LE1 - ped Flashcards
- An infant is born precipitously to a mother without prenatal care and you are requested to determine the infant’s gestational age. Of the following, which physical finding (Ballard maturational score) is most indicative of a preterm infant?
a. veins and tributaries are seen over the abdomen
b. long lanugo is present on the back
c. palpable breast tissue of < 1 cm
d. soft ear pinnae, easily folded
a. veins and tributaries are seen over the abdomen
- A mother presents in active labor, she did not receive prenatal care and is unsure when her last menstrual period was. Using ultrasound, the estimated gestational age is 32 weeks. Which of the following best describes the average birth weight of a 30-week gestation infant?
A. 1000 g
B. 1500 g
C. 2000 g
D. 2500 g
B. 1500 g.
Pre-term: <37 weeks
Term: 37-41 6/7 weeks
Post- term: >42 weeks
Term Infant (Weight Classification)
• Large for Gestational Age (LGA): Infants weighing ≥ 4000 g at term are considered larger than average for their gestational age. • Appropriate for Gestational Age (AGA): Infants with a birth weight between 2,500 g and 3,999 g are within the normal range for their gestational age. • Small for Gestational Age (SGA): Infants weighing less than 2,500 g at term are smaller than the average for their gestational age. This can be further classified as: • Low Birth Weight: Infants weighing less than 1,500 g. • Extreme Low Birth Weight: Infants weighing less than 1,000 g.
- On a discharge examination you hear a heart murmur and consult the cardiologist. An echocardiogram was notable for a small ventricular septal defect and a patent foramen ovale. You are notitying the parents of the results and explain to them the role of the foramen ovale in fetal life. Which of the following statements about fetal circulation is correct?
a. Blood flows through the foramen ovale from the right atrium to the left atrium.
b. Blood flows through the foramen ovale from the left ventricle to the right ventricle.
c. Blood flows through the foramen ovale from the left atrium to the right atrium.
d. Blood flows through the foramen ovale from the right ventricle to the left ventricle.
a. Blood flows through the foramen ovale from the right atrium to the left atrium.
In fetal life, the foramen ovale allows blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs by moving directly from the right atrium to the left atrium, ensuring that oxygenated blood received from the placenta is distributed to the body.
- A full-term newborn has a diffuse rash on the day of anticipated discharge. You diagnose erythema toxicum and must discuss this finding with the parents. Which of state the following statements is true? *
a. more common among term than premature infants
b. usually associated with fever and a general toxic
c. uncommon before the fifth day of life
d. usually associated with an elevated peripheral white blood cell count
a. more common among term than premature infants.
Erythema toxicum is a common rash seen in newborns, typically appearing within the first week of life and resolving without treatment. It is indeed more common in full-term infants.
- A mother is hospitalized with high blood pressure at 35 weeks gestation. The perinatologist recommends obtaining a lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio of the amniotic fluid to aid in the decision for delivery. For which of the following organ systems does the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio indicate maturity?
a. central nervous system
b. lungs
c. liver
d. Kidneys
b. lungs.
This ratio increases as the fetal lungs mature, indicating a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome if the infant is born.
- A mother has brought her infant into your office for the first newborn visit. She is very concerned about a pigmented skin lesion that was not discussed with her in the hospital. Which of the following is true of pigmented lesions known as slate gray spots? *
a. They are identified in over 81% of Asian infants and 90% African infants
b. They consist of small, well-demarcated lesions approximately 2 mm in diameter.
c. Malignant degeneration is common.
d. The most common site of occurrence is the nape of the neck.
a. They are identified in over 81% of Asian infants and 90% African infants.
Explanation:
- Pigmented lesions known as slate gray spots are also called Mongolian spots.
- They are characterized by slate-gray to blue-black lesions.
- Mongolian spots are most commonly found in infants of African and Asian descent, with approximately 90% of African infants and 81% of Asian infants affected.
- They are less common in Caucasian infants, with a prevalence of about 9.6%.
- Mongolian spots typically appear over the lumbosacral area and buttocks but can occur in other areas as well.
- These spots result from the accumulation of melanocytes within the dermis.
- They are benign and generally fade away by the age of 7 years.
- They are not associated with malignant degeneration, and they do not consist of small, well-demarcated lesions approximately 2 mm in diameter.
- The most common site of occurrence is not the nape of the neck; instead, it is typically over the lumbosacral area and buttocks.
- As a medical student in the newborn nursery, you correctly identify a scalp swelling as a cephalhematoma. Your attending physician then asks you to describe how you would differentiate this from caput succedaneum. Which of the following best describes the way to differentiate a cephalohematoma from caput succedaneum? *
a. absence of a history of prolonged or difficult labor
b. limitation of swelling to the area over one bone
c. a normal neurologic examination
d. a prolonged prothrombin time
b. limitation of swelling to the area over one bone.
Cephalohematoma is confined to the limits of one cranial bone due to the collection of blood under the periosteum, whereas caput succedaneum is a more diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines.
Cephalohematoma = 1 cranial BONE
Caput succedaneum = DIFFUSE
- You are counselling a mother with an abnormal serum alpha- fetoprotein test during a follow-up prenatal visit. The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) lab test is most useful in diagnosing which of the following? *
a. duodenal atresia
b. clubfoot
c. cleft lip and palate
d. neural tube defects
d. neural tube defects.
The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is primarily used to screen for neural tube defects in the fetus, such as spina bifida and anencephaly.
- A newborn infant presents with skin lesions typical of erythema toxicum and you wish to confirm the diagnosis. Wright stain of the contents from a lesion of erythema toxicum usually will reveal which of the following cells?
a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. lymphocytes
d. polymorphonuclear leukocytes
b. eosinophils.
Wright stain of the contents from a lesion of erythema toxicum typically reveals eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and responses to parasites, but in this case, are part of the benign condition erythema toxicum.
- You are evaluating an infant born at 39 weeks gestation weighing 2000 grams. Which of the following would be the appropriate classification of this infant?
a. Term birth and appropriate for gestational age
b. Preterm birth and appropriate for gestational age
c. Term birth and small for gestational age
d. Preterm birth and small for gestational age
c. Term birth and small for gestational age (SGA).
Pre-term: <37 weeks
Term: 37 to 41 6/7 weeks
Post-term: >42 weeks
LGA: > 4kg
AGA: 2.5 to 3.9 kg
SGA: <2kg
Low Birth Weight: Infants weighing less than 1,500 g.
Extreme Low Birth Weight: Infants weighing less than 1,000 g.
- All newborns have difficulty with exposure to cold environment. To control temperature the following should be done EXCEPT?
A. Dry infant
B. Wrap in dry warm blanket
C. Aluminum wrap foil
D. Well insulated hot water
D. Well insulated hot water.
Using well-insulated hot water to control temperature could pose a risk of burns and is not a recommended practice for warming newborns. The other options are standard practices to prevent hypothermia.
- A 2 day old term infant is being evaluated before discharge from the nursery. The parent are concerned about a skin rash on his face. Which of the following skin findings is most likely to be associated with underlying pathology?
a. Erythema toxicum
b. Salmon patch
c. Portwine stain
d. Milia
c. Portwine stain.
A port-wine stain is a vascular malformation that can be associated with underlying neurovascular and eye conditions, particularly when located on the face.
- The normal heart rate of a newborn infant ranged between:
a. 90 and 100 beats /minute
b. 100 and 120 beats / minute
c. 120 and 160 beats / minute
d. 160 and 180 beats / minute
c. 120 and 160 beats / minute.
The normal heart rate for a newborn infant is between 120 and 160 beats per minute when awake.
- A premature infant should have:
a. Long extremities
b. Wrinkled skin
c. More brown fat
d. Transparent gelatinous skin
d. Transparent gelatinous skin.
Premature infants often have underdeveloped skin, which can appear more transparent and gelatinous compared to term infants.
- True of hypothermia in newborn include all EXCEPT
a. Temperature < 35 C
b. Can be an indication of sepsis
c. Can lead to hypoxemia
d. Can lead to metabolic alkalosis
d. Can lead to metabolic alkalosis.
Hypothermia in newborns typically leads to metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis, as a result of increased anaerobic metabolism and decreased peripheral perfusion
- A normal well term newborn infant should have one of the following
a. HR of 100-120 beats per minute
b. Apgar score of 4 - 6
c. Body temperature of 34.5 to 35.5 C
d. Respiratory rate of 30 - 60 cycles per minute
d. Respiratory rate of 30 - 60 cycles per minute.
A normal respiratory rate for a well, term newborn infant falls within this range. The other options are not typical for a healthy term newborn.
Newborn:
HR: 120-160 bpm
APGAR: 7-10
Temp: 36.5 to 37.5 C
RR: 30-60 bpm
- Temperature regulation of newborn involved via all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
a. Fetal complete heart block
b. Fetal hypoxia
c. Maternal use of beta blockers
d. Maternal systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Fetal hypoxia
- Biophysical score assesses fetal well being which include all of the following PARAMETERS EXCEPT
a. Fetal breathing
b. Amniotic fluid index
c. Fetal blood pressure
d. Fetal body movement
e. Fetal heart tone
c. Fetal blood pressure.
Biophysical Profile Components
* Fetal Breathing Movements
* Fetal Body Movements
* Fetal Tone
* Amniotic Fluid Volume
- Fetal heart rate of more than 160 via FHR monitoring indicates:
a. Fetal complete heart block
b. Fetal hypoxia
c. Maternal use of beta blockers
d. Maternal systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Fetal hypoxia.
Abnormal FHR Patterns and Implications
* Baseline Tachycardia (>160 bpm): Can indicate maternal fever, infection, fetal hypoxia, maternal use of sympathomimetic medication, or hyperthyroidism.
* Severe Tachycardia (>200 bpm): May suggest fetal dysrhythmias or supraventricular arrhythmias.
* Bradycardia (<110 bpm): Could indicate fetal complete heart block associated with congenital heart disease (CHD) or maternal systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), or be a side effect of maternal use of beta blockers.
- Accelerations are indicative of fetal well being. Late deceleration noted on FHR monitoring indicates: *
a. Fetal head compression
b. Umbilical cord compressions
c. Transient fetal hypoxic episodes
d. Fetal hypoxia from uteroplacental insufficiency
d. Fetal hypoxia from uteroplacental insufficiency.
Late Decelerations:
* With beat-to-beat variability, suggest a sudden insult to a fetus that is unable to compensate physiologically.
* With decreased or absent variability, indicate fetal hypoxia from uteroplacental insufficiency.
Decelerations last longer, begin sooner following the onset of uterine contraction, and take longer to return to baseline.
21 LOW maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (MSAF) in early 2nd trimester of pregnancy is associated with all of the following EXCEPT *
a. Neural tube defects
b. IUGR
c. Trisomy 21 or 18
d. Incorrect gestational age estimates
a. Neural tube defects.
Low MSAFP is not associated with neural tube defects; high levels are. Low levels are associated with chromosomal abnormalities like Trisomy 21 or 18, among others.
22 In the antenatal screening for diagnosis, treatment and prevention of fetal disease using Quadruple test include what?
a. Unconjugated estriol levels
b. Beta -HCG
c. Alpha fetoprotein
d. Inhibin -A
e. AOTA
All of the options listed (a. Unconjugated estriol levels, b. Beta-HCG, c. Alpha fetoprotein, d. Inhibin-A) are components of the Quadruple test, which is used for antenatal screening.
MSAFP/QUAD SCREEN FOR ANEUPLOIDY
23 What diagnostic technique is widely useful in determining viability and number of fetuses, location of placenta, assess of gestational age and detection of fetal malformations? *
a. CT scan
b. Amniocentesis
c. Fetal Ultrasonography
d. Antenatal MRI
c. Fetal Ultrasonography.
Ultrasound is the primary diagnostic tool for assessing fetal viability, number of fetuses, placental location, gestational age, and detection of fetal malformations.
- A newborn can take up to how many hours to transition from placental support to extrauterine support?
a. 2 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
c. 12 hours.
Neonatal transition is a process of physiologic change in the newborn infant that begins in utero as the neonate prepares for transition from intrauterine placental support to extrauterine self-maintenance, which can take up to 12 hours.
Transition begins before delivery.
- As pregnancy advances the concentration of each of the following constituents of amniotic fluid increases EXCEPT *
a. Electrolytes
b. Estriol
c. Phospholipids
d. Creatinine
d. Creatinine.
The concentration of creatinine in amniotic fluid does not typically increase as pregnancy advances. Creatinine levels are more reflective of fetal kidney function. The other constituents listed generally increase as pregnancy progresses.
- The fall of peripheral vascular resistance immediately after birth is caused by:
a. Increase in pulmonary blood flow
b. Increase in PaCO2
c. Initiation of respiration
d. Increase in PO2
c. Initiation of respiration.
The initiation of respiration at birth is a critical event that leads to significant physiological changes, including a decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR). This decrease in PVR is primarily due to pulmonary vasodilation as the lungs expand and begin gas exchange, moving away from placental dependency. The onset of breathing not only facilitates the increase in oxygen (PO2) but also significantly impacts the circulatory system’s dynamics by increasing pulmonary blood flow and altering systemic vascular resistance. This transition is crucial for the closure of fetal shunts (like the ductus arteriosus) and the proper establishment of neonatal circulation patterns.
- The rooting reflex is present by gestational age of:
a.30 weeks
b. 36 weeks
c. 34 weeks
d. 32 weeks
d. 32 weeks
This aligns with the onset information given, indicating that the rooting reflex, which helps an infant turn its head toward anything that strokes the cheek or mouth, signaling the need to feed, starts to develop around 32 weeks of gestation.
Rooting Reflex
Onset: 32 weeks gestation
Fully Developed: 36 weeks gestation
Duration: Becomes less prominent after 1 month
- Which of following skin findings in newborn may NOT resolve spontaneously?
a. Erythema toxicum
b. Stork bites
c. Portwine stain
d. Capillary hemangioma
c. Portwine stain.
A port-wine stain is a vascular malformation that does not spontaneously resolve and often requires treatment if intervention is desired.
- Thermoneutral environment is the environmental temperature at which the neonate normal core body temperature by: *
a. Mobilizing free fatty acids in the body
b. Shivering thermogenesis
c. Utilizing glycogen stores in the body
d. Minimum oxygen consumption
d. Minimum oxygen consumption.
A thermoneutral environment allows a neonate to maintain its body temperature without an increase in metabolic rate and oxygen consumption.
- Major function of surfactant phospholipids for lung maturity
a. Increase the tendency of the lung to collapse
b. Lubricate the alveoli
c. Increase the alveolar surface tension
d. Decrease the work of breathing
d. Decrease the work of breathing.
Surfactant decreases the surface tension at the air-liquid interface of the alveoli, preventing their collapse during expiration and significantly reducing the work of breathing.
- A newborn at 5 minutes of life is noted to be acrocyanotic, a heart rate of 160, facial grimace on stimulation ,active and with good lusty cry. The APGAR score is:
a. 4
b. 6
с. 8
d. 10
c. 8.
Color (Appearance): Acrocyanosis - Score 1
Respiration: Good, crying - Score 2
Heart Rate (Pulse): 160/min - Score 2
Reflex Response (Grimace): Facial grimace on stimulation - Score 1
Tone (Activity): Active and with good lusty cry - Score 2
A score of 7 to 10 is generally considered normal, indicating that the baby is in good health.
Scores of 4 to 6 may require some resuscitative measures, while a score of 3 or below is a sign of critical condition, necessitating immediate resuscitation and medical intervention.
- On physical examination of a newborn infant 4 hours after birth, is noted to have non-tender swelling of the presenting part that does not cross the suture line.
a. Cephalhematoma
b. Caput succedaneum
c. Skull fracture
d. Encephalocoele
a. Cephalhematoma.
Cephalhematoma is characterized by a collection of blood between the skull bone and its periosteum, so it does not cross suture lines and appears several hours after birth.
- The palmar grasp is gone by 4 months of age and present by gestational age of:
a. 34 weeks
b. 32 weeks
c. 28 weeks
d. 30 weeks
c. 28 weeks
This means the reflex starts to appear at 28 weeks of gestation, aligning with the onset information.
Palmar Grasp Reflex
Onset: 28 weeks gestation
Fully Developed: 32 weeks gestation
Duration: 2-3 months
- Early clamping of the umbilical cord may lead to all of the following except:
a. Poor peripheral perfusion
b. Cardiac murmur
c. Improves glomerular filtration
d. Anemia
c. Improves glomerular filtration.
Early clamping of the umbilical cord is not associated with improved glomerular filtration. It may lead to anemia due to reduced transfusion of placental blood, among other potential issues, but not directly to improved kidney function.
- Assessment of gestational age using the New BALLARD scoring of PHYSICAL MATURITY does not include one of the following
a. lanugo hair at the back
b. skin
c. palmar surface
d. ear cartilage
e. eyelid opening
c. Palmar surface.
The New Ballard Score does not include an assessment of the palmar surface as part of its criteria for evaluating physical maturity.
PHYSICAL MATURITY SIGN
* SKIN
* LANUGO
* PLANTAR SURFACE
* BREAST
* EYE / EAR
* GENITALS (M/F)
- The NEUROMUSCULAR MATURITY that is NOT included in the new Ballards scoring system.
a. Posture
b. Square window
c. Scarf sign
d. Heel to shoulder maneuver
e. Popliteal angle
d. Heel to shoulder maneuver
The New Ballard Score assesses neuromuscular maturity through various signs including posture, square window (wrist flexion), arm recoil, popliteal angle, and scarf sign. The heel to shoulder maneuver is not part of the neuromuscular maturity assessment in the New Ballard Score.
NEUROMUSCULAR MATURITY SIGN
* POSTURE
* SQUARE WINDOW (Wrist)
* ARM RECOIL
* POPLITEAL ANGLE
* SCARF SIGN
* HEEL TO EAR
- Brown fat is the primary source of heat production which is broken down into glycerol and fatty acids producing heat in the newborn. Brown fat is found at:
a. nape of the neck, axilla, and around the kidneys
b. Arms and legs
c. Shoulder and back
d. Trunk and face
a. nape of the neck, axilla, and around the kidneys
Brown fat, which is crucial for thermogenesis in newborns, is predominantly located in areas like the nape of the neck, axillae (armpits), and around the kidneys, as well as in the mediastinal and interscapular regions.
- It is normal for the newborn infant to loose how many percent of weight in the first 4- 5 days of life?
a. 1-3 %
b. 5-10%
с. 10 -15%
d. 15-20
b. 5-10%
Newborn Weight Changes
Weight Loss: It is normal for a baby to lose up to 10% of their birth weight within the first 3 to 5 days of life.
Weight Regain: The baby should regain or exceed their birth weight by 2 weeks of age.
- The best sleep position of newborn babies to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is:
a. Lay face down to prevent choking
b. Lay babies on back
c. Putting babies on its right side
d. Putting babies on its left side
b. Lay babies on back
The “Back to Sleep” campaign emphasizes placing babies on their backs for sleep as the safest position to reduce the risk of SIDS. This position has been shown to significantly decrease the incidence of SIDS.
- The following risk factors in the antepartum period include all EXCEPT: *
a. Multiple gestation
b. Mother age between 19 and 35 years
c. Inadequate prenatal acre
d. Post-term gestation
b. Mother age between 19 and 35 years
Being a mother aged between 19 and 35 years is generally considered to be within the lower-risk category for adverse pregnancy outcomes. Risk factors typically include very young maternal age (teen pregnancy) or advanced maternal age (over 35), multiple gestation, inadequate prenatal care, and post-term gestation.
- Passage of meconium usually occurs within the 12 hr after birth. It is expected that 99% of term babies and 95% of preterm infants pass meconium within: *
a. 24 hrs of birth
b. 48 hrs of birth
c. 72 hrs of birth
d. 96 hrs of birth
a. 24 hrs of birth
49 Postnatal cardiovascular changes seen in a newborn infant, except:
a. Closure of foramen ovale
b. Closure of the ductus arteriosus
c. Pulmonary vascular resistance increases
d. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases
c. Pulmonary vascular resistance increases.
After birth, pulmonary vascular resistance decreases as the lungs expand and begin gas exchange, facilitating the closure of the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus as part of the normal transition from fetal to neonatal circulation.
- One of the following is NOT characteristic of fetal circulation:
A. Ductus arteriosus is patent
B. No exchange of gases in fetal lungs
C. Patent foramen ovale
D. Ductus venosus closes
D. Ductus venosus closes.
In fetal circulation, the ductus venosus is patent, allowing blood to bypass the liver. It closes after birth, not during fetal life.
- Which of the following in amniotic fluid indicates fetal pulmonary maturity?
a. phosphatidylglycerol concentration
b. lecithin concentration
c. neutral lipids concentration
d. lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio
d. lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio.
The lecithin to sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a measure used to assess fetal lung maturity, with a ratio of 2:1 or greater typically indicating sufficient surfactant production for adequate lung function at birth.
- The child who TRANSFER object from hand to hand and BABBLES has achieved the developmental age of
a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months
b. 6 months.
These milestones are typical for a 6-month-old infant.
AGE 6 MONTHS
* Gross Motor: Sits momentarily.
* Fine Motor: Transfers objects.
* Social Skills: Shows likes and dislikes.
* Language: Babbles.
- Average head circumference of a 1 year old child:
a. 40 cm
b. 47 cm
c. 55 cm
D. 60cm
b. 47 cm.
The average head circumference for a 1-year-old child is approximately 47 cm.
For months 1-4 : (1.2 cm)
Month 1: 35 cm + (1.2 cm * 1) = 36.2 cm
Month 2: 36.2 cm + (1.2 cm * 1) = 37.4 cm
Month 3: 37.4 cm + (1.2 cm * 1) = 38.6 cm
Month 4: 38.6 cm + (1.2 cm * 1) = 39.8 cm
For months 5-12: (0.6 cm)
Month 5: 39.8 cm + (0.6 cm * 1) = 40.4 cm
Month 6: 40.4 cm + (0.6 cm * 1) = 41.0 cm
Month 7: 41.0 cm + (0.6 cm * 1) = 41.6 cm
Month 8: 41.6 cm + (0.6 cm * 1) = 42.2 cm
Month 9: 42.2 cm + (0.6 cm * 1) = 42.8 cm
Month 10: 42.8 cm + (0.6 cm * 1) = 43.4 cm
Month 11: 43.4 cm + (0.6 cm * 1) = 44.0 cm
Month 12: 44.0 cm + (0.6 cm * 1) = 44.6 cm
- Approximate weight of a 4 years old child:
a. 12 kg
b. 14 kg
c. 16 kg
d. 18 kg
c. 16 kg.
The average weight for a 4-year-old child is approximately 16 kg.
Weight= Age in years x 2 + 8
- The most advanced language function that can expected of a 2 years old child:
a. combine 2 different words
b. babble
c. speak several recognizable words
d. speak in complete sentence
a. combine 2 different words.
A 2-year-old child can typically combine two words to form simple sentences, reflecting their developing language skills.
- A one month old infant can do all of the following, EXCEPT
a. tonic neck posture predominates in supine
b. follows moving object
c. head lag on pull to a sitting position
d. listen to voices, coos
d. listen to voices, coos.
- A 7 months old baby is expected to have all of the following patterns of the behavior EXCEPT:
a. bangs and shake a rattle
b. transfer objects from hand to hand
c. babbles and enjoy mirror
d. Plays simple ball games
d. Plays simple ball games.
Playing simple ball games, such as rolling a ball back and forth , typically develops later in infancy, closer to the end of the first year or during the toddler years.
- Birth weight of an infant usually doubles at:
a. 6 months of age
b. 1 year of age
c. 2 years of age
d 3 years of age
a. 6 months of age.
Birth weight:
* Doubles at 6 months of age.
* Triples at 12 months.
* Quadruples at 2 ½ years.
- A 4 year old child can be expected to have the following developmental milestones: *
a. skips
b. draws triangle
c. name 4 colors
d. hops on one foot
d. hops on one foot.
By the age of 4, children typically can hop on one foot, a skill that reflects their growing balance and coordination.
- You are observing a 4-years old Filipino pupils in Kindergarten school. The fine motor developmental skills that these kids can do is their ability to:
a. imitate a circle
b. copy a square
c. write alphabet
d. draw a person with complete clothing
b. copy a square.
At 4 years old, children’s fine motor skills have developed to the point where they can copy squares and other basic shapes.
- A developmental normal child who can unbutton clothing and put on shoes, ride a tricycle, build tower of 10 cubes and stands momentarily on one foot are observed most likely at this age:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
c. 3 years.
These milestones are typical for a 3-year-old child, reflecting both fine and gross motor skills as well as balance.
- Expressive language like cooing is observed at 3 months of age and babbling is achieved at:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 10 months
d. 12 months
b. 6 months.
Babbling typically begins around 6 months of age as infants experiment with producing sounds.
- A child who sit unsupported by own hands and who pulls to standing position, waves bye-bye or plays peek-a-boo
a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months
d. 10 months
- An infant who walks alone with one hand held, says “Mama” or “Dada” in specific way has reach a developmental age at: *
a. 1 year old
b. 2 years old
c. 3 years old
d. 4 years old
a. 1 year old.
These milestones, including walking with assistance and using specific words, are typical for a 1-year-old.
- Regarding the language skills, a 2-year-old child can do which of the following?
a. Count
b. Name colors
c. Know body parts
d.Name pictures
d. Name pictures.
A 2-year-old child is typically able to name familiar pictures and objects and is in the process of rapidly expanding their vocabulary.
a. Count: 3y +
b. Name colors: 5y
c. Know body parts: 1.5y
d.Name pictures: 1.5y
- A 10 year old boy was referred to a Pediatric Neurologist because of weakness and was assessed with a Grade 4 muscle strength. How will you describe the muscle strength of this patient? *
a. Normal
b. Full range of motion against gravity with some resistance
c. Full range of motion against gravity
d. Flicker or slight contraction
b. Full range of motion against gravity with some resistance.
Grade 4 muscle strength indicates that the patient can move the affected limb against gravity and some resistance but not against full resistance.
