectal temperature measurement is considered the gold standard for assessing core body temperature, especially in infants and young children. It is more accurate than axillary, oral, and ear (tympanic) measurements, though it is invasive compared to the other methods.

Question 76

61 Immediate complications of orotracheal or nasotracheal intubation include all ЕХСЕРТ:
A. Esophageal intubation
B. Right mainstem intubation
C. Barotrauma
D.Subglottic stenosis

Answer 76

D. Subglottic stenosis
Explanation: Subglottic stenosis is a potential long-term or late complication of intubation, not typically an immediate one. Immediate complications can include esophageal intubation, right mainstem intubation, and barotrauma.

Question 77

62. The preferred site for intraosseous puncture for infusion of fluids and electrolytes for a 5 year old boy with difficult venous access is:
    A. Proximal tibia
    B. Distal femur
    C. Distal fibula
    D. Superior iliac crest

Answer 77

A. Proximal tibia
Explanation: The proximal tibia is the preferred site for intraosseous (IO) infusion in children, including those with difficult venous access. It is easily accessible and provides a reliable entry point for the administration of fluids and medications.

Question 78

63. The procedure that is best reserved for management of an obstructed airway due to foreign body aspiration in infants under 1 year is:
    A. Jaw thrusts manuever
    B. Selleck maneuver
    C. Chest thrusts or back blows
    D. Heimlich maneuver

Answer 78

C. Chest thrusts or back blows
Explanation: For infants under 1 year old, the recommended approach for relieving airway obstruction due to foreign body aspiration involves the use of back blows and chest thrusts, not the Heimlich maneuver.

Question 79

64. The procedure of choice in management of an obstructed airway due to foreign
    Body aspiration in CHILDREN older than 1 year old is:
    A. Jaw thrusts maneuver
    B. Selleck maneuver
    C. Chest thrusts or back blows
    D. Heimlich maneuver

Answer 79

D. Heimlich maneuver
Explanation: For children older than 1 year, the Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrusts) is the recommended procedure to relieve airway obstruction caused by foreign body aspiration.

Question 80

65 There are usually 5 vital signs in all patients and the 6th vital sign in pediatric patients is: *
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart Rate
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen saturation

Answer 80

D. Oxygen saturation
Explanation: Oxygen saturation is often considered the “sixth vital sign” in pediatric patients, reflecting its importance in assessing the respiratory and circulatory status of children.

Question 81

66 A 2-month old baby is at the clinic for DPT immunization. The safe and preferred site intramuscular administration is:
A. Vastus lateralis muscle
B. Deltoid muscle
C. Gluteus maximus muscle
D. Abdominal muscle

Answer 81

A. Vastus lateralis muscle
Explanation: For infants, including a 2-month-old baby receiving DPT immunization, the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh is the preferred and safe site for intramuscular injections. This site is recommended due to its large muscle mass and distance from major nerves and blood vessels.

Question 82

67 The most practical method of collecting urine to a school age child is:
a. Suprapubic tap
b. Urine bag collection
c. Urinary catheterization
d. Midstream collection

Answer 82

d. Midstream collection
Explanation: Midstream urine collection is the most practical and non-invasive method for obtaining a urine sample from school-age children. It involves collecting urine ‘midstream’ during urination, which helps reduce contamination from the skin and genital area.

Question 83

68. The best site of choice for obtaining blood specimen in infants and young children is the:
    a. Radial artery
    b. Carotid artery
    c. Femoral artery
    d. Temporal artery

Answer 83

a. Radial artery
The radial artery, located on the ventral surface of the wrist, is often the preferred site for obtaining arterial blood specimens in infants and young children, especially for arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. The detailed procedure for collecting blood from the radial artery, including the use of a 25 to 23-gauge butterfly needle and performing Allen’s test to ensure collateral perfusion, highlights its suitability and common use for this purpose.

Question 84

69. Bone age determination to predict how much time a child will be growing, the most commonly used method is based on a single x-ray of the:
    a. Right hand and wrist
    b. Left hand and wrist
    c. Right foot and ankle
    d. Left foot and ankle

Answer 84

b. Left hand and wrist
Explanation: The most commonly used method for determining bone age is based on a single X-ray of the left hand and wrist. This method allows healthcare providers to compare the maturity of the child’s bones to standard age norms.

Question 85

70A 3-year old child is having respiratory failure and was intubated with size 4 straight endotracheal tube (ETT) . The ETT tip should be cm below from glottis into trachea:
a. 1- 2 cm.
b. 2-3 cm.
c. 3-4 cm.
d.4-5 cm

Answer 85

b. 2-3 cm
Explanation: The tip of the endotracheal tube (ETT) should ideally be positioned approximately 2-3 cm below the vocal cords (glottis) into the trachea to ensure proper ventilation and to avoid accidental extubation or intubation of the right main bronchus.

Question 86

71. An accelerated reaction to BCG vaccine should be interpreted as
    a. primary exposure to mycobacterium TB or presence of TB infection
    b. definitive immunity to tuberculosis
    c. sensitivity to tuberculin protein of the bacteria due to a past or present infection
    d. allergic reaction to the vaccine

Answer 86

c. sensitivity to tuberculin protein of the bacteria due to a past or present infection
Explanation: The accelerated response to the BCG vaccine, characterized by rapid induration, pustule formation, and scabbing and healing, indicates sensitivity to the tuberculin protein. This response suggests a past or present infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, as the immune system reacts more vigorously due to previous exposure to similar antigens.

Question 87

72.As per recommendation of the Department of Health, the first dose of Hepatitis B may now be given at:
a. birth
b. 6 weeks
c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Answer 87

a. birth
Explanation: The first dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended to be given at birth as part of the standard immunization schedule. This early vaccination helps prevent vertical transmission of Hepatitis B from mother to child.

Question 88

73. At what age should a child NOT receive Pertussis vaccine? *
    a. below 1 year old
    b. 1 - 3 years old
    c. 4 - 6 years old
    d. over 7 years old

Answer 88

d. over 7 years old
Explanation: The pertussis vaccine is typically not recommended for individuals over 7 years old in its pediatric form (DTaP). For older children and adults, a different formulation called Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis) is used to provide protection against pertussis.

Question 89

74. Which of the following vaccine should NOT be characterized as an attenuated live virus vaccine?
    a. Influenza vaccine
    b. Measles vaccine
    c. Mumps vaccine
    d. Rubella vaccine

Answer 89

a. Influenza vaccine
Explanation: The influenza vaccine comes in both inactivated (killed virus) and live attenuated forms. The most commonly administered influenza vaccine is the inactivated form, especially for the annual flu shots. The live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV) is a nasal spray, but when referring to the influenza vaccine broadly, it includes forms that are not live attenuated.

Question 90

75. This particular vaccine is important because the natural infection does not confer lifelong immunity:
    a. Measles
    b. DTaP
    c. OPV
    d. BCG

Answer 90

b. DTaP
Explanation: DTaP (Diphtheria, Tetanus, and acellular Pertussis) vaccine is important because natural infection with these bacteria does not confer lifelong immunity, making vaccination essential for continued protection.

Question 91

76. Among the vaccines included in the Expanded Program of Immunization (EPI) of the DOH that contains heat killed organisms:
    a. MMR
    b. Oral polio vaccine
    c. Measles
    d. DTaP

Answer 91

d. DTaP
The DTaP vaccine includes diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis components, none of which are live agents. The pertussis component is made from acellular parts of the pertussis bacteria, and the diphtheria and tetanus components are toxoids (inactivated toxins). This makes DTaP an example of a vaccine that contains heat-killed organisms or their components, fitting the description provided in the question.

Question 92

77.Preventive Pediatrics should encompass: *
a. Supervision of the physical growth and development of the individual from fetal life to adolescence
b. Early detection of congenital anomalies
c. Period health supervision visits
d. All of the above

Answer 92

d. All of the above
Explanation: Preventive pediatrics encompasses the supervision of physical growth and development from fetal life to adolescence, early detection of congenital anomalies, and periodic health supervision visits to ensure the overall health and well-being of children and adolescents.

Question 93

78. The following disorders that is not included in the Philippine Newborn Screening:
    a. Galactosemia
    b. Tyrosinemia
    c. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
    d. Phenylketonuria
    e. Maple syrup urine disease

Answer 93

b. Tyrosinemia
Explanation: As of the last update, Tyrosinemia was not included in the standard newborn screening panel in the Philippines. The Philippine Newborn Screening includes tests for conditions such as Congenital Hypothyroidism, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Phenylketonuria, Galactosemia, and Maple Syrup Urine Disease, among others.

Question 94

79. Which of the following vaccines should be contraindicated in a 4 y/o boy receiving immunosuppressive therapy for autoimmune hepatitis?
    A. Hepatitis A vaccine
    B. Varicella vaccine
    C. Inactivated polio vaccine
    D. Hepatitis B vaccine

Answer 94

B. Varicella vaccine
Explanation: The Varicella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is generally contraindicated in individuals who are immunocompromised or on immunosuppressive therapy due to the increased risk of vaccine-induced disease.

Question 95

80.All of the following vaccines can be given at birth except *
A. Measles
B. OPV
C. Hepatitis B
D. BCG

Answer 95

A. Measles
Explanation: The Measles vaccine is not administered at birth. It is typically given at a later stage, usually around 12-15 months of age as part of the routine childhood vaccination schedule. In contrast, OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine), Hepatitis B, and BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guérin for tuberculosis) can be administered at birth.

Question 96

81.Screening for eye and visual defects is recommended for all of the following patients EXCEPT: *
A. Premature infants <32 weeks
B. Infants with metabolic disorders
C. Family history of congenital cataracts
D. Infants with Vitamin B deficiency

Answer 96

D. Infants with Vitamin B deficiency
Explanation: While premature infants, infants with metabolic disorders, and those with a family history of congenital cataracts are at increased risk for eye and visual defects and thus recommended for screening, there is no specific recommendation for universal eye and visual defect screening solely based on Vitamin B deficiency.

Question 97

82. At what age an early intervention for hearing impaired infants should be instituted to improve the development of speech, language and cognition?
    A. < 6 months
    B. > 6 months
    C. > 1 year
    D. >2 years

Answer 97

A. < 6 months
Explanation: Early intervention for hearing-impaired infants is most effective when started before 6 months of age. Early detection and intervention can significantly improve outcomes in speech, language, and cognitive development.

Question 98

83. The most common adverse reaction after vaccination is:
    A. Fever
    B. Anaphylaxis
    C. Encephalopathy
    D. Arthralgia

Answer 98

A. Fever
Explanation: Fever is a common and generally mild adverse reaction following vaccination, reflecting the body’s immune response to the vaccine.

Question 99

84.Which of the following confer (s) passive immunity? *
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. MMR
C. Hepatitis B immune globulin
D. Infection with measles virus

Answer 99

C. Hepatitis B immune globulin
Explanation: Hepatitis B immune globulin provides passive immunity by supplying ready-made antibodies to the hepatitis B virus, offering immediate but temporary protection. Vaccines like Hepatitis B vaccine and MMR confer active immunity by stimulating the body’s immune system to produce its own antibodies, and infection with measles virus also leads to active immunity through natural infection.

Question 100

85. Infants born to mother who is Hepatitis B surface antigen positive (HepB Ag) should receive:
    A. Hepatitis B vaccine
    B. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HepB Ig)
    C. Both A and B
    D. None of these

Answer 100

C. Both A and B
Explanation: Infants born to HepB Ag-positive mothers should receive both the Hepatitis B vaccine and Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HepB Ig) shortly after birth to provide both immediate and long-term protection against hepatitis B infection.

Question 101

86. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in HIV positive patients?:
    A.DTap
    B.Influenza
    C.HiB (Hemophilus influenza type B)
    D.MMR

Answer 101

D. MMR
Explanation: The MMR vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine, is generally not contraindicated in all HIV-positive patients. It can be administered to HIV-positive patients who do not have evidence of severe immunosuppression. However, caution and medical guidance are advised, making it a more complex choice compared to the other options listed, which are not live vaccines or are less likely to be contraindicated in HIV-positive individuals.

Question 102

87. The ideal age which MMR(Measles Mumps Rubella) is given: *
    A. At birth
    B. Before 1 year old
    C. At 15 months
    D. At 2 years old

Answer 102

C. At 15 months
Explanation: The first dose of the MMR vaccine is typically given at 12-15 months of age, with a second dose usually administered at 4-6 years of age, making 15 months an ideal time for the first dose.

Question 103

88. Live viral vaccines given orally such as OPV induce antibodies in the GIT to this immunoglobulin class:
    A. IgA
    B. IgM
    C. IgD
    D. IgG

Answer 103

A. IgA
Explanation: Oral vaccines like the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) stimulate the production of IgA antibodies in the gastrointestinal tract, providing localized immunity.

Question 104

89. Which is the best statement regarding the use of combined diptheria-tetanus- pertussis (DPT) vaccine for primary immunization of young children:
    A. Is advisable only for catch-up immunization of children behind the recommended schedule
    B. Is acceptable practice, although clearly inferior to the use of separate vaccines
    C. Is the procedure of choice for immunization of normal children
    D. Should be restricted to underdeveloped countries

Answer 104

C. Is the procedure of choice for immunization of normal children
Explanation: The combined DPT vaccine is the procedure of choice for the primary immunization of normal children, as it efficiently provides protection against three significant diseases with a single injection, simplifying the vaccination schedule and improving compliance.

Question 105

90.Which of the following contraindicates routine childhood immunization?
A. Living with a pregnant woman
B.Prematurity
C. Antibiotic therapy
D.Acute illness with an oral temperature over 38C

Answer 105

D. Acute illness with an oral temperature over 38C
Explanation: A moderate or severe acute illness with or without fever is a precaution to the administration of most vaccines. An oral temperature over 38°C (100.4°F) is considered a contraindication for routine immunization until the illness resolves, to avoid complicating the diagnosis of the illness or attributing a reaction incorrectly to the vaccine.

Question 106

91. The first dose of live attenuated measles vaccine is usually administered subcutaneously:
    a. At 4 years of age
    b.At the time of school entry
    c.At 9 months of age
    d.At birth

Answer 106

c. At 9 months of age
Explanation: The first dose of the live attenuated measles vaccine is typically administered at 9 months of age in many immunization schedules, including those in countries with high measles transmission rates.

Question 107

92. The advantage of intramuscular polio vaccine (IPV) over oral polio vaccine (OPV) is
    a. Cost of vaccine
    b. Less risk of vaccine associated paralytic polio
    c. Ease of administration
    d. None of these

Answer 107

b. Less risk of vaccine-associated paralytic polio
Explanation: The primary advantage of IPV over OPV is the elimination of the risk of vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP), a rare but serious adverse event associated with the oral polio vaccine.

Question 108

93 Maintaining the cold chain ensures that the vaccine are stored according to the manufacture’s instruction at:
a. -1 to +5 degrees Centigrade
b. +2 to +8 degrees Centigrade
c. +2 to +10 degrees Centigrade
d. +4 to +8 degrees Centigrade

Answer 108

b. +2 to +8 degrees Centigrade
Explanation: Vaccines are typically required to be stored within a temperature range of +2 to +8 degrees Centigrade to ensure their potency and effectiveness. This is a standard guideline for vaccine storage in the cold chain.

Question 109

94. The following statement about immunization in children is NOT correct?
    A. Active immunization involves stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies and cellular immune responses that protect infectious diseases
    B. Passive immunization provides permanent protection through administration of antibodies
    C. Immunizing agent include vaccines, toxoids, antitoxins, immunoglobulin
    D. Passive immunization occurs naturally through T-cell mediated transmission of antibodies to the fetus

Answer 109

B. Passive immunization provides permanent protection through administration of antibodies
Explanation: Passive immunization, through the administration of antibodies, provides immediate but temporary protection against infectious diseases. It does not provide permanent protection, unlike active immunization, which stimulates the body’s own immune response.

Question 110

95 The following are examples of vaccines that provide active immunity EXCEPT:
a.Diptheria immune globulin
b. Diptheria tetanus (Dt) toxoid
c.MMR
d.Influenza vaccine

Answer 110

a. Diphtheria immune globulin
Explanation: Diphtheria immune globulin provides passive immunity by supplying ready-made antibodies to the body, unlike vaccines such as DT (Diphtheria and Tetanus toxoid), MMR (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella), and the Influenza vaccine, which stimulate the body’s immune system to produce its own antibodies, providing active immunity.

Question 111

96. Developmental screening can be started as early as: *
    a. Newborn period
    b. 9 months old
    c. 12 months old
    d. 18 months old

Answer 111

a. Newborn period
Explanation: Developmental screening can and should start from the newborn period to identify any early signs of developmental delays or disorders. Regular screenings continue throughout childhood at various well-child visits.

Question 112

97. When do we start screening for the blood pressure of a well child?
    a. 1 year old
    b. 2 years old
    c. 3 years old
    d. 4 years old

Answer 112

c. 3 years old
Explanation: Routine blood pressure screening for well children is recommended to start at 3 years old, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines, and should continue at every health care visit thereafter.

Question 113

98. Autism Screening can be done as early as:
    a. Newborn period
    b. 9 months old
    c. 12 months old
    d. 18 months old

Answer 113

d. 18 months old
Explanation: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all children be screened for autism spectrum disorders (ASD) at 18 months and 24 months, or whenever a parent or provider has a concern.

Question 114

99For at risk child, when can we start doing a tuberculin skin test?
a. 1 week old
b. 1 month old
c. 1 year old
d. 2 years old

Answer 114

b. 1 month old
Explanation: A tuberculin skin test (TST) can be administered to an at-risk child as early as 1 month old if there is a concern about exposure to tuberculosis or if the child is considered to be at high risk for TB.

Question 115

100. An obese 2-year-old was brought to you for consult. Which is NOT included in the preventive health screening for this age group?*
     a. BMI
     b. Blood pressure
     c. Body weight
     d. Dyslipidemia screening

Answer 115

d. Dyslipidemia screening
Explanation: Dyslipidemia screening is not routinely performed for all 2-year-olds but is recommended for children at risk of heart disease or with a strong family history of cardiovascular disease or dyslipidemia. For a general population of 2-year-olds, including those with obesity, dyslipidemia screening might not be included unless there are specific risk factors present.

Question 116

1.One of the following statements best describes the Science of Nutrition:
A. Nutrition is the only important factor to consider in the recovery of Burn patients.
B. Nutrients needed for growth can be obtained from diet alone.
C. Nutritional status is best assessed by the person’s clinical status.
D. Good nutrition is directly related to an improved infant and child health.

Answer 116

D. Good nutrition is directly related to an improved infant and child health.
Nutrition is a fundamental aspect of health and development, especially in infants and children.

Question 117

2 The Daily Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR) in a 2 y/o child is:
A. 45-65% Carbohydrates, 25-35% Fats, 10-25% Proteins
B. 45-60% Carbohydrates, 30-40% Fats, 10-25% Proteins
C. 35-55% Carbohydrates, 35-45% Fats, 10-25% Proteins
D. 35-65% Carbohydrates, 40-50% Fats, 10-25% Proteins

Answer 117

B. 45-60% Carbohydrates, 30-40% Fats, 10-25% Proteins

Question 118

3. Which of the followng vitamins can be also synthesized from a dietary precursor
   A. Vitamin A
   B. Vitamin B1
   C. Vitamin B6
   D. Vitamin C

Answer 118

A. Vitamin A.
The body can convert beta-carotene, found in plant foods, into vitamin A.

Question 119

4. One of the following is NOT a function of Proteins:
   A. Balances fluids between blood and tissue
   B. Provides energy during exhaustive exercise
   C. Facilitates absorption of Vitamin D.
   D. Acts as chemical messengers

Answer 119

C. Facilitates absorption of Vitamin D.
Proteins have many functions, including balancing fluids, providing energy, and acting as chemical messengers, but they do not directly facilitate the absorption of vitamin D.

Question 120

5 One of the following is NOT a function of Proteins:
A. Balances fluids between blood and tissue
B. Provides energy during exhaustive exercise
C. Facilitates absorption of Vitamin D.
D. Acts as chemical messengers

Answer 120

C. Facilitates absorption of Vitamin D
as the function not attributed to proteins.

Question 121

6 One of the activities for overweight/obesity prevention in less than 2 year-old child is to limit watching television TV to: *
A. no TV
B. <2 hrs
C. <3 hrs
D. <4 hrs

Answer 121

A. no TV
Rationale: For children under 2 years old, it is recommended to avoid screen time, including watching TV, to promote healthy physical and cognitive development.

Question 122

7 The most objective indicator of adequate breast milk intake by the infant is:
A. voiding pattern
B. stooling pattern
C. rate of weight gain
D. feeding frequency

Answer 122

C. rate of weight gain

Question 123

8 Daily juice intake for toddlers and young children should be limited to:
A. 2 oz
B. 4 oz
C. 6 oz
D. 8 oz

Answer 123

B. 4 oz.
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends not exceeding this amount to prevent excessive calorie intake and dental problems.

Question 124

9 A 4 month old baby girl was brought to your clinic since the mother is concerned about the infant’s restlessness and crying after feeding. The birth weight was 3 kg and present weight is 4 kg. She is exclusively breastfed. What advice will you give the mother?
A. Burp the baby after each feeding session.
B. Give the baby an anti flatulence
C. Increase the frequency and duration of breastfeeding
D. Assure the mother that this is normal for this age group

Answer 124

C. Increase the frequency and duration of breastfeeding

Question 125

10. How much calories from carbohydrates does a 4 year old boy gets if his diet consists of 5 grams/kg of carbohydrates daily?
    A. 280 kcal
    B. 300 kcal
    C. 320 kcal
    D. 360kcal

Answer 125

C. 320 kcal

1. Determine the total grams of carbohydrates consumed daily: 5 grams/kg x 16 kg = 80 grams.
2. Calculate the total caloric intake from carbohydrates: 80 grams x 4 kcal/gram = 320 kcal.

CALORIC VALUES OF THREE MAIN COMPONENTS OF FOODS
● Dietary nutrients that provide energy
o 1g carbohydrates = 4Kcal
o 1g protein = 4 Kcal
o 1g fats = 9 Kcal
o 1oz of milk = 20 Kcal
o 1oz = 30m

Question 126

11 Timely introduction of complementary feeding is important to baby’s feeding behavior. One of the following may result in early introduction of CF:
A. Increases risk of allergies among infants
B. Decreases risk to iron depletion and anemia
C. Decreases the time to learn and master new feeding behavior
D. increases frequency and duration of BF.

Answer 126

A. Increases risk of allergies among infants

Question 127

12. A mother with a 1 week old baby present with sore nipples. The problem began with the first feeding and has persisted with every feeding. The most likely cause of the problem is:
    A. Breastfeeding is too long
    B. Lack of nipple preparation during pregnancy
    C. The baby’s chin is not touching the breast
    D. The mother’s areola is showing during the entire feeding session

Answer 127

12: C. The baby’s chin is not touching the breast
Rationale: Proper latching, where the baby’s chin touches the breast, is crucial for effective breastfeeding and to prevent nipple soreness. Incorrect latching can cause persistent nipple pain.

Question 128

13 A 2 month old baby with family history of Atopy and is unable to breastfeed may benefit from what type of Milk Formula?
A. Goat’s Milk Based Formula
B. Cow’s Milk based formula
C. Protein Hydrolysate formula
D. Soy formula

Answer 128

C. Protein Hydrolysate formula.
These formulas are designed for infants at risk of allergies and are easier to digest.

Question 129

14 An obese 6 year old boy will benefit from additional fiber in his diet due to the following mechanisms:
A. Increasing fiber in the diet will lower his RDA for fats.
B. Fiber increases the Glycemic Index (GI) of particular food
C. Fiber slows gastric empty time and promotes satiety
D. RDA for fiber is 100 mg/kg.

Answer 129

C. Fiber slows gastric empty time and promotes satiety
Rationale: Fiber can help in weight management by slowing gastric emptying, which promotes a feeling of fullness (satiety) and can lead to reduced calorie intake.

Question 130

15. The best measure of vitamin D status is the level of: *
    A. 25-(OH)-D
    B. 1,25-(OH)2-D
    C. 24,25-(OH)2-D
    D. Serum calcium

Answer 130

A. 25-(OH)-D
Rationale: The best measure of vitamin D status is the level of 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25-(OH)-D) in the blood, as it reflects the total vitamin D stores in the body.

Question 131

16. Muscle and nerve irritability, blood coagulation and milk production are functions of this electrolyte:
    A. Sodium
    B. Potassium
    C. Calcium
    D. Magnesium

Answer 131

C. Calcium
Rationale: Calcium plays a critical role in muscle and nerve function, blood coagulation, and milk production, among other physiological processes.

Question 132

17Recommended age when iron supplements maybe introduced to a healthy,
exclusively breast fed infant, born full term:
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 5 months
D. 6 months

Answer 132

D. 6 months
Rationale: Iron supplements are typically recommended for healthy, exclusively breastfed infants starting at around 6 months of age to prevent iron deficiency.

Question 133

18 The mother of a 4 y/o boy was worried because his son was exposed to a confirm Covid-19 case 14 days ago. The child is asymptomatic, feeding well with no history of hospitalization nor chronic illness. What will you advise the mother? *
A. Do nothing and continue the usual diet of the child
B. Continue with usual diet and isolate the child
C. Ask the mother to bring the child to a hospital for RT- PCR
D. Assure the mother and continue with the usual diet of the child

Answer 133

D. Assure the mother and continue with the usual diet of the child
Rationale: If the child is asymptomatic, feeding well, and has no history of hospitalization or chronic illness, reassurance and continuing with the usual diet may be appropriate, while monitoring for any symptoms.

Question 134

19. Secretory IgA and number of macrophages are highest in the:
    A. Colostrum
    B. Fore milk
    C. Hind milk
    D. Mature milk

Answer 134

A. Colostrum
Rationale: Colostrum, the first milk produced after birth, has the highest concentration of secretory IgA and macrophages, which are important for the newborn’s immune system.

Question 135

20. You know when the infant is breastfeeding well if: *
    A. Presence of wet diapers, 8-10x/day
    B. Growth spurt during the first 3-5 days of life
    C. Rest and sleeps throughout the night
    D. Cries and seemed irritable in between feedings

Answer 135

A. Presence of wet diapers, 8-10x/day
Rationale: A good indicator of adequate breastfeeding is the presence of wet diapers (8-10 times per day), reflecting sufficient milk intake.

Question 136

21. Breastfeeding mother with engorged breasts may experience ONE of the following: *
    A. Breast may feel heavy and hot
    B. Breast are painful with tight nipples
    C. Small amount of milk flowing from the breast
    D. Mother is afebrile

Answer 136

B. Breast are painful with tight nipples

Question 137

22. An infant with complete lactose intolerance may benefit from what type of milk formula:
    A. Fresh milk
    B. Skim or Non-Fat milk
    C. Partially Hydrolyzed milk formula
    D. Soy milk formula

Answer 137

D. Soy milk formula
Rationale: An infant with complete lactose intolerance may benefit from a soy milk formula, which does not contain lactose and is suitable for infants with lactose intolerance.

Question 138

23. Complementary foods are required for proper nutrition and development of a child.
    When is the best time to introduce complementary foods?*
    A. 12-18 months
    B. 9-12 months
    C. 6-9 months
    D. 4-6 months

Answer 138

C. 6-9 months
Rationale: Complementary foods should be introduced around 6-9 months of age to ensure proper nutrition and development, alongside continued breastfeeding.

Question 139

24. The dietary sources of one of the following vitamins are from animal products only:
    A. Thiamine (B1)
    B. Riboflavin (B2)
    C. Pyridoxine (B6)
    D. Cyanocobalamin (B12)

Answer 139

D. Cyanocobalamin (B12)
Rationale: Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin) is primarily found in animal products, and its dietary sources are almost exclusively from these sources.

Question 140

25. At 24 - 36 months of age, feeding skills are described as:
    A. Both hands hold the bottle
    B. Cup drinking
    C. One-handed cup holding
    D. One hand on bottle during feeding

Answer 140

C. One-handed cup holding
Rationale: By 24-36 months of age, children typically develop the skill to hold a cup with one hand and drink from it independently.

Question 141

26. A 4 months old child unable to breastfed is given a cow’s milk-based formula. The child consumes 3 ounces of milk/feeding, and feeds at least 8x in 24 hrs. How much calories does the child receives/day?
    A. 420 kcal
    B. 440 kcal
    C. 460 kcal
    D. 480 kcal

Answer 141

D. 480 kcal.

CALORIC VALUES OF THREE MAIN COMPONENTS OF FOODS
● Dietary nutrients that provide energy
o 1g carbohydrates = 4Kcal
o 1g protein = 4 Kcal
o 1g fats = 9 Kcal
o 1oz of milk = 20 Kcal
o 1oz = 30m

Question 142

27. The primary carbohydrate in soy-based milk formula is
    A. Lactose
    B. Sucrose
    C, Glucose
    D. Galactose

Answer 142

B. Sucrose

The primary carbohydrate in soy-based milk formula is B. Sucrose. Soy formulas are often sweetened with sucrose to improve taste and mimic the lactose content’s energy in cow’s milk-based formulas.

Question 143

28. A 3 y/o child was brought to the OPD due to recurrent respiratory infections. On PE, the child seemed wasted and stunted for his age.
    The most important information in the assessment of a child’s nutritional status comes from:
    A. Complete and accurate clinical history
    B. Weight measurement
    C. Height measurement
    D. Hematological studies

Answer 143

A. Complete and accurate clinical history
Rationale: A complete and accurate clinical history is crucial in assessing a child’s nutritional status, as it provides comprehensive information including dietary habits, growth patterns, and health history.

Question 144

29. The mother of a 10-month-old infant was brought to your clinic for well-baby
    checkup. The mother asked if she can introduce mashed, chopped finger foods. What will you tell the mother?
    A. Yes, because the baby can taste the food
    B. Yes, because the baby can move the food from the tongue to teeth
    C. Yes, because the baby can suck and swallow
    D. Yes, because the baby shows appearances of early munching

Answer 144

B. Yes, because the baby can move the food from the tongue to teeth

Question 145

30. One of the following is NOT a metabolic function of fats:
    A. It is the main source of energy at 4 kcal/gm
    B. Facilitation of absorption of certain vitamins
    C. Formation of parts of the myelin sheath
    D. Provision of essential fatty acids

Answer 145

A. It is the main source of energy at 4 kcal/gm

Question 146

31. An 18 y/o mother who is exclusively breastfeeding her 2 months old infant came to your clinic because her child had diarrhea and vomiting in 2 days. The child appeared well, active and with good suck. What will you advise the mother? *
    A. Interrupt breastfeeding and give only ORS
    B. Continue breastfeeding and give ORS and antibiotics
    C. Continue breastfeeding day and night and give ORS as often as the child wants
    D. Continue breastfeeding

Answer 146

C. Continue breastfeeding day and night and give ORS as often as the child wants.
Rationale: According to the Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, breastfeeding should continue during episodes of diarrhea to prevent dehydration and malnutrition. Oral rehydration solution (ORS) should be given to replace lost fluids.

Question 147

32. The breast of a breastfeeding mother are swollen and milk is not dripping. The mother’s body temperature is 38. What is the appropriate thing to do? *
    A. Refer the mother to a hospital for admission
    B. Start antibiotic for 10 days
    C. Paracetamol may be given for pain.
    D. Warm compress and massage may be helpful

Answer 147

D. Warm compress and massage may be helpful.
Rationale: The symptoms suggest engorgement or possible mastitis. Warm compresses and massage can help alleviate pain and improve milk flow, as recommended in the Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics.

Question 148

33. For a mother to sustain breastfeeding, one of the following is recommended:
    A. Feeding of breastmilk as well as artificial feeds like milk formula and cereals for 1 year
    B. Feeding of breastmilk allowing intake of water, juices, and vitamins for 6 months
    C. Feeding of breastmilk without any additional food or drink for 6 months
    D. Feeding of breastmilk, including expressed breastmilk, allowing water intake for 6 months.

Answer 148

C. Feeding of breastmilk without any additional food or drink for 6 months.
Rationale: Exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months of life provides all the necessary nutrients for an infant and is recommended for sustaining breastfeeding.

Question 149

34. An infant is ready for complementary feeding when ALL of the following is observed, except: *
    A. Baby is interested in food when others eat
    B. Baby is able to swallow
    C. Baby is unable to hold head
    D. Baby opens mouth when food approaches

Answer 149

C. Baby is unable to hold head.
Rationale: Being able to hold the head up is a sign of readiness for complementary feeding. If the baby cannot hold their head, it is considered not ready for complementary foods.

Question 150

35. A 4 y/o boy whose weight is 12 kg was seen in your clinic. His mother asked you
    what milk she can give to her son as supplement because her son is a picky eater.
    Which one of the following is NOT an appropriate choice? *
    A. Recombined milk
    B. Skim milk
    C. Fresh milk
    D. Full cream milk

Answer 150

B. Skim milk.
Rationale: Skim milk is not recommended for a 4-year-old due to its low fat content, which is needed for growth and development.

Question 151

36. Hospital policies that promotes breastfeeding include:
    A. Unlimited access of mother to baby
    B. Uninterrupted sleep the first night to allow mother’s milk supply to build up
    C. Use of pacifier to prevent sore nipples
    D. Use of a dropper for routine feeding

Answer 151

A. Unlimited access of mother to baby.
Rationale: Hospital policies that promote breastfeeding often include practices that facilitate skin-to-skin contact and unrestricted access to breastfeeding.

Question 152

37 One of the following is an absolute contraindication of breastfeeding:
A. Mother with active TB
B. Mother who is HiV positive
C. Mother with Covid-19
D. Mother whose infant has galactosemia

Answer 152

D. Mother whose infant has galactosemia.
Rationale: Galactosemia is a metabolic condition where the infant cannot process galactose, a sugar present in milk. Breastfeeding is contraindicated in this case, as per the guidelines in the Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics.

Question 153

38 A 2-day old baby girl, full term was delivered in a relocation area and you were one of the attending volunteer doctor. How would you instruct the mother on proper breastfeeding?
A. The mother should be comfortable, the infants head and body should be straight.
B. The mother should be comfortable, the infants head and body should be positioned away from the breast.
C. The mother can lie down comfortably and have the infant crawl into her breast.
D. The mother allows the infant to suck continuously in one breast alone

Answer 153

A. The mother should be comfortable, the infant’s head and body should be straight.
Rationale: Proper breastfeeding technique involves ensuring the mother is comfortable and the baby’s head and body are aligned straight to facilitate effective latch and swallowing.

Question 154

39A good attachment is described as:
A. Tight pursed lips, space between breast and nose
B. Lips curled in, nose and chin touching breast
C. Lips widely flanged out, nose and chin touching breast
D. Space between chin and breast, infants lower lip pulled in

Answer 154

C. Lips widely flanged out, nose and chin touching breast.
Rationale: A good attachment for breastfeeding includes the baby’s lips widely flanged out, with the nose and chin touching the breast, allowing for efficient and effective nursing.

Question 155

40. Which of the following vitamins resembles with hormone ?
    A. Vitamin K
    B. Vitamin A
    C. Vitamin D
    D. Vitamin E

Answer 155

C. Vitamin D.
Rationale: Vitamin D functions similarly to a hormone and is involved in the regulation of calcium and phosphate metabolism in the body.

Question 156

41 A 3 year old boy eats a balanced diet consisting of the Go, Grow, Glow foods. How much calories per kg body weight is he taking daily if his diet consists of 10 gms of meat, 2 gms of sugar, and 5 gms of fats?
A. 1000 kcal
B. 1200 kcal
C. 1300 kcal
D. 1400 kcal

Answer 156

Question 157

42. A tool that is used to estimate the daily average intake of an individual and can be used as a guideline to avoid deficiency is:
    A. Adequate Intake
    B. Recommended Dietary Allowance
    C. Estimated Average Requirement
    D. Dietary Reference Intake

Answer 157

B. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA).
Rationale: RDA is the average daily dietary intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97–98%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group and is used to guide daily intake to prevent deficiencies.

Question 158

43. One of the following does NOT affect the recommended dietary intake of an individual:
    A. Gender
    B. Physical Activity
    C. Cognitive Function
    D. Age

Answer 158

C. Cognitive Function.
Rationale: Recommended dietary intake is typically affected by gender, physical activity, and age, but not directly by cognitive function.

Question 159

44. One of the potential untoward effects of Breastfeeding from mother to infant is: *
    A. Transmission of Covid 19
    B. Transmission of HIV
    C. Transmission of Seizure Disorder
    D. Transmission of Metabolic disorders

Answer 159

B. Transmission of HIV.
Rationale: HIV can be transmitted from mother to infant through breastfeeding. It’s one of the known risks, especially if the mother is HIV-positive and not on antiretroviral therapy.

Question 160

45. This type of cow’s milk formula should not be given during the first year of life:
    A. Whole cow’s milk
    B. Soy based formula
    C. Hydrolyzed formula
    D. DHA and ARA fortified formula

Answer 160

A. Whole cow’s milk.
Rationale: Whole cow’s milk is not recommended for infants under one year of age due to its high protein and electrolyte levels, which can stress the infant’s immature kidneys and lacks the appropriate amounts of iron, vitamin C, and other nutrients.

Question 161

46. Which vitamin are some time beneficial viral respiratory infections ?
    A. Vitamin C
    B. Vitamin A
    C. Vitamin K
    D. Vitamin D

Answer 161

D. Vitamin D.
Rationale: Vitamin D has been studied for its potential benefits in reducing the risk of viral respiratory tract infections, including its role in immune function.

Question 162

47 Which of the following vitamins is given along with isoniazid (INH) in treatment of tuberculosis?
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Ascorbic acid

Answer 162

C. Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6).
Rationale: Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) is given alongside isoniazid (INH) to prevent the development of peripheral neuropathy, a side effect of INH therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis.