Gastro-HPB Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary function and source of gastrin?

A

stimulate gastric acid release, G cells

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2
Q

What is the stimulation, primary function and source of CCK?

A

instestinal aa etc, stimulate GB contraction, I cells in jejunum/ileum

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3
Q

What is the stimulation, primary function and source of secretin?

A

intraluminal acid, stimualte pancreatic HCO3 release, S cells in duodenum/jeunum

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4
Q

What is the stimulation, primary function and source of somatostatin?

A

intraluminal fat/bile salt, inhibit gastric acid, gastrin, pancreatic enzyme/hormone release, D cells in pancreas. also inhibit GH release

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5
Q

Where is squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus mostly found and what are the risk factors?

A

Upper 2/3 of oesophagus. smoking, alcohol, achalasia

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6
Q

Where is adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus mostly found and what are the risk factors?

A

Lower 1/3 of oesophagus. Barret’s oesophagus/GORD

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7
Q

What investigation is best for staging and potential treatment of oesophageal cancer

A

Endoscopic ultrasound

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8
Q

What is the key pathological feature behind Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

excess gastrin levels from gastrinoma causing severe upper GI tract ulceration

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9
Q

Screening test for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

raised fasting gastrin level

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10
Q

What HLA antigen is Coeliac’s associated with?

A

HLA-DQ2/HLA-DA8

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11
Q

What is the name and inheritance pattern of the genetic cause of aggressive colorectal cancer and ovarian cancer?

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer/Lynch syndrome. Autosomal dominant

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12
Q

What is used for rescue therapy in acute severe IBD flare ups and what are the indications for this?

A

Infliximab, a TNF-alpha antagonist, is indicated when:
1. Persistent colon distension
2. >8 bowel movement/day
3. CRP > 45

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13
Q

What is used for maintenance therapy in Crohn’s and UC, respectively?

A

Crohn’s = azathioprine/mercaptopurine
UC = aminosalicylate TOP/PO

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14
Q

What needs to be checked before starting azathioprine or mercaptopurine?

A

TPMT activity

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15
Q

What is the first line choice to induce remission in Crohn’s and UC?

A

Crohn’s = corticosteroids
UC = aminosalicylates

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16
Q

What is used to manage diarrhoea post-colectomy in Crohn’s?

A

Cholestyramine

17
Q

What is the cause of Whipple’s disease and what HLA antigen is it associated to?

A

T. Whippelli, HLA-B27

18
Q

What is the diagnostic feature and treatment for Whipple’s disease?

A

macrophages with PAS granules on jejunal biopsy, co-trimoxazole

19
Q

What is the key pathological feature of angiodysplasia and how does it therefore present?

A

Vascular deformity of the GI tract. Present as upper or lower GI bleed

20
Q

How is SB overgrowth syndrome diagnosed and treated?

A

Hydrogen breath test, rifampicin

21
Q

What is the mechanism of Terlipressin?

A

vasopressor receptor antagonist - promote splanchnic vasoconstriction

22
Q

What is the SAAG cut-off for a transudate ascites and what are these caused by?

A

11g/L, portal hypertension

23
Q

auto-Ab associated with PBC?

A

AMA

24
Q

first line investigation in PBC?

A

USS liver/MRCP to r/o extrahepatic biliary obstruction

25
Q

Which viral hepatitis is particularly dangerous in pregnancy?

A

Hepatitis E

26
Q

What serology findings would you expect to see in the following phases of Hepatitis B?
1. Acute infection
2. Chronic infection
3. Previous infection/carrier
4. Vaccinated

A
  1. HBsAg, HBV DVA
  2. HBsAg, anti-HBc IgG
  3. anti-HBs, anti-HBc IgG
  4. anti-HBs