Fundamentals of clinical laboratory techniques Flashcards

1
Q

define pathology

A

The science of the causes and effects of diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does Clinical Biochemistry study?

A

The measurement of chemicals (natural & unnatural) in blood, urine, and other body fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the focus of Haematology?

A

The study of blood cells and the tissues that make them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does Blood Bank Transfusion Medicine involve?

A

Analyzing a patient’s blood group and providing safe and appropriate blood or blood components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does Immunology study?

A

The quantity and function of components of the immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does Microbiology focus on?

A

Infection (bacteria, viruses, parasites) and how to treat them, including the measurement of antibiotic levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does Histopathology (Cell Pathology) examine?

A

The nature of cells and their organization into tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does Molecular Genetics detect?

A

Human, tumor, bacterial, or viral genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does Clinical Biochemistry investigate?

A

The biochemical investigation of bodily fluids such as blood, urine, and CSF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are analytes measured in the biochemistry laboratory?

A

To diagnose and monitor various medical conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many routine assays are performed in the biochemistry department?

A

More than 80 different routine assays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many tests are referred to other laboratories?

A

More than 300 different tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is Clinical Biochemistry important?

A

Many illnesses are reflected in disturbances in the body’s chemistry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does Chemical Pathology connect science and medicine?

A

By analyzing the chemistry of bodily fluids to assess organ function, diagnose diseases, and recommend treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an example of Clinical Biochemistry in diagnosing disease?

A

High blood glucose levels may indicate diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What regulates blood glucose levels?

A

The hormone insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens if the body doesn’t produce enough insulin?

A

Diabetes may develop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two main approaches to diagnosis in Clinical Biochemistry?

A

Classical medical processes and screening/preventative medicine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an example of a screening program in preventative medicine?

A

Newborn blood spot screening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does aetiology focus on in Clinical Biochemistry?

A

Identifying the underlying defect causing a disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 key questions in understanding aetiology?

A
  • How does the defect lead to pathology?
  • What secondary pathology might result?
  • What is the appropriate treatment strategy?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is guided therapy in Clinical Biochemistry?

A

Treatment decisions based on genetic susceptibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does ISE stand for?

A

Ion Selective Electrode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the ISE method measure?

A

The concentration of sodium, potassium, and chloride.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of measurement does ISE use?

A

Potentiometric measurement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What sample types are used in ISE testing?

A

Serum, plasma, urine, and other fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How long does an ISE test take?

A

Only 30 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the function of the Cobas ISE module?

A

It is dedicated to electrolyte measurement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many tests can the ISE module process per hour?

A

Up to 1800 tests per hour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the two main components of the ISE system?

A

An ion selective electrode and a reference electrode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What happens to the sample before measurement in ISE?

A

The sample is diluted, and the electrodes are placed within it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of the ion selective electrode’s membrane?

A

It allows only the ion of interest to pass through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What occurs across the membrane in the ISE method?

A

Ion exchange, leading to the generation of an electrical potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does the generated electrical potential represent?

A

The composition of the sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are 3 examples of things that can cause low sodium?

A
  • Heart failure
  • Head injury
  • Medications eg diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are 3 examples of things that can cause low potassium?

A
  • Inadequate nutrition
  • Vomiting / diarrhoea
  • Medications eg. diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are 3 examples of things that can cause high potassium?

A
  • Spurious (old or haemolysed sample)
  • Kidney dysfunction
  • Addison’s disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are 3 examples of things that can cause high sodium?

A
  • Inadequate water intake
  • Diabetes insipidus
  • Water loss eg.diarrhoea, vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of ISE method does the Cobas ISE use?

A

Indirect ISE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How does indirect ISE differ from direct ISE?

A

Indirect ISE dilutes the sample in a buffer before measurement, while direct ISE does not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where is direct ISE commonly used?

A

In most point-of-care analyzers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the advantages of indirect ISE?

A
  • Requires only a small sample.
  • Less expensive than direct ISE.
  • Has a large dynamic range.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a disadvantage of indirect ISE?

A

It can produce erroneous results if the patient has high levels of proteins or lipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What effect does an increased solid phase have on sodium measurement in indirect ISE?

A

It can cause a falsely low sodium concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why does an increased solid phase lead to false low sodium readings?

A

There is less water in the sample, reducing the apparent sodium concentration after dilution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an example of a condition that can increase the solid phase in blood?

A

Multiple myeloma (due to paraprotein production).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the term for falsely low sodium results due to high solid phase levels?

A

Pseudohyponatremia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What types of assays does the Roche c702 module measure?

A

General chemistry assays such as urea, creatinine, LFTs, calcium, magnesium, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How long does each test take on the Roche c702 module?

A

Each test takes about 10 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many tests can the Roche c702 module process per hour?

A

Up to 2000 tests per hour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What types of samples can be used on the Roche c702 module?

A

Serum, plasma, urine, CSF, stool samples, and fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What technology does the Roche c702 module use to measure analytes?

A

Photometric technology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How are organic and inorganic compounds measured in photometric assays?

A

By determining the absorbance of wavelengths of light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What happens when light enters the photometer in a photometric assay?

A

The light hits a diffraction grating, which splits it into different wavelengths.

55
Q

How are the wavelengths of light detected in a photometric assay?

A

The wavelengths are reflected onto a fixed array of 12 photodiodes, each detecting light at an individual wavelength.

56
Q

What type of analytes are measured using photometric assays?

A

Creatinine (kidney function), bilirubin (liver function), glucose, magnesium.

57
Q

What wavelength change occurs in the glucose hexokinase reaction?

58
Q

How is glucose concentration determined in the hexokinase reaction?

A

By measuring the change in absorption at 340 nm, which is proportional to glucose concentration.

59
Q

What are the main limitations in photometric assays?

A

Interferents that cause changes in wavelength.

60
Q

What factors can affect sample integrity in photometric assays?

A

Drugs, dyes, high levels of proteins, lipids, or cells in the sample.

61
Q

What other factors can affect measurements in photometric assays?

A

Clots or air bubbles.

62
Q

How is sample integrity monitored in the chemistry module?

A

Detection system for clots, bubbles, and liquid level; measurement of serum indices.

63
Q

What are serum indices?

A

Measurements performed on every sample analyzed on the chemistry module.

64
Q

How are icteric, haemolysed, and lipaemic samples identified?

A

By absorbance measurements at different wavelengths of light.

65
Q

How do interferents affect analyte measurements?

A

They have variable effects on the measurement of different analytes.

66
Q

What happens if a serum index measurement breaches a threshold for an assay?

A

The IT system removes the result as it is not accurate.

67
Q

Why might a CRP result be removed in a newborn baby?

A

Difficulty in drawing blood can cause haemolysis, and if the haemolysis index exceeds 500 for CRP, the result is automatically removed.

68
Q

What is the Roche e801 module also known as?

A

The immunoassay unit.

69
Q

How do immunoassays work?

A

They quantify an analyte based on the reaction between an antigen (analyte) and an antibody.

70
Q

What types of samples are primarily used in the e801 module?

A

Serum and plasma.

71
Q

How long do assays on the e801 module take?

A

Between 9 and 32 minutes.

72
Q

How many tests can the e801 module process per hour?

A

Up to 2000 tests per hour.

73
Q

What technology does the e801 module use?

A

Electrochemiluminescence (ECL) technology.

74
Q

What are the two types of immunoassays?

A

Sandwich immunoassay and competitive immunoassay.

75
Q

How many antibodies are used in a sandwich immunoassay?

A

Two antibodies.

76
Q

How does a sandwich immunoassay work?

A

A capture antibody binds to a solid surface, the sample is added, and a second antibody binds to a different epitope on the antigen, forming a “sandwich.”

77
Q

What role does the second antibody play in a sandwich immunoassay?

A

It has a molecular label that forms part of an ECL reaction.

78
Q

How is the signal related to analyte concentration in a sandwich immunoassay?

A

The signal is proportional to the analyte concentration.

79
Q

What type of analytes typically use sandwich assays?

A

Larger analytes, such as TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).

80
Q

How many antibodies are used in a competitive immunoassay?

A

One antibody.

81
Q

What type of analytes typically use competitive assays?

A

Smaller analytes, such as testosterone.

82
Q

How does a competitive immunoassay work?

A

The sample is mixed with a labelled analogue, and both the labelled analogue and the analyte compete for binding to the capture antibody.

83
Q

How is the signal related to analyte concentration in a competitive immunoassay?

A

The signal is inversely related to analyte concentration.

84
Q

What two electrochemically active substances are involved in the ECL reaction?

A

Tris(2,2’-bipyridyl) ruthenium (II) complex [Ru(bpy)₃]²⁺ and Tripropylamine (TPA).

85
Q

Where does the ECL reaction occur?

A

At the surface of a platinum electrode when a voltage is applied.

86
Q

What happens to TPA when voltage is applied?

A

TPA is oxidized at the electrode, forming an intermediate radical-cation, which then releases a proton (H⁺) to produce a TPA-radical.

87
Q

What happens to ruthenium in the ECL reaction?

A

Ruthenium releases an electron and is oxidized to form a [Ru(bpy)₃]³⁺ cation.

88
Q

How does the ECL reaction produce light?

A

The TPA-radical transfers energy to [Ru(bpy)₃]³⁺, causing it to return to [Ru(bpy)₃]²⁺ and enter an excited state, which emits light at 620 nm when it decays.

89
Q

When does the ECL reaction cycle restart?

A

The cycle restarts when [Ru(bpy)₃]²⁺ is regenerated, continuing until all TPA in the electrical field is depleted.

90
Q

How is light emission used in ECL-based immunoassays?

A

Under an electrical current, TPA reacts with ruthenium complexes (bound to biotinylated antibody) to emit light. The emitted light is measured to determine the concentration of the analyte.

91
Q

What is the Hook Effect?

A

A phenomenon in sandwich assays where very high analyte levels lead to falsely low results.

92
Q

How can the Hook Effect be detected?

A

By diluting the sample and remeasuring.

93
Q

Why is antibody production challenging?

A

It is expensive and prone to batch variability.

94
Q

What is cross-reactivity in immunoassays?

A

When similar analytes (e.g., steroids) interfere with test results.

95
Q

How does biotin interfere with some immunoassays?

A

Biotin supplements can disrupt biotin-streptavidin binding, leading to inaccurate results.

96
Q

How do competitive immunoassays work?

A

The sample analyte competes with a labeled analogue for antibody binding; signal is inversely proportional to analyte concentration.

97
Q

What type of analytes use sandwich immunoassays?

A

Larger molecules like TSH.

98
Q

What type of analytes use competitive immunoassays?

A

Smaller molecules like testosterone.

99
Q

What is osmolality?

A

The concentration of dissolved particles in a solution.

100
Q

When is serum osmolality measured?

A

To investigate hyponatremia, hypernatremia, abnormal urine output, excessive thirst, or toxic alcohol ingestion.

101
Q

What principle does an osmometer use?

A

Freezing point depression.

102
Q

What toxic alcohols can affect serum osmolality?

A

Methanol and ethylene glycol.

103
Q

What can urine osmolality indicate?

A

The cause of high or low urine output.

104
Q

What is freezing point depression?

A

The freezing point of a liquid is lowered when another substance is dissolved in it.

105
Q

How is the sample prepared in an osmometer?

A

It is injected, supercooled, and agitated to cause crystallization.

106
Q

What does an osmometer measure?

A

The osmolality of a sample based on freezing point depression.

107
Q

What happens after crystallization in an osmometer?

A

The resulting heat of fusion raises the sample temperature to a plateau equilibrium.

108
Q

How is osmolality determined in an osmometer?

A

A high-precision thermistor measures the plateau temperature, which is used to calculate osmolality.

109
Q

What is the purpose of measuring chloride in sweat?

A

It is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis.

110
Q

How does cystic fibrosis affect sweat chloride levels?

A

Patients with cystic fibrosis have higher levels of chloride in their sweat than unaffected individuals.

111
Q

Is sweat chloride concentration affected by genotype?

A

No, this feature is independent of the genotype.

112
Q

How is localised sweating induced for sweat chloride measurement?

A

By using electrical stimulation on the surface of the arm.

113
Q

What device is used to collect sweat for analysis?

A

A macroduct sweat collector

114
Q

How does the sweat chloride analyser work?

A

It works by Coulometric titration.

115
Q

What is in the working solution of the sweat chloride analyser?

A

An acid buffer plus stabiliser, with no silver ions.

116
Q

What happens when a sweat sample is added to the solution?

A

The indicator current drops, and silver ions are released by the anode.

117
Q

What occurs after the silver ions are released in the sweat chloride analyser?

A

All chloride ions are precipitated out as silver chloride, restoring the original silver chloride concentration.

118
Q

What does the period of current flow represent in the sweat chloride analyser?

A

It is proportional to the sweat chloride ion concentration.

119
Q

What can cause borderline results in sweat testing?

A

Newborn screening or genotype positive but inconclusive sweat test results.

120
Q

What are some limitations of the sweat chloride testing method?

A

It is manual, requiring accurate pipetting and manual transcription.

121
Q

How long can sweat collection take in some cases?

A

It can take around 30 minutes.

122
Q

Why can sweat collection be difficult in newborns?

A

It can be difficult to obtain sufficient sweat from newborns.

123
Q

What is the Uvikon XL Spectrophotometer used for?

A

It is used to run the CSF Xanthochromia assay.

124
Q

What causes blood to leak into the cerebral ventricles and CSF after a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)?

A

Blood leaks into the cerebral ventricles and CSF after a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH).

125
Q

What is Xanthochromia?

A

Xanthochromia is the yellow discolouration of CSF caused by the release of oxyhaemoglobin from disintegrating red blood cells and its conversion to bilirubin.

126
Q

How is CSF collected for Xanthochromia testing?

A

CSF is collected via a lumbar puncture.

127
Q

How does the spectrophotometer analyze the CSF sample?

A

The spectrophotometer scans the CSF sample using a range of wavelengths to determine absorbance peaks.

128
Q

What does the spectrophotometer detect for Xanthochromia?

A

It detects absorbance peaks showing the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin, the breakdown products of blood.

129
Q

What can cause interfering peaks in Xanthochromia testing?

A

Certain drugs, such as the antibiotic doxycycline, can cause interfering peaks.

130
Q

What is required for the manual method of Xanthochromia testing?

A

The manual method requires specialist training

131
Q

What can introduce traces of blood in CSF testing?

A

Previous lumbar punctures performed within the last 2 weeks may introduce traces of blood.

132
Q

Why is it important to protect the CSF sample from light?

A

Bilirubin breaks down in the presence of light, which can affect the test results.

133
Q

When is the Xanthochromia test valid after a potential event?

A

The test is not valid until 12 hours after the possible event, as it takes 12 hours for blood to break down into bilirubin and oxyhaemoglobin.